pharm Qs bank Flashcards

1
Q

which method avoids first pass metabolism?

A

sublingual

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2
Q

how is salbutamol given?

A

inhalation

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3
Q

which drug is totally metabolised in first pass metabolism?

A

GTN (glyceryl trinitate)

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4
Q

a quaternary ammonium compound can only be deliverd by the following route:

A

intravenous

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5
Q

which of the following statements concerning atropine is false?

A

paralyses skeletal muscle

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6
Q

the alpha adrenergic receptor antagonist phentolamine causes which one of the following effects:

A

fall in blood pressure in pheochromocytoma

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7
Q

which is a selective alpha-1 antagonist?

A

prazosin

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8
Q

which is an acetylcholine antagonist?

A

benztropine

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9
Q

what is the action of salbutamol?

A

bronchodilation

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10
Q

what is an adrenoceptor neurone blocker?

A

used as hypertensive drugs

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11
Q

which of the following is incorrect:

A

all ionised drugs are lipid soluble

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12
Q

what is the ration of distribution of aspirin across biological membrane?

A

9900:01:00

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13
Q

which drug can be absorbed from the stomach?

A

aspirin

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14
Q

what do acidic drugs bind to?

A

albumin

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15
Q

what do basic drugs bind to?

A

albumin and alpha-acid glycoprotein

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16
Q

in which process is there the introduction of groups so that is can undergo phase 2 reactions?

A

functionalisation

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17
Q

what does conjugation reactions involve?

A

generally increase in rate of excretion

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18
Q

name a drug that can proceed without phase 1 reaction?

A

temazepam

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19
Q

an usual site of excretion

A

sweat

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20
Q

which is not the fator that affects drug concentration in blood plasma?

A

conjugation

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21
Q

what is the loading dose?

A

given at the beginning of treatment as one big dose

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22
Q

which is not a factor of multiple dosing (long 0.5t)?

A

hard to maintain in therapeutic window

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23
Q

which is not a factor of multiple dosing (short 0.5t)?

A

small fluctuations between doses

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24
Q

ionisation affects

A

distribution

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25
Q

which is not a structure of quarternary ammonium ions?

A

R group is not an aryl group

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26
Q

the ANS can be:

A

excitatory or inhibitory

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27
Q

the ANS is controlled by:

A

None of the above

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28
Q

the SNS can be:

A

excitatory only

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29
Q

the SNS is controlled by

A

cerebrum

30
Q

what do SNS terminals produce?

A

acetylcholine

31
Q

what do ANS terminals produce?

A

noradrenaline and acetylcholine

32
Q

which divisions of the hypothalamus has direct parasympathetic innervations?

A

anterior and medial regions

33
Q

which divisions of the hypothalamus has direct sympathetic innervations?

A

lateral and posterior regions

34
Q

which is not a muscarinic agonist?

A

BDZ

35
Q

Which is an adverse effect of alpha-2 adrenergic agonists?

A

hypotension

36
Q

which is not an anti- muscarinic effect?

A

tremors

37
Q

which is not a property of pyridostigmine?

A

tertiary ammonium

38
Q

which cranial nerve is not involved in parasympathetic innervations?

A

trigeminal

39
Q

what is the function of occulomotor nerve?

A

innervates four extrinsic muscles of the eye

40
Q

what is the function of facial nerve?

A

innervates facial expression muscles

41
Q

suxamethonium

A

is a depolarising blocker at neuromuscular junction end-plate

42
Q

which of the following statements is correct?

A

physiological antagonism is exhibited by salbutamol in asthma

43
Q

the mechanism of action of ipratropium in the treatment of asthma is:

A

inhibition of the effect of the vagus

44
Q

which of the following statements is correct?

A

histamine release from mast cells stimulates H2 receptors on the parietal cell

45
Q

what is the mode of action of ipratropium?

A

anticholinergic drug

46
Q

which is not a property of pyridostigmine?

A

tertiary ammonium

47
Q

what is the function of glossopharyngeal nerve

A

innervates tongue and pharynx

48
Q

what produce acetylcholine neurotransmitter?

A

choline acetyl transferase (CAT)

49
Q

excess production of acetylcholine neurotransmitter doesn’t result in:

A

stimulation of respiratory and cardiovascular centres

50
Q

NM junctions function by

A

sodium-potassium channel

51
Q

the M1/M3/M5 receptors function by

A

phospholipase C

52
Q

the M2/M4 receptors function by

A

cAMP

53
Q

which cranial nerve innervates parotid salivary gland?

A

glossopharyngeal

54
Q

which cranial nerve innervates parotid, iris radial muscle, and ciliary muscle?

A

occulomotor

55
Q

which is the cofactor for dopa beta- hydroxylase?

A

Ascorbate

56
Q

selective agonists of alpha-1 > alpha 2?

A

phenylephrine

57
Q

selective agonists of alpha-2> alpha 1?

A

clonidine

58
Q

selective agonists of beta-1= beta-2?

A

dobutamine

59
Q

what is the resting membrane potential?

A

-60 to -90mV

60
Q

where does acetylcholine neurotransmitter get broken down?

A

synaptic basal lamina

61
Q

selective agonists of alpha-1, alpha-2, and beta-1?

A

noradrenaline

62
Q

how does hemicholinium function?

A

competes with choline transporter for uptake

63
Q

how does botulinum toxin function?

A

inhibits fusion of vesicles at pre-synaptic membrane

64
Q

how does streptomycin/ tetracycline function?

A

calcium channel blocker

65
Q

how does Black widow spider function?

A

promotes exocytosis

66
Q

which is an example of competitive non depolarising antagonist?

A

tubocurare

67
Q

which is not a side effect of depolarising blocker?

A

inhibits potassium release

68
Q

which is not a clinical function of NMJ blockers?

A

hypothermia

69
Q

which is eMax?

A

max effect

70
Q

pAx values can only be determined for

A

competitive antagonists