Pharm Pulmonary Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

LABA

A

Long acting beta agonist

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2
Q

SABA

A

Short acting Beta agonist

Most effective medication for relief of acute bronchospasm.

More than one canister per month suggests inadequate asthma control

Regularly scheduled use is not generally recommended

May lower effectiveness

May increase airway hyperresponsiveness

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3
Q

LAMA

A

Long acting Muscarinic Antagonists

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4
Q

Bronchodilators MOA

A

Activate Beta 2 receptors in smooth muscles of lung, promoting bronchodilation and thereby relieving bronchospasm.

Also suppress histamine release in the lung and increase ciliary motility

Open up bronchial tubes so that more air can move through.

Helps clear mucus from lungs.

As airway opens the mucus moves more freely and can be coughed out.

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5
Q

Short acting Bronchodilators

A

Quick acting, Rescue
Relieve asthma symptoms very quickly by opening airways

Action starts within minutes after inhalation and last for 2 to 4 hours

Used 15- 20 minutes before exercise to prevent exercise induced asthma

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6
Q

Long acting Bronchodilators

A

Used to provide control -
not quick relief of asthma

Lasts for at least 12 hours

Those containing formoterol begin their action within a few minutes, while those containing salmeterol take up to 45 minutes to begin their action

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7
Q

Regularly scheduled of use of SABA is not generally recommended due to:

A

May lower effectiveness

May increase airway hyperresponsiveness

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8
Q

Albuterol HFA

A

Ventolin (beta 2 agonist)

Indications
Bronchospasm
Exercise induced bronchospasm (2 puffs 15 minutes before exercise)

(Nebules, Syrup, Inhal soln 0.5%)

Interactions:
Avoid MAOI, tricyclics within 14 days (increased cardiovascular effects)

Adverse:
Hypokalemia,
Tremor, nervousness, headache, dizziness, hyperactivity, insomnia, weakness, tachycardia

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9
Q

Bronchodilators Adverse effects

A

Inhaled:
(tachycardia, angina, tremors)

Oral:
Systemic exposure is much larger
adverse effects are more likely

Excessive dosage can lead to angina pectoris, tachydysrhythmia, tremor

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10
Q

Ipratropium Bromide

A

Atrovent 17mcg
(Anti-cholinergic / Anti-muscarinic)

Bronchospasm associated with chronic bronchitis and emphysema
Asthma exacerbation (mod-severe)

Contra:
Allergy to atropine or its derivatives

Warning:
Narrow angle glaucoma

Interactions:
Other anti-cholinergics

Adverse:
Anti-cholinergic effects

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11
Q

Ipratropium Bromide 20mcg
+
Albuterol 100mcg

A

Combivent

Contraindications:
Atropine allergy

Extreme caution within 2 weeks of MAOI’s or tricyclics (increased cardiovascular effect)

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12
Q

Muscarinic antagonist MOA

A

Ipratropium
Tiotropium (longer acting)
Given by aerosol

Competitively blocks muscarinic receptors in the airways and effectively prevent the bronchoconstriction caused by vagal discharge. it has no effect on the inflammatory aspect of asthma

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13
Q

MDI vs DPI

A

MDI
Metered Dose inhaler

Advantages -Non breath activated
Disadvantages - Patient coordination

DPI
Dry Powder Inhaler

Advantages - Breath activated, propellent not required

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14
Q

Inhaled corticoid steroids

A
Mometasone
Fluticasone
Flunisolide
Ciclesonide
Budesonide
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15
Q

LABA Adverse / Contras

A

Formoterol, Salmeterol
For: Bronchospasm

Adverse:
HA, pain, HTN, Dizzy, Nasal/throat irritation

Interactions
Alpha blocker, azoles, BB, Clarithromycin, Loops, MAOI’s, TCA’s, Quinidine, Nelfinavir/ritonavir

Precautions:
CVD, DM, COPD, Thyroid, glaucoma, seizure, hypokalemia, pregnancy, lactation,

Contra:
Acute asthma attack

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16
Q

LABA Medications

A

Pure LABA’s
Salmeterol
Formoterol

LABA’s
Indacaterol
Oldaterol
Vilanterol

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17
Q

Salmeterol

A

Adjunct to inhaled corticosteroids for the treatment of asthma in prevention of bronchospasm in reversible airway obstruction disease

Not for acute relief of bronchospasm

Contra:
***Treatment of asthma without use of inhaled corticosteroids
Primary treatment of status asthmaticus
Acute asthma, COPD

Warning
***Asthma related death

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18
Q

Using LABA alone to treat asthma:

A

When using LABA alone to treat asthma without inhaled corticosteroids can lead to lung inflammation and an increased risk of asthma related death.

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19
Q

LABA + ICS Meds

A

Advair
Fluticasone + Salmeterol

Airduo
Fluticasone + Salmeterol

Breo Ellipta
Fluticasone + vilanterol

Dulera
Mometasone + formoterol

Symbicort
Budesonide + Formoterol

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20
Q

LTRA

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

A

Montelukast
Zileuton

Anti-leukotriene agents inhibit the action of leukotrienes by blocking the CysLT1 receptor or by interrupting production by 5-lipoxygenase

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21
Q

LTRA
Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Anti-leukotriene agents inhibit the action of leukotrienes by blocking the CysLT1 receptor
What meds?

A

Montelukast
Zafirlukast
Pranlukast

MZP

Generally well tolerated

Be aware of possible psych , behavior, neurogenic issues

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22
Q

LTRA
Leukotriene receptor antagonist
by interrupting production by 5-lipoxygenase

A

Zileutron

Generally has more adverse effects than the others

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23
Q

Montelukast

A

Singulair (leukotriene receptor antagonist)

> 15 years old : One 10mg tablet

For seasonal allergic rhinitis. Reserve use for those who have an adequate response or intolerance to alternate therapies

Warning:
Serious neuropsychiatric events

Adverse:
URI, Fever, HA, Pharyngitis, cough, abdominal pain, diarrhea, otitis media, influenza, rhinorrhea, sinusitis

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24
Q

Zileuton

A

Zyflo (5-lipooxygenase inhibitor)

Prophylaxis and chronic treatment of asthma

Not recommended for Children

Contra:
Active liver disease, ALT elevated 3x normal limit

Warnings:
Not for primary treatment of acute attacks
Monitor liver function

History of liver disease, Monitor liver function 1st 3 months, every 2-3 months for remainder of the year
Alcohol consumption, neuropsych events

Interactions
Potentiates theophylline (reduce dose of theophylline)
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25
Q

Acute bronchiolitis

A

is broadly defined as a clinical syndrome of respiratory distress that occurs in children <2 years of age and is characterized by upper respiratory symptoms leading to lower respiratory infection with inflammation, which results in wheezing and or crackles. It typically occurs with primary infection or reinfection with a viral pathogen.

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26
Q

Acute bronchiolitis

management of severe bronchiolitis

A

Supportive care
(hydration, O2, Resp support)
and anticipatory guidance are the mainstays of management of severe bronchiolitis

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27
Q

Acute bronchiolitis

Children with first episode of bronchiolitis

A

Don’t administer inhaled bronchodilators

(albuterol, Epi) to infants and children with first episode of bronchiolitis.

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28
Q

Children with RSV bronchiolitis

A

Treated the same as children with bronchiolitis caused by other pathogens

Supportive care is mainstay

Pharmacotherapy is not routinely recommended

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29
Q

Adults and Older Children with RSV bronchiolitis

A

Glucocorticoids and bronchodilators may be beneficial

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30
Q

Interventions that have shown a reduced rate of progression and decreased mortality in observational studies include

A

Single agent combination therapy with ribavirin
intravenous immune globulin
palivizumab
and/or glucocorticoids

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31
Q

Ribavirin

A

Virazole (Nucleoside analogue)

indications
Sever lower respiratory infections due to RSV in hospitalized infants and young children

Children;
Treat within first 3 days of infection

Contra:
Pregnancy Cat X

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32
Q

palivizumab

A

Synagis

Class:
Antiviral monoclonal antibody (IgG1K)

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33
Q

Acute epiglottitis

A

Describes inflammation of the epiglottitis and adjacent supraglottic structures

Airway is first priority

Sniffing, tripod posture

Swelling is generally improved after 2-3 days after ABX when caused by H. Flu

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34
Q

Acute epiglottitis Tx

A

Combination of
3rd gen ceph
and anti-staph agent (vanc)

Ceph and vanc

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35
Q

Croup (mild)

A

Single dose Dexamethasone or prednisolone

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36
Q

Children with moderate croup

A

Stridor at rest with mild to moderate retractions should be evaluated in the office or the ED

Tx: Nebulized Epi
and
Single dose of dexamethasone
0.6mg/kg (max 16mg) least invasive route

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37
Q

Children with severe croup

A

Stridor at rest with marked retractions and significant distress or agitation should be seen in the ED

Approach these children cautiously as anxiety may increase and worsen the airway obstruction

Tx: Nebulized Epi
and
Single dose of dexamethasone
0.6mg/kg (max 16mg) least invasive route

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38
Q

Why dexamethasone for moderate to severe croup

A
Most extensively studied
inexpensive
easy to administer
longer duration of action compared with other agents
0.6mg/kg (max 16mg) least invasive route
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39
Q

Hospital management of croup

A
Supportive care
IV fluids, Fever reduction
Repeated doses of nebulized EPI
Humidified O2
(no repeated dosages of steroids)
Monitor for worsening respiratory distress
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40
Q

Pertussis in infants and children

A

Supportive care is mainstay

Pay attention to fluid and nutritional status

Avoid known triggers for paroxysmal coughing fits
(Exercise, cold, nasopharyngeal suctioning)

Symptomatic treatments with Bronchodilators, corticosteroids, antihistamines, antitussives haven’t been proven to improve cough in pertussis

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41
Q

Pertussis in infants and children

Treatment

A

Macrolides (Azithromycin, erythromycin)

Bactrim may be used as alternative

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42
Q

For incompletely immunized children with well documented pertussis infection:
Treatment

A

Complete immunization with an acellular pertussis containing vaccine
DTAP or TDAP vaccine rather than just diphtheria toxoid/tetanus toxoid vaccine

Children may return to school after they have completed 5 days of ABX or if untreated, 21 days after symptoms begin

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43
Q

Pertussis in adults

A

Azithromycin or clarithromycin
Bactrim is alternative

TDaP is recommended at age11-12

44
Q

Patients with B. Pertussis infections:

A

Should avoid contact with young children and infants until they have completed at least 5 days of ABX.

Should not return to work/school etc until after 5 days of ABX

45
Q

Pertussis prevention

A

Tetanus and diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis (TDaP) vaccination

Routine vaccination:
Previously did not receive Tdap at or after age 11:
1 dose Tdap, then Td or Tdap every 10 years

46
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

For patients under 6 there is no evidence of best treatment

Therapies focus on:

Clearance of airway secretions
Reversal of bronchoconstriction
Treatment of respiratory infections
Replacement of pancreatic enzymes
Nutritional and psychosocial support
47
Q

Cystic fibrosis for under 6 years old

A

For patients under 6 there is no evidence of best treatment

Therapies focus on:

Clearance of airway secretions
Reversal of bronchoconstriction
Treatment of respiratory infections
Replacement of pancreatic enzymes
Nutritional and psychosocial support
48
Q

Cystic fibrosis managment

A

CFTR modulators - depends on age and genotype

Airway clearance therapies - inhaled Dnase, inhaled hypertonic saline, chest physiotherapy

Prevention/management of infections - vaccinations, infection control

Bronchodilators - inhaled beta 2 adrenergic receptor agonist

Anti-inflammatory therapy - azithromycin, ibuprofen, inhaled glucocorticoids

Prevention of acute exacerbations - routine surveillance of sputum cultures or throat swabs

49
Q

CFTR

A

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator

All patients with CF should undergo CFTR genotyping to determine if they carry one of the variants approved for CFTR modulator therapy

Selection depends on variant and child’s age

50
Q

Elexacaftor, Tezacaftor, Ivacaftor

Trikafta

A

Indications

Tx of CF in patients 12 and older who have at least one “F508del” mutation in the CFTR gene

51
Q

Foreign body aspiration in children

A

FB aspiration should be suspected in children who have sudden onset of lower respiratory symptoms,
or those who do not respond to standard management of other suspected etiologies such as pneumonia, asthma, or croup

Highest risk is children ages 1-3

52
Q

Hyaline membrane disease

A

Now known as
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

It is caused by surfactant deficiency that leads to alveolar collapse and diffuse atelectasis

Tx:
Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation

Administration of exogenous surfactants can be used in the delivery room as prophylaxis or as rescue

53
Q

poractant alfa

A

Curosurf (lung surfactant)

indications
Treatment (rescue) of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in premature infants

54
Q

Childhood asthma

Treatment for acute exacerbation

A

Treatment for acute exacerbation

Goal: relieve the bronchoconstriction

SABA - albuterol, levobuterol
SAMA - Ipratropium Bromide
Systemic glucocorticoids - Prednisone, prednisolone

55
Q

Childhood Asthma

Treatment for asthma management

A

Treatment for asthma management

Patient education - Optimizing control of asthma symptoms and prevention

Control of asthma triggers

Monitoring for changes in symptoms or lung function

Pharmacological therapy

56
Q

Childhood asthma

Treatment of asthma - control and prevention

A

Treatment of asthma - control and prevention

inhaled glucocorticoids - Budesonide, fluticasone propionate, Beclomethasone

Leukotriene modifiers - Montelukast

Long acting beta agonist bronchodilator and inhaled steroid combo

57
Q

Carcinoid tumors

A

Carcinoid syndrome is relatively uncommon
But it can appear in both parents with locoregional or disseminated disease.

Surgical resection represents the preferred strategy for patients with locoregional lung NET’s producing carcinoid syndrome.

For unresectable disease, we recommend initiation of long acting somatostatin analog (SSA) therapy with octreotide

58
Q

Carcinoid syndrome symptoms

A
Skin flushing
Hives
NVD
Cramps
Bronchoconstriction
Cough, wheezing, Dyspnea
Hepatomegaly
Pelvic fibrosis
Cardiac valve lesions
59
Q

Carcinoid tumors with progressive or disseminated disease that is SSA resistant (somatostatin analog)

A

Everolimus

60
Q

Somatostatin analogs (SSA)

A

Injections of SSA’a can be used to lessen symptoms of carcinoid syndrome including diarrhea and flushing

Octreotide (Sandostatin Depot)
can be long or short acting

They help block serotonin which helps with diarrhea and flushing

61
Q

Octreotide

A

Sandostatin (SSA)

Warnings:
DM, Hypothyroidism, CVD

Adverse:
Gallbladder abnormalities, GI Upset, Bradycardia, conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, hypothyroidism

62
Q

Everolimus

A

Afinitor (mTOR Kinase inhibitor)

Indications:
In adults with progressive neuroendocrine tumors of pancreatic origin (PNET)
or
progressive, well differentiated, non functional endocrine Tumors (NET) of GI or lung origin with unresectable locally advanced or metastatic disease

Not for treating functional carcinoid tumors

Contraindications
Allergy to other rapamycin derivatives

Adverse:
Stomatitis, infections, rash, fatigue, diarrhea, edema

63
Q

telotristat

A

Xermelo (tryptophan hydroxylase inhibitor)

Indications:
In combination with somatostatin analog therapy
to treat carcinoid syndrome diarrhea in adults inadequately controlled by SSA therapy

Adverse:
Nausea, HA, Increased GGT, Depression, flatulence, decreased appetite

Recently approved in the US for Diarrhea from carcinoid syndrome

It targets overproduction of serotonin within neuroendocrine tumor cells and is taken in combo with a somatostatin analog when the SSA alone is not effective.

64
Q

Most common types of lung cancer

A

Most common
Non small cell lung cancer = 85% (NSCL)

Subtype of NSCL
Most common
Adenocarcinoma 40%

65
Q

NSCLC
Non Small Cell lung Cancer
Medication

A

Pembrolizumab monotherapy

66
Q

Patients with NSCLC

Non Small Cell lung Cancer

A

Initial management is largely determined by the stage of disease

Early stages: surgical resection
If extensive intrathoracic disease use concurrent chemoradiation

Patients with advanced disease are managed palliatively with systemic therapy or local palliative modalities

67
Q

Patients with SCLC

Small cell lung cancer

A

Systemic Chemo
because SCLC is spread throughout body

For those with limited stage disease, thoracic radiation in combo with chemo is best

Prophylactic cranial irradiation is often used to decrease brain metastases and prolong survival

Both may be beneficial in those with a complete or partial response to initial systemic chemo

68
Q

pembrolizumab

A

Keytruda (human programmed death receptor (PD-1) blocking antibody)

Indications
First line single agent for stage 3 NSCLC for those who are not eligible for surgery or chemo

Adverse:
Fatigue, MSK pain, decreased appetite, pruritus, diarrhea, nausea

Elimination:
Half life 22 days

69
Q

Cisplatin

A

Platinum coordination complex

Warning:
Nephrotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, NV, myelosuppression

Adverse:
Nephrotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, NV, myelosuppression, ototoxicity

70
Q

Cisplatin MOA

A

Cytotoxicity results from selective inhibition of tumor DNA synthesis by formation of intra and interstrand crosslinks in the DNA molecule

71
Q

etoposide

A

Topoisomerase inhibitor

Adverse:
GI, mucositis, myelosuppression (neutropenia and thrombocytopenia may be fatal)

72
Q

Sphere of lung cancer complications

A
SPHERE
S - Superior vena cava syndrome
P - pancoast tumor
H - Horner syndrome
E - Pleural effusion
R - Recurrent laryngeal symptoms (hoarseness)
E - Endocrine
73
Q

Horner syndrome

A
SAMPLE
S - Sympathetic nerve fiber injury
A - Anhidrosis
M - Miosis
P - Ptosis
L - Loss of ciliospinal reflex
E - Enopthalmos
74
Q

Etiologies of Pulmonary nodules

A

Benign = Infectious granuloma
mycobacteria, coccidiomycosis, histoplasmosis, TB

Malignant = adenocarcinoma

75
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome

Small cell carcinoma

A

SIADH → Hyponatremia

Increased ACTH → Cushings syndrome

Carcinoid → Flushing & diarrhea

Eaton lambert syndrome

SVC syndrome

76
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

PTHrp → Hypercalcemia

Horner syndrome → Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

Pancoast tumor → 1st, 2nd, thoracic nerve → Shoulder pain → Ulnar nerve pain

77
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome SIADH

A

SCLC accounts for 75% of all malignancy related to SIADH

78
Q

Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS)

A

50% are Autoimmune disorder
diagnosed after age 40
can occur in children under age 10

50% also associated with small cell lung cancer
Diagnosed after age 50

79
Q

Neurotransmitter associated with LEMS

A

ACH

80
Q

Treatment for LEMS in patients with weakness

A

Amifampridine

81
Q

amifampridine

A

Firdapse (potassium channel blocker)
Indication:
LEMS

Contra:
History of seizures

82
Q

amifampridine (Firdapse) MOA

A

Potassium channel blocker

Blocks potassium channels allowing calcium channels to stay open longer

this increases ACH release

Increased ACH binding to muscle ACH receptors restores lost muscle strength

83
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome

A

Hematologic

Anemia
Leukocytosis
Thrombocytosis
Eosinophilia
Hypercoagulable disorders
84
Q

ARDS

A

Typical regime

Methylprednisolone 1mg/kg for 21-28 days
or
Dexamethasone 20mg IV QD for 5 days
followed by 10mg QD for 5 days

85
Q

Which antibiotic is given for patients with CF and positive for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

penicillin
levofloxacin
azithromycin
vancomycin
metronidazole
A

azithromycin

86
Q

Which of the following medications is a SABA?

albuterol (Ventolin)
ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
salmeterol (Serevent)
montelukast (Singulair)
omalizumab (Xolair)
A

albuterol (Ventolin)**

87
Q

Which of the following medications is a LABA?

albuterol (Ventolin)
ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
salmeterol (Serevent)
montelukast (Singulair)
omalizumab (Xolair)
A

salmeterol (Serevent)**

88
Q

Which of the following medications is a IgE antagonist?

albuterol (Ventolin)
ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
salmeterol (Serevent)
montelukast (Singulair)
omalizumab (Xolair)
A

omalizumab (Xolair)**

89
Q

Which of the following medications is a LTRA?

albuterol (Ventolin)
ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
salmeterol (Serevent)
montelukast (Singulair)
omalizumab (Xolair)
A

montelukast (Singulair)**

90
Q

Which of the following medications is a SAMA?

albuterol (Ventolin)
ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
salmeterol (Serevent)
montelukast (Singulair)
omalizumab (Xolair)
A

ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)**

91
Q

Which antibiotics is usually the mainstay of therapy for patients with acute epiglottitis?

Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin
Ceftriaxone plus clarithromycin
Ceftriaxone plus metronidazole
Ceftriaxone plus vancomycin
Ceftriaxone plus amoxicillin
A

Ceftriaxone plus vancomycin

92
Q

What is the usual first-line agent (no allergies) for patients with pertussis?

Azithromycin
metronidazole
TMP-SMX
vancomycin
amoxicillin
A

Azithromycin**

93
Q

What is the usual alternative agent for patients with pertussis?

azithromycin
metronidazole
TMP-SMX
vancomycin
amoxicillin
A

TMP-SMX

94
Q

Which of the following medications has anticholinergic adverse effects?

albuterol (Ventolin)
ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
salmeterol (Serevent)
montelukast (Singulair)
omalizumab (Xolair)
A

ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)**

95
Q

Which medication blocks the production of hormones such asserotonin, reducing theflushingand diarrhea associated with carcinoid syndrome?

octreotide (Sandostatin)
everolimus (Afinitor)
telotristat ethyl (Xermelo)
pembrolizumab (Keytruda)

A

octreotide (Sandostatin)

96
Q

Which medication is a mTor inhibitor?

octreotide (Sandostatin)
everolimus (Afinitor)
telotristat ethyl (Xermelo)
pembrolizumab (Keytruda)

A

everolimus (Afinitor)

97
Q

Which medication was recently approved in the U.S. for the treatment of diarrhea caused by carcinoid syndrome?

octreotide (Sandostatin)
everolimus (Afinitor)
telotristat ethyl (Xermelo)
pembrolizumab (Keytruda

A

telotristat ethyl (Xermelo)

98
Q

Which medication shows good promise as a first-line treatment of Stage III non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) in patients who are not candidates for surgical resection or definitive chemoradiation, or metastatic NSCLC?

octreotide (Sandostatin)
everolimus (Afinitor)
telotristat ethyl (Xermelo)
pembrolizumab (Keytruda)

A

pembrolizumab (Keytruda)

99
Q

Which is not considered a feature of Horner’s syndrome?

Mydriasis
Anhidrosis
Enophthalmos
Ptosis

A

Mydriasis

100
Q

Which medication is considered a human programmed death receptor-1 (PD-1)-blocking antibody?

octreotide (Sandostatin)
everolimus (Afinitor)
telotristat ethyl (Xermelo)
pembrolizumab (Keytruda)

A

pembrolizumab (Keytruda)

101
Q

Which of the following does not belong in the lung cancer complications mnemonic “Sphere?”

Pancoast tumor
Horner Syndrome
Spherocytosis
Pleural effusion

A

Spherocytosis

102
Q

Which of the below is a contraindication for the medication, amifampridine (Firdapse)?

History of MI
History of liver failure
History of seizures
History of atrial fibrillation

A

History of seizures

103
Q

Which neurotransmitter is most associated with the medication, amifampridine (Firdapse)?

Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
Acetylcholine

A

Acetylcholine

104
Q

Which below drug is usually the mainstay drug for acute respiratory distress syndrome?

ASA
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
methylprednisolone

A

methylprednisolone

105
Q

Immunomodulators

A

For patients whose asthma is inadequately controlled on high-dose inhaled glucocorticoids and LABAs, the anti-IgE therapyomalizumab(Xolair)may be considered if there is objective evidence of sensitivity to a perennial allergen (by allergy skin tests or in vitro measurements of allergen-specific IgE) and if the serum IgE level is within the established target range.

106
Q

Omalizumab

A

Not for relief of acute bronchospasm or status asthmaticus. Not indicated for treatment of other allergic conditions.

Boxed Warning:
Anaphylaxis.

Antiasthmatic (IgE blocker).