Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Pharm: Neurodegenerative, movement disorders, and anti-epileptic Drugs > Flashcards

Pharm: Neurodegenerative, movement disorders, and anti-epileptic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the characteristics of Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  1. Muscle rigidity
  2. Tremor (at rest)
  3. Bradykinesia
  4. Postural instability
  5. Shuffling gait
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • death of DA neurons in substantia nigra pars compacta
  • Decreased DA in striatum
  • (-) direct pathway (which stimulates movement)
  • (+) indirect pathway (which inhibits movement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Levodopa/ Carbidopa (Sinemet)

  • IND
A

Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Levadopa

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Synthesized to DA by LAAD
      • need pyridoxine (B6)
    • Increase DA in brain
  • IND
    • IPD
  • SE
    • Vomiting (DA at area postrema)
    • Dyskinesias
      • choreathetosis of face, distal extremities
    • Psychosis
      • Treat with clozapine
    • Cardiac dysrhythmias
      • metabolism in periphery causes increased catecholamines
  • Loss of effect after about 5 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Carbidopa

  • MOA
  • IND
A
  • MOA
    • inhibits peripheral metabolism of levodopa by inhibiting DOPA decarboxylase
    • Decreased side effects in periphery
    • increased half life of L-DOPA
  • IND
    • IPD with L-DOPA treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What competes for the same transporter as Levadopa in the GI and can inhibit uptake of the drug?

A

Amino acids

(absorption by saturable amino acid transporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Levodopa metabolism

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drug is indicated for psychosis resulting from Levodopa treatment of IPD?

A

Clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

COMT inhibitors (Stalevo)

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • Tolcapone, entacapone
  • MOA
    • inhibits COMT in the periphery
    • increases levodopa in brain
  • IND
    • IPD when patients start to experience “off” periods to levodopa/ carbidopa
  • SE
    • Same as levodopa due to increased lvls
      • diskinesia
      • vomiting
      • psychosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Non-ergot derivatives, DA agonists

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • D2 receptor agonists
      • increases the “on” time with levodopa
    • inhibits indirect pathway
  • IND
    • IPD (used w/ or w/o levadopa)
    • Restless leg syndrome
  • SE
    • Daytime somnolence
    • Sleep attacks
    • Hallucinations
    • Dyskinesia when used w/ levadopa
    • Orthostatic hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ergot derivatives, DA agonists

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • D2 receptor agonist
  • IND
    • not used in US due to association with valvular heart disease
  • SE
    • valvular heart disease
    • Pulm Fibrosis
    • Raynaud-like phenomena
    • Orthostatic hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Selegiline

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • selective MAO-B inhibitor
    • Increased lvls of DA in neuron
  • IND
    • Parkinsons
  • SE
    • exacerbate Levodopa SEs
    • Insomnia (stimulant metabolite)
    • Seizure at high dose
      • CON: epilepsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Benztropine

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • M1 receptor antagonist in corpus striatum
    • stimulates GABA-ergic outflow
  • IND
    • Tremor, some rigidity in parkinson’s
  • SE
    • Antimuscarinic SEs (think atropine)
    • Closed Angle Glaucoma
    • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
    • CNS: sedation, hallucinations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Amantadine

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Stimulates release of DA from neurons of the nigra striatum
  • IND
    • Diskinesia in late Parkinson’s
  • SE
    • Anticholinergic
    • Livedo reticularis: skin discoloration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs are used for early wearing off of levodopa effect in Parkinson’s?

A
  • Adjust levodopa (change dose, timing)
  • Add dopamine agonist
  • Add COMT inhibitor, MAO B inhibitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is used to treat dyskinesia of Parkinson’s?

A
  • Reduce levodopa dose
  • add or increase dopamine agonist
  • add amantadine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is used to treat tremor in Parkinson’s?

A

Benztropine (M1-receptor antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is used to treat freezing in Parkinson’s?

A
  • apomorphine (non-ergot DA agonist)
  • orally disintegrating L-dopa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the characteristics of dystonias?

A
  • sustained muscle contractions
    • twisting and repetitive movements
    • abnormal postures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the characteristics of spasticity?

A

Stiff or rigid muscles with exaggerated, deep tendon reflexes

UMN disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drug is used to treat spasticity associated with MS?

A

Baclofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Baclofen

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • GABA-B receptor agonist
    • inhibits reflex at spinal level
  • IND
    • spasticity associated with MS
  • SE
    • Sedation
    • Withdrawal: seizures and acute psychosis
    • CON: spasm from rheumatic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dantrolene

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • inhibits Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle
    • decouples excitation - contraction
    • muscles relax
  • IND
    • Spasticity
    • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
    • Malignant Hyperthermia
  • SE
    • CNS effects: speech and visual disturbance
    • Hepatitis (Hepatotox)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Botulinum Toxin (Botox)

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Toxin
    • inhibits vesicle binding to presynaptic membrane
  • IND
    • Focal dystonia
    • Upper limb spasticity
    • VII nerve disorders
  • SE
    • asthenia (weakness)
    • Dysphagia and breathing difficulties (treatment of cervical dystonia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tizanidine

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist
    • increases presynaptic inhibition of motor neurons
    • Less muscle weakness than baclofen and benzodiazepines
  • IND
    • spasticity
    • fibromyalgia
    • migraine
    • anticonvulsant
  • SE
    • Hepatotox (hepatitis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the advantage of using Tizanidine to treat spasticity instead of Baclofen?

A

Less muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the characteristics of Huntington’s disease?

A
  • Motor Signs
    • Chorea
    • dysarthria/ dysphagia
    • bradykinesia
  • Mental:
    • personality changes
    • Depression
    • Dementia
    • Psychosis
  • Chemical cause:
    • Degeneration of GABAergic neurons in the striatum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What drug is used to treat chorea, like that found in Huntington’s disease?

A

Tetrabenazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tetrabenazine

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Inhibits VMAT2 (uptake of monoamines into vesicles)
    • Depletes monoamine stores
  • IND
    • Chorea
  • SE
    • Sedation
    • Insomnia
    • Akathisia (restlessness)
    • Depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the characteristics of Alzheimer’s Disease? Pathology?

A
  • Signs:
    • Loss of memory
    • Impaired thinking
    • Inability to perform daily tasks
  • Path:
    • Loss of cholinergic neurons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Donepezil

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • AChE inhibitor
    • increases ACh at the synapse
  • IND
    • Alzheimer’s
    • improves quality of life but does not slow progression
  • SE: Cholinergic effects:
    • GI: vomiting, dyspepsia
    • CV: syncopy, headache
    • Resp: bronchoconstriction
    • CNS: tremor, restlessness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Rivastigmine

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • AChE inhibitor
    • increases ACh at the synapse
  • IND
    • Alzheimer’s
    • improves quality of life but does not slow progression
  • SE: Cholinergic effects:
    • GI: vomiting, dyspepsia
    • CV: syncopy, headache
    • Resp: bronchoconstriction
    • CNS: tremor, restlessness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Galantamine

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • AChE inhibitor
    • increases ACh at the synapse
  • IND
    • Alzheimer’s
    • improves quality of life but does not slow progression
  • SE: Cholinergic effects:
    • GI: vomiting, dyspepsia
    • CV: syncopy, headache
    • Resp: bronchoconstriction
    • CNS: tremor, restlessness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Memantine

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • NMDA receptor antagonist
  • IND
    • moderate to advanced Alzheimer’s
  • SE
    • headache
    • confusion
    • constipation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Riluzole

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Decreases glutamate release
    • Inhibits Na and Ca channels
  • IND
    • ALS (lengthens survival)
  • SE
    • Allergic reaction
    • Liver problems
      • increased aminotransferases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What drugs are used to treat restless leg syndrome?

A
  • Non-ergot DA agonists
    • Praipexole
    • Ropinirole
  • Gabapentin enacarbil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Gabapentin Enacarbil

  • IND
  • SE
A
  • IND
    • Restless leg syndrome
  • SE
    • Somnolence
    • Sedation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

IFN-ß

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • anti-inflammatory
    • increased integrity of BBB
  • IND
    • MS
  • SE
    • Flu-like symptoms
    • Hepatotoxicity
    • Myelosuppression
    • Seizure
    • increased Depression and Suicide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Glatiramer Acetate

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • looks like myelin basic protein (decoy?)
    • Shifts pro-inflammatory T cells to anti-inflamm.
  • IND
    • MS (first attack or recurrent)
  • SE
    • Injection site lipoatrophy and necrosis
    • Rash
    • Chest pain
    • CON: mannitol hypersensitivity
40
Q

Natalizumab

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Ab against alpha-4-integrin (cell adhesion)
    • decreased inflammatory cell passage thru BBB
  • IND
    • MS (2nd line, monotherapy)
  • SE
    • Severe Liver injury
    • Increased risk meningitis/ encephalitis from HSV/ VZV
    • Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)
41
Q

Fingolimod

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • sphingosine-1-P receptor modulator
    • sequesters lymphocytes in nodes
    • can’t travel to CNS
  • IND
    • Relapsing MS
  • SE
    • Bradycardia/ AV block
    • Fatal infection
      • CON: vaccines
    • Skin cancer
    • Macular edema
      • CON: diabetes
    • Teratogen
    • Liver Tox
42
Q

Teriflunomide

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • decreased activated lymphocytes in CNS
  • IND
    • Relapsing MS
  • SE
    • Immunosuppressant
      • Decreased WBCs and platelets
    • Acute renal failure
    • Liver Tox
    • Hypercalcemia
    • Peripheral neuropathy
    • Teratogen
43
Q

Dimethyl fumarate

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Unknown
  • IND
    • Relapsing MS
    • First line
  • SE
    • Decreased lymphocyte counts
    • GI symptoms
44
Q

Mitoxantrone

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Immunosuppressant
    • (-) growth
  • IND
    • Progressive Relapsing MS
  • SE
    • tissue necrosis if extravasation occurs
      • GIVE IV!!
    • Cardiotox
    • AML
    • Neutropenia
    • Teratogen
45
Q

What drugs are used as first-line agents to treat Relapsing MS?

A
  • IFNβs
  • Glatiramer acetate
  • Monoclonal antibody
46
Q

Patient reports seizures with unvoluntary, repetitive movements. Consciousness is preserved. What type of seizure is this?

A

Simple partial seizure

Can also occur with paresthesias (sensory cortex) or flashing lights (visual cortex)

47
Q

Patient reports seizures preceeded by a bad odor. during the seizure there is an alterned consciousness and involuntary hand wringing. Afterward there is no memory of what has occured. What type of seizure is this?

A

Complex partial seizure

48
Q

Patient reports seizures preceded by a bad odor. The seizure starts with involuntary, repetative movements followed by loss of consciousness and sustained contractions followed by rhythmic movements of all limbs. What type of seizure is this?

A

Partial seizure with secondary generalization

49
Q

Patient’s spouse reports moments of blank stares after which the patient continues with their activity as if nothing has happened. The patient does not notice anything that signals one of these episodes will happen. Why type of seizure is this?

A

Absence seizure

50
Q

Patient has sudden falls due to brief muscle spasms. There is no indication that something is about to happen. Patient also has liver failure. What type of seizure is this?

A

Myoclonic seizure

Associated with systemic disease

51
Q

Patient reports seizures with loss of consciousness and jerking movements that last about 2 minutes. What type of seizure is it?

A

Tonic-clonic

52
Q

What is the MOA of Carbamazepine?

A
  • Stabilizes voltage-gated Na channels in the inactivated conformation
    • decreased AP propagation (inhibits spread)
    • Increased seizure threshold
53
Q

What are the indications for Carbamazepine?

A
  1. Focal Seizures w/ or w/o secondary generalization
  2. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
  3. Status Epilepticus
54
Q

What are the side effects of Carbamazepine?

A
  • Hyponatremia
    • Visual (nystagmus, blurred vision, diplopia)
    • Ataxia
  • Myelosuppression
  • Stevens Johnson Rash
    • common in Asians with HLA-B*1502
  • Teratogen
  • Increased suicide risk
55
Q

What is the benefit of using Oxcarbazepine over Carbamazepine?

A
  • Fewer side effects
    • No myelosuppression
  • Fewer drug interactions
    • no autoinduction
    • only with oral contraceptives
56
Q

With what seizure types can Oxcarbazepine not be used?

A
  • Absence
  • Myoclonic

Used in:

  • Partial
  • Tonic-clonic
57
Q

What are the indications for Eslicarbazepine?

A

Focal-onset (Partial) Seizures

58
Q

What is the MOA of Phenytoin?

A
  • decrease flow of Na into cell
    • increase refractory period
  • Decrease Ca ion flow into cell
    • Needed for vesicle - membrane fusion
    • decreased synaptic transmission
  • Overall
    • decreased AP
    • Decreased size and spread of seizure
59
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of Phenytoin?

A
  1. Partial seizures
  2. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
  3. Status epilepticus
  4. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
60
Q

What are the side effects of Phenytoin?

A
  • Cerebellar/ Vestibular signs
    • loss of horizontal gaze nystagmus and smooth pursuit eye mvmts
  • Gingival hyperplasia
  • Drug-induced Lupus
  • Teratogen
    • interferes with folate metabolism
    • leads to megaloblastic anemia
  • Osteomalacia
61
Q

What drug is preferred for treating seizures (not myoclonic) in children, elderly, and pregnant women? Why?

A

Lamotrigine

  • Low SE profile
  • Low CNS tox
  • NOT teratogen
62
Q

What is the MOA of Lamotrigine?

A
  1. Block fast voltage- gated Na channels
  2. Block T-type Ca channels
  3. Decrease glutamate release
63
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of Lamotrigene?

A
  1. Partial seizures
  2. Generalized seizures except myotonic
  3. Epilepsy
  4. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

Children and elderly

Pregnant women

64
Q

What are the side effects of Lamotrigene?

A
  1. Stevens Johnson Syndrome
  2. Aseptic meningitis

Low CNS tox

NOT teratogen

65
Q

Ethosuximide

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • blocks low- threshold T-type Ca channels
  • IND
    • Absence seizures
  • SE
    • Lupus-like syndrome
    • sleep disturbance
66
Q

Clonazepam

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Benzodiazepine
    • enhance GABA binding to GABA-A
  • IND
    • Absence
    • Myoclonic
    • Atonic seizures
  • SE
    • Sedation!
    • Respiratory depression
67
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of Diazepam and Lorazepam?

A

Prolonged generalized seizures

Tonic-clonic status epilepticus

(BZDs)

68
Q

Phenobarbital

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Binds GABA-A channel and increases time of chloride channnel opening
    • Limits seizure spread
    • Elevates threshold
  • IND
    • Simple partial seizures
    • Generalized tonic-clonic
    • CON: absence seizure
  • SE
    • Sedation
    • Depressed cognition
    • Lupus syndrome
69
Q

Tiagabine

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • inhibits GABA reuptake
    • (potentiates effect of GABA at post-synaptic neuron)
  • IND
    • Refractory partial seizure
  • SE
    • Sedation
    • Tremor
    • New-onset seizures and status epilepticus
70
Q

Vigabatrin

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • inhibits GABA- transaminase ((-) breakdown)
  • IND
    • Infantile spasms
    • (Refractory seizures)
  • SE
    • Visual field constriction
    • Blindness
71
Q

Felbamate

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Inhibits glutamate NMDA receptors
    • Potentiates GABA
  • IND
    • refractory partial seizure
    • Secondary generalized
  • SE
    • Hepatitis
    • Aplastic anemia
72
Q

Perampanel

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Glutamate NMDA receptor antagonist
  • IND
    • Focal-onset seizures
  • SE
    • Severe psychiatric adverse reactions (homicidal ideation)
73
Q

What is the MOA of Valproate?

A
  • Blocks T-type Ca channels
  • Slows Na channel recovery
  • incresed GABA
    • Stimulates synthesis
    • inhibits metabolism

Overall:

  • Blocks sustained, repetitive firing
  • Blocks seizure spread
74
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of Valproate?

A
  1. Drug of choice: idiopathic generalized seizures
  2. 2nd choice: infantile spasms
  3. Bipolar
  4. Migraine
75
Q

What are the side effects of Valproate?

A
  1. Hepatitis that can be fatal
  2. Pancreatitis
  3. Hyperammonemia
    • can cause brain damage
  4. Teratogen
    • Neural tube defects

** Has zero-order kinetics!!**

76
Q

What is the MOA of Topiramate?

A
  • Blocks voltage gated Na channels
  • Agonist at GABA-A receptors
  • Inhibits glutamate activity
77
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of Topiramate?

A
  • Newly-diagnosed partial and mixed seizures
  • Refractory generalized tonic-clonic and partial seizures
  • Lennox-Gastaut
  • Migraine
78
Q

What are the side effects of Topiramate?

A
  1. Cognitive deficits
  2. Parasthesias
  3. Metabolic acidosis
  4. Kidney stones
  5. Hyperthermia
  6. Closed-angle Glaucoma
  7. Teratogen
79
Q

What drugs are good for patients on complex drug regimens or with hepatic disease for the treatment of partial seizures?

A

Gabapentin / Pregabalin

Levetiracetam

80
Q

Gabapentin

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • inhibits high-voltage activated (HVA) Ca channels
      • (-) neurotransmitter release
  • IND
    • Refractory partial seizures
    • Neuropathic pain
  • SE
    • Sedation
    • Uncontrolled eye movements
81
Q

Pregabalin

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • inhibits high-voltage activated (HVA) Ca channels
      • (-) neurotransmitter release
  • IND
    • Refractory partial seizures
    • Neuropathic pain
  • SE
    • New onset myoclonus
    • Sedation
    • Ataxia
    • Tremor
82
Q

Levetiracetam

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • binds synaptic vesicle protein
      • alters vesicle fusion
  • IND
    • Partial seizures
    • Tonic-clonic
  • SE
    • Sedation
    • Pins and needles sensation in extremities
    • Behavioral change
    • Teratogen

Few drug interactions

Not metabolized by liver

83
Q

Ezogabine

  • MOA
  • IND
  • SE
A
  • MOA
    • Enhanced K+ transmembrane current
    • Stabilizes membrane
  • IND
    • Adult partial-onset seizure
  • SE
    • Retinal change
    • Vision loss
    • ​long Q-T (arrhythmia)
    • Psych symptoms
84
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors in Seizure Treatment

  • MOA
  • IND
A
  • MOA
    • increase intracellular H+, decrease pH
    • K+ pushed out of cell to balance
    • hyperpolarization
    • increased seizure threshold
  • IND
    • catamenial pattern seizure (around menstration)
85
Q

What is the risk of seizure to a fetus? The risk of AEDs?

A

Seizure:

  • threshold lowered during pregnancy
  • increased risk stillbirth

AED:

  • Neural tube defects
  • Hemorrhagic disease

**Supplement with Folate!

86
Q

What is the drug of choice for Status Epilepticus? Second line choice?

A

Drug of choice:

  • Benzodiazepines (followed by phenytoin for long duration action)
    • Diazepam
    • Lorazepam

Second line:

  • Phenobarbital
87
Q

What side effects are commonly associated with AEDs?

A

Sedation

hyponatremia

ataxia

tremor
Diplopia/ blurred vision
Mental slowing

Steven-Johnson syndrome

88
Q

What AEDs cause renal stones?

A
  • topiramate
  • zonisamide
89
Q

Which AEDs cause aplastic anemia?

A
  • felbamate
  • zonisamide
  • valproate
  • carbamazepine
90
Q

Which AED causes agranulocytosis?

A

carabamazepine

91
Q

Which AEDs cause hepatic failure?

A
  • valproate
  • felbamate
  • lamotrigine
  • phenobarbital
92
Q

Which AED causes anhydrosis and heat stroke?

A

topiramate

93
Q

Which AED causes closed-angle glaucoma?

A

topiramate

94
Q

Which AED causes aseptic meningitis?

A

Lamotrigine

95
Q

Which AED causes polycystic ovarian syndrome in young women?

A

Valproate

96
Q

Which AED causes cerebellar syndrome?

A

Phenytoin

Pharmacology (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions