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Pharm II > Pharm II Qs > Flashcards

Pharm II Qs Flashcards

1
Q

How do you classify Epinephrine?

A

Direct acting catecholamine

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2
Q

What class of drug is a direct acting agonist with muscarinic receptors?

A

Parasympathomimetics

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3
Q

What is the reversal agent for NMB?

A

Neostigmine

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4
Q

Pyridostigmine, Neostigmine, Ephodrium are classified as…?

A

Indirect acting parasympathomimetics

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5
Q

How do you administer atropine sulfate?

A

CRI

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6
Q

What drug to use for a blocked cat?

A

Prazosin

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7
Q

What to treat Pheochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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8
Q

What class of drug would cause an issue in a bulldog?

A

Non selective B1 antagonist

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9
Q

Rank the selective B2 agonists from most to least selective

A

Albuterol>Terbutaline>Clenbuterol

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9
Q

What drug aids in weight gain, increased feed efficacy, etc..

A

Ractopaine

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9
Q

Drug for hypotension during anesthesia?

A

Dobutamine

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10
Q

Most important catecholamine vasopressor?

A

Norepinephrine

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11
Q

Risk when crushing tamulosin tablet?

A

Will cause drug to act too fast and cause an overdose effect = Hypotension

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12
Q

Increased HR caused by a competitive antagonist on muscarinic receptors in which group?

A

Parasympatholytic

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13
Q

Where does modulation take place

A

Dorsal horn of spinal cord

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14
Q

T/F Proparacaine is metabolized by the liver

A

False - acetylcholinesterase + esterase

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15
Q

Drug for wound soaked catheter?

A

Bupivicaine HCl

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16
Q

What class of drug is Buprenorphine?

A

Partial u agonist (ceiling effect)

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17
Q

T/F: dogs are more sensitive than cats to lidocaine

A

False

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18
Q

Dog needs an eye exam..what drug to you place in eyes?

A

Proparacaine

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19
Q

Oral absorption is low in opioids because…

A

first pass effect

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20
Q

Use mepivicaine/ropivicaine because..?

A

Less irritating

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21
Q

T/F: NSAID overdose causes acute kidney injurty

A

True

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22
Q

Reversal agent for Xylazine?

A

Yohimbine

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23
Q

Alpha 2 agonist cardiovascular precaution?

A

2nd degree AV block

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24
Q

Reversal agent of choice for benzodiazepam agonists?

A

Flumazenil

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25
Q

MOA for acepromazine?

A

Central dopamine receptor competitive antagonist

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26
Q

Flumazenil MOA

A

GABA receptor antagonist

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27
Q

Most common analgesic?

A

I think the answer to this is NDAIDs

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28
Q

what happens when a horse is given injectable benzodiazepine

A

prolonged sedation

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29
Q

Ketamine MOA

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

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30
Q

Classify frunetvetmab (solensia)

A

monoclonal antinerve growth

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31
Q

T/F you cannot give multiple doses of robenacoxib in cats

A

False, you can

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32
Q

What receptors does Grapiprant use?

A

PGE2 EP4

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33
Q

What happens when you give a horse flunixin megulmine IM?

A

muscle necrosis

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34
Q

Benzodiazepine MOA..

A

GABA receptor agonist

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35
Q

A2 agonist precautions

A

Can cause bradyarrhythmia (incomplete AV block) = 2 AV block
Decreased Cardiac output
Do not use concurrently with epinephrine and atropine
EXTREME CAUTION in criticall ill & patients with uncontrolled shock syndrome

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36
Q

Do injectable anesthetics keep muscle tone?

A

Yes

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37
Q

DOC malignant hypertheria

A

Dantrolene

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38
Q

TX of patient with clinical signs of bromism

A

Hospitalize and give 0.9% NaCl

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39
Q

Acute epilepsy tx

A

Diazepam (IV) or Midazolam (IV/IM)

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40
Q

What species does aspirin have a long half life in?

A

Cats

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41
Q

T/F You can use sodium bromide to tx status epilepticus

A

False

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42
Q

Dantrolene MOA

A

Inhibits Ca release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells

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43
Q

Lidocaine MOA

A

Blocks sodium channels (prevents action potential by inhibitting sodium influx)

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44
Q
A
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45
Q

DOC to induce vomit in cat

A

IM Xylazine

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46
Q

Antiepileptic with short half life and TID administration

A

Levatiracem (keppra)

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47
Q

What drug is a sulfonamide derivative?

A

Zolonsiide

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48
Q

DOC for seizure related hepatic encephalopathy and DOC for management of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Seizure: Levatiracem (keppra)
Management: Lactulose

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49
Q

T/F you can use midazolam for long term seizure mangagement

A

False

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50
Q

Capromorhelin MOA takes place at what receptor?

A

Ghrelin

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51
Q

Ropinirole can be reversed using?

A

Metoclopramide (reverses emetic effect)

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52
Q

Maropitant citrate (cerenia) MOA

A

NK antagonist

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53
Q

Dog emetic DOC

A

Apomorphine

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54
Q

DOC for cerebral edema and why?

A

Mannitol, osmotic diuretic

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55
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide is contraindicated for tx of…?

A

Hypercalcemia

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56
Q

Di-Tri-Octohedral MOA and use

A

binds to c perferingen entertoxin in vitro
colitis in large animals (horse)

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57
Q

What drug is a protaglandin E analog?

A

isoprostal

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58
Q

Omeprazole and pantoprazole are?

A

Proton pump inhibitors

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59
Q

Lactulose MOA and use

A

Reduce systemic ammonia levels by creating an “ion trap” in colonic lumen, which leads to excess excretion of NH3; results in decreased colonic pH.
Management of hepatic encephalopathy

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60
Q

Fuzapladib is mainly used for?

A

Control of CS of acute pancreatitis in dogs

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61
Q

Tx horse with supraventricular tachyarrythmia

A

Quinidine

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62
Q

Sildinafil used to tx..?

A

Pulmonary hypertension

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63
Q

Drug for brachycephalics with bradyarrhythmia?

A

Atropine

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64
Q

Theophylline/Aminophylline are good for patients with..?

A

Bronchoconstriction

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65
Q

Patient with renal disease and CHF, what drug?

A

Benazipril

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66
Q

Drug for ventricular tachycardia & route of administration

A

Lidocaine IV (because of high first pass metabolism)

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67
Q

Tx hypertension in cats

A

Amlodipine

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68
Q

Reason to pick Vasopressin over Epinephrine for cardiopulmonary arrest

A

If patient is acidodic

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69
Q

Reason to use Benazepril over Enalapril

A

Enalapril is excreted by the kidney and Benazapril undergoes hepatic and renal excretion (better for patient with azotemia/renal dz)

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70
Q

What drug causes a prolonged PT?

A

Warfarin

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71
Q

Compared to Potassium bromide, phenobarbital has a ____ onset of action?

A

Shorter

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72
Q

Does phenobarbitol or keppra have a wider safety margin?

A

Keppra

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73
Q

What drug does hydroxyzine metabolize into?

A

Certrizine

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74
Q

Dog with facial swelling and want to treat it as an allergic rxn, what MOA does the DOC use?

A

H1 antagonist (Diphenhydramine SQ)

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75
Q

What drug is used to inhibit JAK receptors?

A

Oclacitinib (apoquel)

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76
Q

If you use Trazadone and Tramadol together be careful of…?

A

Seratonin syndrome

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77
Q

DOC for bird with loss of feathers

A

Clomipramide

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78
Q

MOA Aspirin

A

Inhibit synthesis of TXA2

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79
Q

What guidelines can we follow?

A

CURATIVE

80
Q

When to use protamine?

A

Bleeding caused by too much Heparin

81
Q

TX VWD?

A

Desmopressin

82
Q

Desmopressin MOA

A

Dose dependent increase in plasma factor VIII and plasminogen factor

83
Q

Vitamin K1 MOA

A

Necessary for synthesis of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X

84
Q

When to use Vitamin K?

A

Rodenticide toxicity or hemorrhage associated with Warfarin use

85
Q

Route of administration for Vitamin K?

A

SQ only

86
Q

When would you immediately stop methimazole in a cat?

A

Facial excoriation

87
Q

MOA Methimazole?

A

Inhibit synthesis of thyroid hormone

88
Q

How does Levothyroxine tx hypothyroid in dogs?

A

Replaces the hormone completely

89
Q

Main side effect for Mycophenolate?

A

Diarrhea

90
Q

Describe the biphasic effect of a2 agonists

A

Phase I/Peripheral Phase: (a1) peripheral vasoconstriction -> HYPERtension & reflex bradycardia
Phase II/Central Phase: (a2) peripheral vasodilation -> HYPOtension and bradycardia

91
Q

MOA Tocernib and Mastinib?

A

Block receptor site required for proliferation

92
Q

Adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide

A

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis

93
Q

TX PPID

A

Peroglide

94
Q

SGLT2 inhibitor side effect

A

Euglycemic DKA

95
Q

Emergency tx for cow with periparturient HypoCalcemia

A

Calcium Gluconate IV

96
Q

MOA Bromide

A

Alters Cl transport across neuronal cell membrane which increases threshold for neuron firing

97
Q

Bethenacol is DOC for..?

A

Detrusor muscle atony

98
Q

Do not give Bethenacol if…

A

GI or urethral obstruction (Direct parasympathomimetic)

99
Q

DOC Myasthenia gravis in dogs

A

Pyridostigmine (Indirect parasympathomimetic)

100
Q

Drug for tensilon test to dx Myasthenia Gravis

A

Edrophonium

101
Q

Parasympathoimetic overdose side effects

A

SLUDD
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
Digestion

102
Q

What class of drug are catecholamines

A

Sympathomimetic

103
Q

Which two catecholamines do NOT have dopamine receptor activity?

A

Isoproternol and Dobutamine

104
Q

Name the three Selective B2 agonists, and what are they used for?

A

Albuterol, Terbuteral, Clenbuterol
Tx of lower airway disease

105
Q

Drug for feline asthma as an inhaler

A

Albuterol

106
Q

Clenbuterol is banned in…(2)

A

Race horses and food animals

107
Q

Drug that is post arrest vasopressor of choice

A

Dopamine

108
Q

Phenylpropanolamine MOA

A

Mixed direct and indirect sympathomimetic
Direct = alpha 1 agonist
Indirect = increase amt of NE in bladder neck/urethra

109
Q

What is phenylpropanolamine used to tx?

A

Urinary incontinence

110
Q

Tamsulosin used to tx…

A

Adjunct/alternative to lower UGT relaxant; potential to ease passage of nephron/uroliths.
DETRUSOR-URETHRAL DYSNERGIA

111
Q

Precaution with using Propanolol, atenolol, or esmolol

A

Hypotension

112
Q

Which two animals are sensitive to Lidocaine

A

Cat and sheep

113
Q

Lidocaine tx (4)…

A

Antiarrhythmic to control ventricular arrhythmia
CRI analgesic and some anti-inflam properties
Antioxidant properties
GI prokinetic to stimulate intestinal motility in horse

114
Q

Drug for wound soaked catheter

A

Bupivicaine

115
Q

Bupivicaine precaution

A

Cardiotoxic

116
Q

Mepivicaine and Ropivacaine are used for

A

Diagnostic nerve blocks in horses + epidurals because it is less irritating than Lidocaine

117
Q

Proparacaine contraindication

A

No long term use because it can cause corneal ulcer

118
Q

Which is the shortest acting of all opioid agonists

A

Remifentanil

119
Q

What opioid to use for cats and pediatric patients

A

Oxymorphine

120
Q

Opioid to use when there is risk associated with vomit

A

Methadone

121
Q

Butorphanol MOA

A

Mixed Opioid agonist/antagonist
K agonist, u antagonist

122
Q

What are two alpha a2 agonists and which has a longer DOA?

A

Dexmedetomidine and Xylazine
Dex has longer DOA

123
Q

What happens if you administer Atipamezole IV too fast?

A

CV collapse

124
Q

Reversal agent for Dexmedomidine and medetomidine?

A

Atipaezole

125
Q

Which selective cox2 inhibitor is approved for single injection use in cats?

A

Meloxicam

126
Q

Phenylbutazone use and precaution

A

Horses for musculoskeletal pain, but can mask lameness

127
Q

Phenylbutazone is banned in…

A

Dairy cattle and race horses

128
Q

Piroxicam use…

A

Antineoplastic properties because tumors can express COX2

129
Q

Drug for feline osteothritis

A

Frunevetmab (solensia)

130
Q

Why can you not use human oral form of gabapentin in dogs?

A

Because it has xylitol

131
Q

2 clinical uses for Amantadine

A

Neuropathic pain and adjunct analgesia for chronic pain

132
Q

What drug can cause heinz body anemia in cats?

A

Propofol (injectable anesthetic non barbituate)

133
Q

What is the only injectable anesthetic non barbituate that you can give IM?

A

Alfaxalone

134
Q

Injectable anesthetic non barbituate MOA

A

GABA agonist

135
Q

Which muscle relaxants do and do not cross BBB?

A

Does not: Dantrolene
Does: Methocarbamol and Guaifenesin

136
Q

Guaifenesin contraindication

A

pregnant animals

137
Q

Guaifenesin is banned in…

A

race horses

138
Q

Zonisamide precaution (2)

A

Hepatopathy and urinary caiculi

139
Q

Drug for motion sickness in dogs

A

Maropitant (cerenia)

140
Q

What drug is an anti-emetic AND pro-kinetic

A

Metoclopramide

141
Q

Which is the only antihistamine H2 blocker that also has prokinetic activity?

A

Ranitidine

142
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitor MOA

A

Irreversibly inhibit H/K/ATPase protein pump in gastric mucosal cells that decreases HCL production

143
Q

Are H2 blockers or PPIs more potent?

A

PPI

144
Q

Misoprostal Precaution

A

ABORTIFICANT, gi cramping, diarrhea, colic in horses

145
Q

Sucralfate is used for…

A

TX of ACTIVE gastric or upper GI ulcer
(REQUIRES AN ACIDIC ENVIRONMENT TO BIND)

146
Q

Aluminum Hydroxide MOA and use

A

Oral antacid & Phosphate Binder
Phosphate binder: Aluminum salts reduce the amount of phosphorus absorbed from the intestine
Antacid: Hydroxyl ion interacts with H+ in stomach to increase gastric pH
Physically binds dietary phosphorus to form insoluble Aluminum Phosphate
Excreted in feces (instead of entering blood)
Used to tx Hypherphosphatememia in small animals and CKD

147
Q

Difference between Pimobendan and Digoxin in terms of intracellular Calcium

A

Pimobendan does NOT increase intracellular Ca
Digoxin DOES increase intracellular Ca

148
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen toxicity

A

N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)

149
Q

Furosemide DOC for…(3)

A

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema due to CHF
Severe HYPERcalcemia
Exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage in horses

150
Q

Which diuretics cause alkalosis? (2)

A

Furosemide and Hydrochlorothiazide

151
Q

Which diuretics causes acidosis? (2)

A

Spironolactone and Acetazolamide

152
Q

Appetite stimulant for dog vs cat

A

Dog: Mirtazapine
Cat: Cyproheptadine
Both have same MOA: block seratonin receptors and inhibits satiety

153
Q

Contraindication for metoclopramide

A

GI obstruction

154
Q

Which diuretic can cause hypercalcemia

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

155
Q

What is the weakest diuretic?

A

Acetazolamide

156
Q

Which diuretic would you use if your patient his hypokalemic?

A

Spirinolactone

157
Q

Class II beta blocker contraindication/precaution

A

Wean off gradually (risk of upregulation of receptors)
Worsening CHF, 2nd degree AV block

158
Q

Diltiazem is used for…

A

Tx supraventricular tachycardia and to decrease ventricular response rate in tx of atrial fibrillation

159
Q

When would you NOT use Amlodipine to tx hypertension in cats

A

If hypertension is caused by hyperthyroidism, use non selective beta blocker (Propanolol)

160
Q

What drug do you use with Amlodipine if it is a CPR event?

A

Lidocaine

161
Q

Clopidogrel MOA

A

Reduce platelet aggregation by selectively inhibiting the ADP receptor on platelet surface

162
Q

Warfarine Sodium MOA

A

Inhibit enzyme Vitamin K Epoxide Reductase which interferes with the action of Vit K in the synthesis of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X
(Anticoagulant)

163
Q

Pimobendan MOA

A

Positive ionotrope and balanced vasodilator

Positive ionotrope: Sensitize myocardial contraction apparatus to calcium -> results in positive ionotropic effect (does NOT increase intracellular Ca)
Vasodilator: Phosphodiesterase (PDE) III Inhibitor -> result is vasodilatory effect; both arterial and venous dilation occur; DECREASE IN CARDIAC PRELOAD AND AFTERLOAD

164
Q

DOC for congestive hear failure in dogs

A

Pimobendan

165
Q

When is Pimobendan contraindicated

A

Aortic stenosis or with any condition where augmentation of cardiac output is inappropriate

166
Q

Digoxin MOA

A

Inhibit Na/K/ATPase in myocardial cell membrane -> results in INCREASE in intracellular Ca which results in positive inotropic effect

167
Q

Digoxin has:
1) [positive or negative] ionotropic effects
2) [positive or negative] chronotropic effects
3) [positive or negative] dromotropic effects

A

Positive ionotropic
Negative chronotropic
Negative dromotropic

168
Q

Precaution when using Digoxin

A

Acute use -> Hyperkalemia
Chronic use -> HYPOKALEMIA*****

169
Q

What happens if you use Digoxin concurrently with Furosemide

A

Can increase risk of digotoxin toxicity

170
Q

Difference between Class IA and Class IB Sodium channel blockers

A

1A: prolongs action potential
1B: shortens action potential

171
Q

Propanolol is used to treat (3)

A

1) Catecholamine induced tachyarrhythmias
2) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
3) HCM in cats secondary to hyperthyroidism**

172
Q

What drug would you use to determine if beta blockers are effective for controlling arrythmias?

A

Esmolol (because it is the shortest acting BB)

173
Q

Which beta blocker would you use if you want a safe choice for patients with bronchoconstrictive disease (ie feline asthma)?

A

Atenolol

174
Q

What are the two class III potassium channel blockers for management of ventricular tachyarrhythmia?

A

Sotalol and Amiodarone

175
Q

Hydralazine MOA

A

Increase local PGI2 concentration -> prevents initiation and maintenance of contractile state
(arteriolar vasodilation)

176
Q

Precaution when using vasopressin

A

WATER RETENTION -> overdose can lead to water intoxication, so do not use in patients with chronic nephritis or uncontrolled azotemia

177
Q

What is hyperalgesia

A

exaggerated perception of pain produced by noxious stimuli

178
Q

What is allodynia

A

when a non-noxious stimulus elicits pain (ie brushing hair)

179
Q

Grabiprant MOA

A

Prostaglandin EP4 receptor antagonist

180
Q

Grabiprant is used for…

A

Dogs with pain and inflammation from arthritis (osteoarthritis)

181
Q

What is the only animal Grabibprant is used for (and age + weight restrictions)?

A

Dogs over 8 lbs and over 9 months old

182
Q

Why is acetaminophen never used in cats?

A

Methemoglobinemia and hepatic necrosis

183
Q

Ketamine and Tiletamine induce what stages of anesthesia?

A

1 and 2

184
Q

Cardiovascular effects of Ketamine

A

CV stimulation

185
Q

Respiratory effects of Ketamine

A

Bronchodilation (good for asthma patients)

186
Q

Why is etomidate contraindicated in addison’s patients?

A

Because it inhibits cortisol synthesis

187
Q

What are the two anti-epileptic drugs you have to monitor plasma levels routinely for?

A

Bromide and Phenobarbitol

188
Q

Drug to help tx nausea in chemo pateints

A

Ondasteron/Dolasteron

189
Q

Drug to tx cholangiohepatitis

A

Ursodiol

190
Q

Magnesium Sulfate is used for…

A

Tx of refractory ventricular arrhythmia (ie if lidocaine is not working)

191
Q

Hydralazine MOA

A

Increase local PGI2 concentration

192
Q

Hydralazine is use for (2)…

A

Hypertensive crisis and target organ damage

193
Q

Common side effect for Mycophenolate

A

Diarrhea

194
Q

If you want to treat a cat with Prenisolone for IMHA, but the owner refuses because it can trigger diabetes, what do you use instead?

A

Dexmethasone

195
Q

Furosemide precautions

A

Hypokalemia and Systemic metabolic acidosis

196
Q

Phenobarbital increases or decreases liver enzymes?

A

Increases

197
Q

Tamsulosin precaution

A

Hypotension at high dose

198
Q

Hyper or Hypokalemia is a concern when using B2 agonists?

A

Hypokalemia

199
Q

Drug for emergency treatment of Ca channel blocker toxicity

A

Glucagon

200
Q
A

Pharm II (3 decks)

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