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RUSVM Pharmacology II > Pharm II Final Exam Material > Flashcards

Pharm II Final Exam Material Flashcards

1
Q

Which drug is most effective in controlling severe systemic mycoses?

A

Amphotericin B

**Effective, but beware of its nephrotoxic effects!**

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2
Q

Which type of antibiotic is known to cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

A

Sulfonamides

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2
Q

Name a special sulfa analog used as an antibacterial/anti-inflammatory in the colon:

A

Sulfasalazine

Sulfasalazine contains Sulfapyridine and Mesalazine. It is not absorbed, and it is intended to work in the colon, where it is cleaved into its components and mesalazine exerts its anti-inflammatory effects

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3
Q

T/F: Fluoroquinolones can cause erosion of articular cartilage

A

True!

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3
Q

T/F: Clindamycin is a macrolide antibiotic

A

False

Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic

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4
Q

T/F: Amphenicol antibiotics act by inhibiting peptidyl glucoacetylphenicase

A

No.

Glucoacetylphenicase isn’t even a real word. I made it up because it’s late and I don’t want to study pharm any more.

_Amphenicol antibiotics act by inhibiting peptidyl trasnferase_, which is the enzyme associated with the 50s unit of the ribosome that binds the incoming amino acids together to form the polypeptide chain

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5
Q

What are the main side effects of codeine?

A

sedation and constipation

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6
Q

Which class of antibiotics is best for treatment of rickettsial infections?

A

Tetracyclines

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6
Q

T/F: The presence of pus and necrotic tissue at the site of infection decreases the antibacterial activity of sulfonamides

A

True

The MOA of sulfonamides is to compete with PABA for the dihydropteroate synthase enzyme. Pus contains PABA.

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6
Q

Which group of β-lactam antibiotics has the most toxic potential?

A

Carbapenems

(Imipenem, Meropenem)

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7
Q

T/F: Leukotriene inhibitors such as Zafirlukast are effective for controlling clinical signs of both acute and chronic bronchial asthma

A

False

Leukotriene inhibitors are used orally for prophylaxis and chronic treatment of bronchial asthma, but not for acute bronchial asthma

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8
Q

Each of the following inhibit bacterial protein synthesis except:

  • Tetracyclines
  • Polymyxins
  • Amphenicols
  • Aminoglycosides
A

Polymyxins

Polymyxins act on the bacterial cell membrane

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9
Q

_____________ is the most commonly used drug for treating feline hyperthyroidism

A

Methimazole

Methimazole inhibits synthesis of thyroid hormones by inhibiting organification and coupling resulting in lower T3 and T4 production in the thyroid gland.

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10
Q

Trimethoprim acts on bacteria by inhibiting:

A

dihydrofolate reductase

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10
Q

Name the fluoroquinolone antibiotic that should not be used in dogs because it causes bone marrow suppression:

A

Pradofloxacin

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10
Q

What is the antidote used to treat Warfarin toxicity?

A

Vitamin K

**Keep in mind, Vitamin K takes at least 1 day to take effect, so it will only be used in cases where the animal will be able to survive for the next 24 hours**

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11
Q

Which antibiotic acts on LPS on the bacterial cell membrane?

A

Polymyxin B

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11
Q

What is the most commonly used nitroimidazole?

A

Metronidazole

Nitroimidazoles are very effective against anaerobic bacteria

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12
Q

Which class of antibiotics works by inhibiting DNA-gyrase?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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12
Q

Which macrolide antibiotic can also be used as a prokinetic?

A

Erythromycin

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13
Q

T/F: Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic

A

True

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14
Q

T/F: Mannitol is contraindicated in general edema, but is very effective in localized edema (cerebral or ocular)

A

True

Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that pulls water from the cells into the interstitial compartment (which aggravates generalized edema). By the same mechanism it is able to pull water *away from the brain *(to treat cerebral edema) and pull aqueous humor formation from the eye (to treat ocular edema; glaucoma)

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15
Q

Why should Tilmicosin not be given IV?

A

Extremely cardiotoxic!

Tilmicosin is a macrolide antibiotic used in large animals. Accidental self-injection can be fatal in humans!

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17
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of Ehrlichia in dogs?

A

Doxycycline

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18
Q

Which penicillin would be most useful for treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Ticarcillin

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19
Q

Which antifungal agent would you choose to treat systemic aspergillosis in small animals?

A

Itraconazole

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19
Q

Which loop diuretic drug is used for the treatment of exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage in horses? What is its mechanism of action?

A

Furosemide (Lasix or Salix)

Furosemide inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- symporter at the luminal membrane of the aLOH

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20
Q

Name the aminoglycoside antibiotic that has a lower toxicity than Gentamicin and can affect some Gentamicin-resistant bacteria:

A

Amikacin

Amikacin is often preferred over gentamicin because it has a lower toxicity, however it is more expensive than Gentamicin

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21
Q

T/F: Fenbendazole is effective against the canine flea tapeworm Dipylidium caninum

A

False

Fenbendazole is used in dogs for roundworms, hookworks, and whipworms. NOT Dipylidium caninum

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22
Q

Name the drug that is considered to be the “most nephrotoxic drug ever”

A

Amphotericin B

Amphotericin B is the most effective drug for treatment of systemic mycoses (Blastomycosis, Coccidioidomycosis, and Histoplasmosis) in immuno-compromised animals

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24
Q

T/F: Nystatin may be used in severe systemic fungal infections

A

False

Nystatin** **is a broad-spectrum topical antifungal

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25
Q

Which antifungal agent inhibits cells wall synthesis by inhibiting chitin synthesis?

A

Lufenuron (Program®)

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26
Q

Which drug selectively stimulates neutrophil progenitor cells to help combat infection in cancer patients?

A

Filgrastim

Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) drug

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28
Q

T/F: Griseofulvin is given orally for treatment of dermatophytes because of selective deposition in new keratin

A

True

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29
Q

Name a β-lactamase stable penicillin often used for mastitis in cattle:

A

Cloxacillin

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29
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Zafirlukast?

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

(selective competitive antagonist for LTD4 and LTE4 receptors)

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30
Q

T/F: Phytonadione is commonly used as a warfarin reversal agent

A

True

Phytonadione is Vitamin K1 and is used to treat warfarin toxicity

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31
Q

Name the anthelminthic agent that is effective against the tapeworm Anoplocephala perfoliata in horses:

A

Praziquantel

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32
Q

What is the most commonly used inodilator drug and what is its mechanism of action?

A

Pimobendan (Vetmedin)

Pimobendan is used to treat CHF in dogs and acts by increasing sensitization of the cardiac contractile apparatus to calcium by enhancing interaction between calcium and troponin C complex

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33
Q

Which systemic antifungal drug penetrates the CNS and is useful for treatment of cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Fluconazole

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33
Q

Which class of antibiotics are most associated with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?

A

Sulfonamides

34
Q

Which drug inhibits 5-α-reductase and is used to treat benign prostate hypertrophy in the dog?

A

Finasteride

35
Q

T/F: Griseofulvin must be given parenterally because oral absorption of the drug is so poor

A

Hell no.

Griseofulvin is only given orally because GI absorption of the drug is so poor.

36
Q

Which drug lowers prolactin levels and is used in the treatment of pseudopregnancy in the bitch?

A

Bromocriptine

Bromocriptine acts as a dopamine agonist on central dopamine receptors and inhibits prolactin, causing luteolysis

37
Q

T/F: Vitamin K3 (Menadione) is an effective treatment for Warfarin toxicity in horses

A

False

Vitamin K3 (Menadione) is not effective in treating Warfarin toxicity and should never be used in horses (causes idiopathic renal damage/renal failure)

Vitamin K1 (Phytonadione) is effective in treating Warfarin toxicity

38
Q

Name the agent commonly combined with praziquantel to treat roundworms, hookworms, and cestodes in cats:

A

Emodepside

The combination of Emodepside and Praziquantel is called Profender® and is okay to use in pregnant/lactating cats as well.

39
Q

Name a newer fluoroquinolone antibiotic that has not been shown to cause blindness in cats:

A

Pradofloxacin

40
Q

What is the drug of choice (DOC) for idiopathic colitis in dogs?

A

Sulfasalazine

40
Q

What is the drug of choice (DOC) for treatment of toxoplasmosis in cats and dogs?

A

Clindamycin

Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic

42
Q

Name the antimicrobials that can cause yellow discoloration of teeth in young animals:

A

tetracyclines

43
Q

What is the drug of choice (DOC) for treatment of Sporotrichosis?

A

Itraconazole

44
Q

T/F: Sulfonamides act as bacteriostatic by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase

A

False

Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) inhibitors act inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase.

Sulfonamides act as bacteriostatic by competing with PABA for the dihydropteroate synthase enzyme

45
Q

Which antihistamine drug is used to treat equine melanoma?

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet®)

Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce gastric acid, and is also used in treatment of equine melanoma because of its immuno-modulating activity (alteration of T-cell function and cell-mediated immunity)

46
Q

Name the first generation cephalosporin used for mastitis in cattle as an intramammary infusion

A

Cephapirin

47
Q

Name the nitroimidazole antibiotic that is used in cats for treatment of tritrichomonas

A

Ronidazole

Greater toxicity concerns than metronidazole

48
Q

Which opioid antidiarrheal drug is more likely to cross the BBB:

Diphenoxylate or Loperamide?

A

Diphenoxylate (Lomotil®)

Loperamide (Immodium®) is kept out of the CNS because it is pumped by the P-glycoprotein efflux pump (encoded by the MDR1 gene).

49
Q

T/F: Desoxycorticosterone Pivalate (DOCP) is the most commonly used mineralocorticoid and has no anti-inflammatory (glucocorticoid) effects

A

True

51
Q

Which alkylating agent has wide tissue distribution and can be used for CNS neoplasms?

A

Lomustine (oral) and Carmustine (IV)

52
Q

T/F: Aminoglycosides are effective in treating infections caused by anaerobic bacteria

A

False

Aminoglycosides are predominantly effective against Gram-negative _aerobes_

52
Q

T/F: Tolnaftate is effective for treatment of Malassezia canis

A

True!

53
Q

A dog showing neurologic signs caused by hypoglycemia (glucose = 40 mg/dl) associated with elevated insulin concentration in blood. Which of the following drugs may be effective orally in elevating blood glucose levels mainly by inhibiting pancreatic insulin secretion?

  1. glucagon
  2. epinephrine
  3. diazoxide
  4. prednisone
A

Diazoxide

Diazoxide opens K+ channels in β cells, which switches off voltage-gated Ca2+ channels and results in inhibition of insulin release

55
Q

Name the group of antimicrobials that is bactericidal by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis due to inhibition of DNA gyrase:

A

Fluoroquinolones

56
Q

T/F: The antithrombotic action of aspirin is due to inhibition of platelet aggregation

A

True

Aspirin inhibits synthesis of TXA2 by irreversibly inhibiting COX-1 and COX-2. The result is the inhibition of platelet aggregation.

58
Q

T/F: Doxycycline may be recommended for treatment of systemic infections in animals with renal impairment because it is mainly excreted in bile

A

True

59
Q

Which insulin is available in the form of an ‘insulin pen’ that allows for accurate dosing down to 0.5U increments?

A

Vetsulin®

Vetsulin® recently launched an insulin pen with the capability of dosin down to 0.5U increments. This type of application would be ideal for very small dogs.

61
Q

With which alkylating agent do we most commonly see **hemorrhagic cystitis **as a side effect?

A

Cyclophosphamide

(Water intake and frequent voiding are important. Diuretics are sometimes used to reduce risk)

62
Q

What is the most commonly used antiemetic currently?

A

Maropitant citrate (Cerenia®)

63
Q

Name an antibiotic that is indicated for treatment of serious infections caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA):

A

Vancomycin

Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis by preventing the assembly of amino acids. Almost all Gram-positives are senstiive to Vancomycin

64
Q

Drugs that increase the volume and fluidity of respiratory secretions are termed:

A

Expectorants

65
Q

T/F: Antihistamines are effective drugs for the treatment of bronchial asthma

A

False

They may be useful in animals with chronic respiratory disease because of their effects on bronchial secretions, but they are not useful for the treatment of bronchial asthma

66
Q

What is the drug of choice (DOC) for treatment of amebiasis?

A

Metronidazole

(not approved in food animals)

68
Q

Is Griseofulvin fungistatic or fungicidal?

A

Fungistatic

Griseofulvin interferes with microtubule function and inhibits mitosis; it is also an enzyme inducer. It is given only orally for treatment of dermatophytes because of selective deposition in new keratin

69
Q

How does **Vancomycin **inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

Prevents the assembly of amino acids

70
Q

T/F: Tolnaftate is effective for treatment of Candida

A

False

Tolnaftate is effective for treatment of Malassezia canis

71
Q

Protamine sulfate is a specific antidote for:

A

Heparin

72
Q

Name the first generation cephalosporin antibiotic commonly used prophylactically in surgery

A

Cefazolin

Cefazolin has a similar spectrum to cephalexin/cefadroxil, but parenteral use only

74
Q

Which drug is used in dogs to kill adult heartworms?

A

Melarsomine

76
Q

Is Flucytosine fungistatic or fungicidal?

A

Fungicidal

Flucytosine is fungicidal due to inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting thymidylate synthetase

78
Q

Name an anticancer drug that should NOT be used in cats because of its toxicity:

A

Cisplatin

79
Q

Name the sulfonamide antibiotic that is used in treatment of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) as a result of Sarcocystis neurona:

A

Pyrimethamine-Sulfadiazine

81
Q

Normal saline can be used to reduce nephrotoxicity of which anticancer drug in dogs?

A

Cisplatin

82
Q

T/F: Aminoglycosides may be given orally for systemic infections

A

False

Aminoglycosides are poorly absorbed orally!

83
Q

Name the drug used for reversal of respiratory depression due to inhalation and barbiturate anesthesia:

A

Doxapram

84
Q

Name the group of antibiotics that act by competing with PABA for the dihydropteroate synthase enzyme

A

Sulfonamides

85
Q

T/F: Griseofulvin is effective against microsporum, trichophyton, and candida

A

False

Griseofulvin is effective against dermatophytes (microsporum and trichophyton), but not against Candida

86
Q

Which nitrofuran antibiotic is used to treat urinary tract infections in small animals?

A

Nitrofurantoin

87
Q

T/F: Polymyxin B is effective against gram-positive bacteria

A

False

Polymyxin B bind to LPS on the outer membrane of **gram-negative **bacteria and disrupt phospholipid membranes. Gram-positive bacteria are generally not affected because they lack LPS.

88
Q

T/F: 100% oxygen should be administered immediately to a patient with Paraquat toxicity

A

False!!

High concentrations of oxygen are known to enhance the toxic effects of paraquat in the lungs

89
Q

Each of the following inhibit bacterial nucleic acid synthesis except:

  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Nitrofurans
  • Rifampin
  • Aminoglycosides
A

Aminoglycosides

Aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis

90
Q

T/F: Spironolactone causes diuresis via competitive antagonism of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) receptors

A

False

Spironolactone causes diuresis via competitive antagonism of aldosterone receptors

91
Q

Which dopamine agonist is used in equine Cushing’s Syndrome to treat pars intermedia dysfunction?

A

Pergolide (Permax®)

Pergolide is a dopamine agonist and acts to decrease ACTH, therefore decreasing cortisol

92
Q

T/F: Clavulanic acid is a β-lactamase inhibitor

A

True

*Clavulanic acid should only be used when β-lactamase is suspected or confirmed). *

93
Q

Each of the following inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis except:

  • Monobactams
  • Cephalosporins
  • Macrolides
  • Bacitracin
  • Vancomycin
A

Macrolides

Macrolides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

94
Q

Name the third generation cephalosporin labeled for pyoderma due to Staph and Strep in dogs

A

Cefovecin (Convenia®)

(also labeled for Pasteurella in cats)

95
Q

**Melphalan **is often used to treat:

A

multiple myeloma

Melphalan (Alkeran®) is an alkylating agent and is cell cycle non-specific

96
Q

Which two drugs are often combined to treat bacterial infections in foals caused by Rhodococcus equi?

A

Erythromycin and Rifampin

97
Q

A cell-wall disrupting antibiotic that is often used topically to avoid toxicity:

A

Bacitracin

Generally used orally or topically (not systemically, due to nephrotoxicity)

98
Q

A carbapenem antibiotic that is used subcutaneously:

A

Meropenem

99
Q

Which of the following anticancer drugs is cell cycle specific for the S-phase?

  • Vincristine
  • Doxorubicin
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Methotrexate
A

Methotrexate

100
Q

Name the drug that is considered most effective against systemic mycoses (including Blastomycosis and Histoplasmosis) in non-immunocompromised animals

A

Ketoconazole

Not very effective against Aspergillosis though

101
Q

What is Terbutaline used for clinically?

A

bronchodilation

Terbutaline is a β2 agonist bronchodilator used to treat bronchoconstriction due to bronchial asthma

102
Q

Name the sulfonamide antibiotic that is commonly used as a coccidiostat in cats, dogs and poultry, and for shipping fever and foot rot in cattle:

A

Sulfamethoxine (Albon®)

RUSVM Pharmacology II (4 decks)

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