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RUSVM Pharmacology II > Pharm II Final Exam Material > Flashcards

Pharm II Final Exam Material Flashcards

1
Q

Which drug is most effective in controlling severe systemic mycoses?

A

Amphotericin B

**Effective, but beware of its nephrotoxic effects!**

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2
Q

Which type of antibiotic is known to cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

A

Sulfonamides

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2
Q

Name a special sulfa analog used as an antibacterial/anti-inflammatory in the colon:

A

Sulfasalazine

Sulfasalazine contains Sulfapyridine and Mesalazine. It is not absorbed, and it is intended to work in the colon, where it is cleaved into its components and mesalazine exerts its anti-inflammatory effects

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3
Q

T/F: Fluoroquinolones can cause erosion of articular cartilage

A

True!

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3
Q

T/F: Clindamycin is a macrolide antibiotic

A

False

Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic

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4
Q

T/F: Amphenicol antibiotics act by inhibiting peptidyl glucoacetylphenicase

A

No.

Glucoacetylphenicase isn’t even a real word. I made it up because it’s late and I don’t want to study pharm any more.

_Amphenicol antibiotics act by inhibiting peptidyl trasnferase_, which is the enzyme associated with the 50s unit of the ribosome that binds the incoming amino acids together to form the polypeptide chain

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5
Q

What are the main side effects of codeine?

A

sedation and constipation

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6
Q

Which class of antibiotics is best for treatment of rickettsial infections?

A

Tetracyclines

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6
Q

T/F: The presence of pus and necrotic tissue at the site of infection decreases the antibacterial activity of sulfonamides

A

True

The MOA of sulfonamides is to compete with PABA for the dihydropteroate synthase enzyme. Pus contains PABA.

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6
Q

Which group of β-lactam antibiotics has the most toxic potential?

A

Carbapenems

(Imipenem, Meropenem)

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7
Q

T/F: Leukotriene inhibitors such as Zafirlukast are effective for controlling clinical signs of both acute and chronic bronchial asthma

A

False

Leukotriene inhibitors are used orally for prophylaxis and chronic treatment of bronchial asthma, but not for acute bronchial asthma

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8
Q

Each of the following inhibit bacterial protein synthesis except:

  • Tetracyclines
  • Polymyxins
  • Amphenicols
  • Aminoglycosides
A

Polymyxins

Polymyxins act on the bacterial cell membrane

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9
Q

_____________ is the most commonly used drug for treating feline hyperthyroidism

A

Methimazole

Methimazole inhibits synthesis of thyroid hormones by inhibiting organification and coupling resulting in lower T3 and T4 production in the thyroid gland.

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10
Q

Trimethoprim acts on bacteria by inhibiting:

A

dihydrofolate reductase

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10
Q

Name the fluoroquinolone antibiotic that should not be used in dogs because it causes bone marrow suppression:

A

Pradofloxacin

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10
Q

What is the antidote used to treat Warfarin toxicity?

A

Vitamin K

**Keep in mind, Vitamin K takes at least 1 day to take effect, so it will only be used in cases where the animal will be able to survive for the next 24 hours**

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11
Q

Which antibiotic acts on LPS on the bacterial cell membrane?

A

Polymyxin B

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11
Q

What is the most commonly used nitroimidazole?

A

Metronidazole

Nitroimidazoles are very effective against anaerobic bacteria

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12
Q

Which class of antibiotics works by inhibiting DNA-gyrase?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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12
Q

Which macrolide antibiotic can also be used as a prokinetic?

A

Erythromycin

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13
Q

T/F: Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic

A

True

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14
Q

T/F: Mannitol is contraindicated in general edema, but is very effective in localized edema (cerebral or ocular)

A

True

Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that pulls water from the cells into the interstitial compartment (which aggravates generalized edema). By the same mechanism it is able to pull water *away from the brain *(to treat cerebral edema) and pull aqueous humor formation from the eye (to treat ocular edema; glaucoma)

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15
Q

Why should Tilmicosin not be given IV?

A

Extremely cardiotoxic!

Tilmicosin is a macrolide antibiotic used in large animals. Accidental self-injection can be fatal in humans!

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17
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of Ehrlichia in dogs?

A

Doxycycline

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18
Which penicillin would be most useful for treatment of *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*?
**Ticarcillin**
19
Which antifungal agent would you choose to treat **systemic aspergillosis** in small animals?
**Itraconazole**
19
Which **loop diuretic** drug is used for the treatment of *exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage in horses*? What is its mechanism of action?
**Furosemide (Lasix** or **Salix)** Furosemide inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- symporter at the luminal membrane of the aLOH
20
Name the **aminoglycoside** antibiotic that has a lower toxicity than Gentamicin and can affect some Gentamicin-resistant bacteria:
**Amikacin** *Amikacin is often preferred over gentamicin because it has a lower toxicity, however it is more expensive than Gentamicin*
21
T/F: **Fenbendazole** is effective against the canine flea tapeworm *Dipylidium caninum*
**False** Fenbendazole is used in dogs for roundworms, hookworks, and whipworms. NOT *Dipylidium caninum*
22
Name the drug that is considered to be the "most nephrotoxic drug ever"
**Amphotericin B** *Amphotericin B is the most effective drug for treatment of systemic mycoses (Blastomycosis, Coccidioidomycosis, and Histoplasmosis) _in immuno-compromised animals_*
24
T/F: **Nystatin** may be used in severe systemic fungal infections
**False** *Nystatin** **is a broad-spectrum _topical_ antifungal*
25
Which antifungal agent inhibits cells wall synthesis by inhibiting chitin synthesis?
**Lufenuron (Program®)**
26
Which drug selectively stimulates neutrophil progenitor cells to help combat infection in cancer patients?
**Filgrastim** Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) drug
28
T/F: Griseofulvin is given orally for treatment of dermatophytes because of selective deposition in new keratin
**True**
29
Name a β-lactamase stable penicillin often used for mastitis in cattle:
**Cloxacillin**
29
What is the mechanism of action for **Zafirlukast**?
**Leukotriene receptor antagonist** *(selective competitive antagonist for LTD4 and LTE4 receptors)*
30
T/F: **Phytonadione** is commonly used as a warfarin reversal agent
**True** Phytonadione is Vitamin K1 and is used to treat warfarin toxicity
31
Name the anthelminthic agent that is effective against the tapeworm *Anoplocephala perfoliata* in horses:
**Praziquantel**
32
What is the most commonly used **inodilator drug** and what is its mechanism of action?
**Pimobendan (Vetmedin)** Pimobendan is used to treat CHF in dogs and acts by increasing *sensitization of the cardiac contractile apparatus to calcium* by enhancing interaction between calcium and troponin C complex
33
Which systemic antifungal drug penetrates the CNS and is useful for treatment of cryptococcal meningitis?
**Fluconazole**
33
Which class of antibiotics are most associated with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?
**Sulfonamides**
34
Which drug inhibits 5-α-reductase and is used to treat benign prostate hypertrophy in the dog?
**Finasteride**
35
T/F: Griseofulvin must be given parenterally because oral absorption of the drug is so poor
**Hell no.** *Griseofulvin is only given _orally_ because GI absorption of the drug is so poor.*
36
Which drug lowers prolactin levels and is used in the treatment of pseudopregnancy in the bitch?
**Bromocriptine** Bromocriptine acts as a dopamine agonist on central dopamine receptors and inhibits prolactin, causing luteolysis
37
T/F: **Vitamin K3 (Menadione)** is an effective treatment for Warfarin toxicity in horses
**False** Vitamin K3 (Menadione) is ***not effective in treating Warfarin toxicity*** and should ***never be used in horses*** (causes idiopathic renal damage/renal failure) *Vitamin K1 (Phytonadione) is effective in treating Warfarin toxicity*
38
Name the agent commonly combined with praziquantel to treat roundworms, hookworms, and cestodes in cats:
**Emodepside** *The combination of Emodepside and Praziquantel is called Profender® and is okay to use in pregnant/lactating cats as well.*
39
Name a newer **fluoroquinolone antibiotic** that has not been shown to cause blindness in cats:
**Pradofloxacin**
40
What is the drug of choice (DOC) for idiopathic colitis in dogs?
**Sulfasalazine**
40
What is the drug of choice (DOC) for treatment of toxoplasmosis in **cats and dogs**?
**Clindamycin** *Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic*
42
Name the antimicrobials that can cause yellow discoloration of teeth in young animals:
**tetracyclines**
43
What is the drug of choice (DOC) for treatment of **Sporotrichosis**?
**Itraconazole**
44
T/F: Sulfonamides act as bacteriostatic by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase
**False** *_Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) inhibitors act inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase._* *Sulfonamides act as bacteriostatic by competing with PABA for the dihydropteroate synthase enzyme*
45
Which **antihistamine** drug is used to treat equine melanoma?
**Cimetidine (Tagamet®)** *Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce gastric acid, and is also used in treatment of equine melanoma because of its immuno-modulating activity (alteration of T-cell function and cell-mediated immunity)*
46
Name the **first generation cephalosporin** used for mastitis in cattle as an intramammary infusion
**Cephapirin**
47
Name the **nitroimidazole antibiotic** that is used in cats for treatment of tritrichomonas
**Ronidazole** ## Footnote *Greater toxicity concerns than metronidazole*
48
Which opioid antidiarrheal drug is more likely to cross the BBB: **Diphenoxylate** or **Loperamide**?
**Diphenoxylate (Lomotil®)** Loperamide (Immodium®) is kept out of the CNS because it is pumped by the P-glycoprotein efflux pump (encoded by the MDR1 gene).
49
T/F: **Desoxycorticosterone Pivalate (DOCP)** is the most commonly used mineralocorticoid and has no anti-inflammatory (glucocorticoid) effects
**True**
51
Which alkylating agent has wide tissue distribution and can be used for CNS neoplasms?
**Lomustine (oral)** and **Carmustine (IV)**
52
T/F: Aminoglycosides are effective in treating infections caused by anaerobic bacteria
**False** *Aminoglycosides are predominantly effective against Gram-negative **_aerobes_***
52
T/F: **Tolnaftate** is effective for treatment of *Malassezia canis*
**True!**
53
A dog showing neurologic signs caused by hypoglycemia (glucose = 40 mg/dl) associated with elevated insulin concentration in blood. Which of the following drugs may be effective orally in elevating blood glucose levels *mainly* by inhibiting pancreatic insulin secretion? 1. glucagon 2. epinephrine 3. diazoxide 4. prednisone
**Diazoxide** Diazoxide opens K+ channels in β cells, which switches off voltage-gated Ca2+ channels and results in inhibition of insulin release
55
Name the group of antimicrobials that is bactericidal by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis due to inhibition of DNA gyrase:
**Fluoroquinolones**
56
T/F: The antithrombotic action of **aspirin** is due to inhibition of platelet aggregation
**True** Aspirin inhibits synthesis of TXA2 by irreversibly inhibiting COX-1 and COX-2. *The result is the inhibition of platelet aggregation*.
58
T/F: Doxycycline may be recommended for treatment of systemic infections in animals with renal impairment because it is mainly excreted in bile
**True**
59
Which insulin is available in the form of an 'insulin pen' that allows for accurate dosing down to 0.5U increments?
**Vetsulin®** Vetsulin® recently launched an insulin pen with the capability of dosin down to 0.5U increments. This type of application would be ideal for very small dogs.
61
With which alkylating agent do we most commonly see **hemorrhagic cystitis **as a side effect?
**Cyclophosphamide** *(Water intake and frequent voiding are important. Diuretics are sometimes used to reduce risk)*
62
What is the most commonly used antiemetic currently?
**Maropitant citrate (Cerenia®)**
63
Name an antibiotic that is indicated for treatment of serious infections caused by methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA):
**Vancomycin** ## Footnote *Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis by preventing the assembly of amino acids. Almost all Gram-positives are senstiive to Vancomycin*
64
Drugs that increase the volume and fluidity of respiratory secretions are termed:
**Expectorants**
65
T/F: **Antihistamines** are effective drugs for the treatment of bronchial asthma
**False** *They may be useful in animals with chronic respiratory disease because of their effects on bronchial secretions, but they are not useful for the treatment of bronchial asthma*
66
What is the drug of choice (DOC) for treatment of amebiasis?
**Metronidazole** | (not approved in food animals)
68
Is **Griseofulvin** fungistatic or fungicidal?
**Fungistatic** *Griseofulvin interferes with microtubule function and inhibits mitosis; it is also an enzyme inducer. It is given only orally for treatment of dermatophytes because of selective deposition in new keratin*
69
How does **Vancomycin **inhibit cell wall synthesis?
**Prevents the assembly of amino acids**
70
T/F: **Tolnaftate** is effective for treatment of *Candida*
**False** Tolnaftate is effective for treatment of *Malassezia canis*
71
Protamine sulfate is a specific antidote for:
**Heparin**
72
Name the first generation **cephalosporin** antibiotic commonly used prophylactically in surgery
**Cefazolin** *Cefazolin has a similar spectrum to cephalexin/cefadroxil, but parenteral use only*
74
Which drug is used in dogs to kill adult heartworms?
**Melarsomine**
76
Is **Flucytosine** fungistatic or fungicidal?
**Fungicidal** *Flucytosine is fungicidal due to inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting thymidylate synthetase*
78
Name an anticancer drug that should NOT be used in cats because of its toxicity:
**Cisplatin**
79
Name the sulfonamide antibiotic that is used in treatment of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) as a result of *Sarcocystis neurona*:
**Pyrimethamine-Sulfadiazine**
81
Normal saline can be used to reduce nephrotoxicity of *which anticancer drug* in dogs?
**Cisplatin**
82
T/F: Aminoglycosides may be given orally for systemic infections
**False** *Aminoglycosides are poorly absorbed orally!*
83
Name the drug used for reversal of respiratory depression due to inhalation and barbiturate anesthesia:
**Doxapram**
84
Name the group of antibiotics that act by competing with PABA for the dihydropteroate synthase enzyme
**Sulfonamides**
85
T/F: Griseofulvin is effective against microsporum, trichophyton, and candida
**False** *Griseofulvin is effective against dermatophytes (microsporum and trichophyton), but not against Candida*
86
Which **nitrofuran antibiotic** is used to treat urinary tract infections in small animals?
**Nitrofurantoin**
87
T/F: **Polymyxin B** is effective against gram-positive bacteria
**False** *Polymyxin B bind to LPS on the outer membrane of **gram-negative **bacteria and disrupt phospholipid membranes. Gram-positive bacteria are generally not affected because they lack LPS.*
88
T/F: 100% oxygen should be administered immediately to a patient with Paraquat toxicity
**False!!** High concentrations of oxygen are known to enhance the toxic effects of paraquat in the lungs
89
Each of the following inhibit bacterial nucleic acid synthesis **except**: * Fluoroquinolones * Nitrofurans * Rifampin * Aminoglycosides
**Aminoglycosides** *Aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis*
90
T/F: **Spironolactone** causes diuresis via competitive antagonism of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) receptors
**False** Spironolactone causes diuresis via competitive antagonism of **_aldosterone receptors_**
91
Which **dopamine agonist** is used in equine Cushing's Syndrome to treat pars intermedia dysfunction?
**Pergolide (Permax®)** Pergolide is a dopamine agonist and acts to decrease ACTH, therefore decreasing cortisol
92
T/F: **Clavulanic acid** is a β-lactamase inhibitor
**True** *Clavulanic acid should only be used when β-lactamase is suspected or confirmed). *
93
Each of the following inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis **except**: * Monobactams * Cephalosporins * Macrolides * Bacitracin * Vancomycin
**Macrolides** *Macrolides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis*
94
Name the **third generation cephalosporin** labeled for pyoderma due to *Staph* and *Strep* in dogs
**Cefovecin (Convenia®)** *(also labeled for Pasteurella in cats)*
95
**Melphalan **is often used to treat:
**multiple myeloma** *Melphalan (Alkeran®) is an alkylating agent and is cell cycle non-specific*
96
Which two drugs are often combined to treat bacterial infections in foals caused by *Rhodococcus equi*?
**Erythromycin and Rifampin**
97
A cell-wall disrupting antibiotic that is often used topically to avoid toxicity:
**Bacitracin** *Generally used orally or topically (not systemically, due to nephrotoxicity)*
98
A carbapenem antibiotic that is used subcutaneously:
**Meropenem**
99
Which of the following anticancer drugs is cell cycle specific for the S-phase? * Vincristine * Doxorubicin * Cyclophosphamide * Methotrexate
**Methotrexate**
100
Name the drug that is considered most effective against systemic mycoses (including Blastomycosis and Histoplasmosis) in _non-immunocompromised_ animals
**Ketoconazole** *Not very effective against Aspergillosis though*
101
What is **Terbutaline** used for clinically?
**bronchodilation** *Terbutaline is a β2 agonist bronchodilator used to treat bronchoconstriction due to bronchial asthma*
102
Name the **sulfonamide** antibiotic that is commonly used as a coccidiostat in cats, dogs and poultry, and for shipping fever and foot rot in cattle:
**Sulfamethoxine (Albon®)**

RUSVM Pharmacology II (4 decks)

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