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RUSVM Pharmacology I > Pharm Exan 2 > Flashcards

Pharm Exan 2 Flashcards

1
Q

acts to indirectly increase release of NE in the bladder neck and urethra to treat urinary incontinence. also has direct alpha 1 agonist activity

A

Phenylpropanolamine

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2
Q

nonspecific alpha antagonist that binds irreversibly to the receptor; used to treat urinary incontinence by relaxing the internal urethral sphincter; also to manage pheochromocytoma

A

Phenocybenzamine

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3
Q

alpha 1 antagonist used to treat urinary retention by relaxing the smooth muscle sphincter.

A

Prozasin

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4
Q

nonspecific beta antagonist; causes bradycardia, decreased AV node conduction, decreased cardiac output, ; used to treat tachyarrhythmias, feline hyperthyroidism and chocolate toxicity

A

propanalol

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5
Q

Beta 1 selective antagonist; long half life; better to be used to treat tachyarrhythmias in patients with asthma

A

Atenolol

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6
Q

Shortest duration of the “lols”

A

esmolol

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7
Q

Blocks NE uptake into the VEeesicles which reduces storage of NE and leads to mediator depletion; used to calm equines

A

Reserpine

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8
Q

The main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

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9
Q

Part of the neuromuscular junction that interferes with synthesis, transport or release of acetylcholine.

A

Pre-synaptic

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10
Q

Part of the neuromuscular junction that interferes via stimulation of the nicotinic or alteration of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor or acting on the muscle itself.

A

Post-synaptic

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11
Q

Depolarizing and noncompetitive neuromuscular blocker?

A

Succinylcholine

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12
Q

NMB: Activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors but causes prolonged depolarization

A

Succinylcholine

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13
Q

NMB: not metabolized by acetylcholinesterase; just diffuses away

A

Succinylcholine

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14
Q

Clinical indications for this NMB include: endotracheal intubation, muscle relaxation during surgery, but should not be used during euthanasia

A

Succinylcholine

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15
Q

Duration of this NMB is around 2-3 mins but can be longer in ruminants and dogs

A

Succinylcholine

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16
Q

Pharmacological effects of this NMB is twitching followed by flaccid paralysis, transient bradycardia, increased IOP, Hyperkalemia due to twitching that releases K+.

A

Succinylcholine

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17
Q

Competitive NMB are non depolarizing or depolarizing?

A

non depolarizing

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18
Q

Nondepolarizing blocker that is mostly excreted unchanged by the kidney

A

pancuronium

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19
Q

nondepolarizing blocker that is mostly metabolized in the liver

A

Vecuronium and recuronium

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20
Q

nondepolarizing blocker that spontaneously degrades in plasma

A

Atracurium

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21
Q

Competitive blockers are reversed by:

A

cholinesterase inhibitors aka neostigmine or edrophonium

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22
Q

Sugammadex can terminate by chelation which competitive NMB?

A

Rocuronium

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23
Q

Most effective diuretic

A

Loop; 25 % Na Reabsorption

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24
Q

2nd most effective diuretic

A

Thiazide; 5% Na Reabsorption

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25
Q

Digitalis and phosphodiesterase inhibitors are what kind of diuretic

A

Cardiovascular

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26
Q

Water and sodium chloride are what kind of diuretic

A

Physiological

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27
Q

Drugs such as mannitol, urea, glycerin and isosirbide are what kind of diuretic

A

Osmotic

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28
Q

Where do osmotic diuretics act on?

A

loop of henle

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29
Q

Since osmotic diuretics act by osmotic effect in the tubule and by reducing medullary tonicity it is not ok to use Mannitol in cases of __________

A

generalized edema

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30
Q

Diuretic used in the treatment of cerebral edema, glaucoma, acute renal failure, used in patients with drug overdoes….

A

Osmotic diuretic

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31
Q

Drugs such as foursome, bumetanide and ethacrynic acid are what kind of diuretic

A

Loop diuretic

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32
Q

This diuretic inhibits the NAK2Cl symporter at the luminal membrane in the thick limb of the loop of henle, not allowing the reabsorption of NA, CA, or MG, but can result in hypokalemia. the most efficacious bc 25% if NA is reabsorbed in this location

A

Loop diuretic

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33
Q

treats pulmonary edema and congestion, generalized edema, and can be used in conjunction with saline to treat hypercalcemia and prevent volume depletion

A

Loop diuretic

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34
Q

Used to treat exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage in horses

A

Furosemide

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35
Q

Diuretic that inhibits the NaCl simperer in the distal convoluted tubule resulting in the inhibition of tubular reabsorption of NA, CL, and diuresis; also increased reabsorption of Ca.

A

Thiazide diuretic

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36
Q

Used to treat edema of CHF, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome and acute glomerular nephritis; treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and central diabetes insipidus; treatment of osteoporisis

A

Thiazide diuretics

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37
Q

competitively blocks aldosterone from binding in the late distal tubule and collecting duct which results in excretion of NaCl and diuresis, but retention of K and H; used to treat hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

38
Q

Blocks epithelial Na channels in the luminal membrane of the principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting duct, which results in excretion of Na and diuresis but retention of K and H.

A

Triamterene and amiloride

39
Q

Drugs like acetazolamide, methazolamide, Dorzolamide and brinzolamide are what type of diuretic?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

40
Q

reversible inhibition of carbonic anhydrase which inhibits the exchange of hydrogen for sodium in the proximal tubule; used to treat open angle glaucoma or udder edema.

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

41
Q

T/F? Hypertension stimulates the secretion of ADH?

A

False, HYPOtension

42
Q

ADH actions?

A

reabsorption of water and activation of the thirst mechanism

43
Q

Caused by ADH deficiency

A

Central Diabetes insipidus

44
Q

Caused by impaired responsiveness of kidney to ADH

A

Nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus

45
Q

Drug used in the treatment of Central Diabetes?

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP), sometimes thiazide diuretics

46
Q

Drugs used in the treatment of nephrogenic diabetes?

A

thiazide diuretics

47
Q

acts to increase the calcium level inside myocardial cells; positive inotropic effect; drug used in the treatment of CHF and atrial arrhythmias

A

Digoxin

48
Q

Drug that undergoes enterohepatic recycling; renal excretion in dogs and horses, renal and hepatic in cats

A

Digoxin

49
Q

From the class Beta 1 agonists that can only be used once in instances of emergency for CHF

A

Dopamine and dobutamine

50
Q

Drug that acts primarily by making the heart more sensitive to calcium via troponin C; however at very high doses has the capability to increase calcium levels. causes balanced vasodilation

A

Pimobendan (vetmedin)

51
Q

which diuretics can be used for CHF?

A

Loop (furosemide), thiazide and potassium retaining diuretics (spironolactone)

52
Q

These drugs are only used early in treatment of CHF to blunt the harmful effects of sympathetic nervous system

A

B blockers- carvedilol, metoprolol, atenolol

*ace inhibitors would be better bc they do not have inotropic affects on the heart

53
Q

How many classes are there for anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A

4 ; they have a narrow safety margin so they are not used very often

54
Q

Drug of choice for supra ventricular and ventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A

Beta blockers -Propranolol

55
Q

Quinidine is a member of this class that prolongs the action potential:

A

Class 1A of sodium channel blockers

56
Q

Flecainide is a member of this class that has no effect on the action potential?

A

Class 1C of sodium channel blockers

57
Q

Lidocaine is a member of this class that shortens the action potential?

A

Class 1B of sodium channel blockers

58
Q

Treatment of ventricular arrhythmias and A-fib in horses, cattle and large dogs

A

Quinidine

59
Q

Treatment of ventricular arrhythmias due to surgery, ischemia and trauma

A

Lidocaine

60
Q

treatment of Digitalis-induced arrhythmias in dogs only

A

Phenytoin

61
Q

Anti arrhythmic drugs used for bradyarrhythmia

A

atropine, epinephrine, isoproterenol

62
Q

What affect on the blood vessels do nonselective alpha agonist, selective a1 agonist and direct and indirect sympathomimetics have?

A

vasoconstriction

63
Q

Ace inhibitors cause vasodilation?

A

True

64
Q

this drug is a angiotensin II antagonist that is used for antihypertension

A

losartan

65
Q

Hydralazine is similar in action to nitrates on blood vessels?

A

true

66
Q

These drugs are calcium channel blockers that are used due to their vasodilatory affect on blood vessels but also are used to treat supra ventricular tachyarrhythmias and myocardial hypertrophy

A

Verapamil and diltiazem

67
Q

Oral Levothyroxine is used to treat what?

A

hypothyroidism in dogs

68
Q

What is the most commonly used drug to treat hyperthyroidism in cats?

A

Methimazole, specifically felimazole

69
Q

parental calcium options that are used to treat acute hypocalcemia

A

Ca gluconate and Ca Chloride

70
Q

Oral Ca options are meant to treat chronic hypocalcemia:

A

Ca Carbonate and Ca Proprionate

71
Q

In what situation would calitriol be necessary to add to the diet?

A

Hypoparathyroidism

results in the inability of the body to convert vitamin D to its active form (calcitriol) and leads to hypocalcemia

72
Q

diet, dextrose and glucagon can all be used to treat:

A

acute hypoglycemia

73
Q

this drug is only useful in type II diabeetus which is only usually recognized in what species of animal?

A

Glipizide; in cats

74
Q

Mechanism of action for glipizide:

A

stimulate insulin secretion and also increase tissue sensitivity to insulin

75
Q

Why is regular insulin not recommended for long term management of diabetes?

A

it is short acting

only one that can be administered intravenously

76
Q

Intermediate-acting insulins; SQ only; good starting insulin types for dogs but may not provide adequate control in felines

A

NPH, Vetsulin/Caninsulin

77
Q

long acting insulins; SQ only

A

Protamine zinc/ PZI, glargine, detemir

78
Q

Where are glucocorticoids produced in the adrenal gland? and what is the endogenous hormone?

A

Zona Fasciculata; cortisol

79
Q

Glucocorticoids have 4 main physiological effects:

A

increase calcium excretion, reduce fever, suppress immune response, lymphotoxic

80
Q

Glucocorticoids have 4 main clinical uses:

A

Dexamethasone suppression test (low and high dose), treat for hypoadrenocorticism, anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive.

81
Q

Which glucocorticoid is more potent? least potent?

A

Decamethasone; cortisol

82
Q

Which glucocorticoid last longer? shortest?

A

Dexamethasone; hydrocortison, pred, methylpred

83
Q

Why are salt esters added to glucocorticoids? limitation?

A

To make them suitable for IV administration; duration is unchanged.

84
Q

Pivalate, acetate and acetonide are examples of what that have what action? haha

A

insoluble esters; longer duration, however they are NOT suitable for IV administration
Examples are methylprednisolone acetate and triamcinolone acetonide

85
Q

WHAT ARE THE TWO MINERALOCORTICOIDS YOU NEED TO KNOW!

A

Desoxycorticosterone pivalate (DOCP) and Fludrocortisone

86
Q

Where in the adrenals are mineralocorticoids produced and what is the endogenous hormone? used for?

A

zona glomerulosa; aldosterone; sodium retention

87
Q

Typical addisons is representative by the lacking of both….

A

glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoids

88
Q

atypical addison are just lacking….

A

glucocorticoids

89
Q

Addison’s is aka

A

Hypoadrenocorticism

90
Q

Cushings is aka; defined as?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism; excess glucocorticoid production by the adrenals

RUSVM Pharmacology I (3 decks)

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