Pharm Exan 2 Flashcards

1
Q

acts to indirectly increase release of NE in the bladder neck and urethra to treat urinary incontinence. also has direct alpha 1 agonist activity

A

Phenylpropanolamine

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2
Q

nonspecific alpha antagonist that binds irreversibly to the receptor; used to treat urinary incontinence by relaxing the internal urethral sphincter; also to manage pheochromocytoma

A

Phenocybenzamine

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3
Q

alpha 1 antagonist used to treat urinary retention by relaxing the smooth muscle sphincter.

A

Prozasin

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4
Q

nonspecific beta antagonist; causes bradycardia, decreased AV node conduction, decreased cardiac output, ; used to treat tachyarrhythmias, feline hyperthyroidism and chocolate toxicity

A

propanalol

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5
Q

Beta 1 selective antagonist; long half life; better to be used to treat tachyarrhythmias in patients with asthma

A

Atenolol

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6
Q

Shortest duration of the “lols”

A

esmolol

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7
Q

Blocks NE uptake into the VEeesicles which reduces storage of NE and leads to mediator depletion; used to calm equines

A

Reserpine

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8
Q

The main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

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9
Q

Part of the neuromuscular junction that interferes with synthesis, transport or release of acetylcholine.

A

Pre-synaptic

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10
Q

Part of the neuromuscular junction that interferes via stimulation of the nicotinic or alteration of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor or acting on the muscle itself.

A

Post-synaptic

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11
Q

Depolarizing and noncompetitive neuromuscular blocker?

A

Succinylcholine

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12
Q

NMB: Activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors but causes prolonged depolarization

A

Succinylcholine

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13
Q

NMB: not metabolized by acetylcholinesterase; just diffuses away

A

Succinylcholine

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14
Q

Clinical indications for this NMB include: endotracheal intubation, muscle relaxation during surgery, but should not be used during euthanasia

A

Succinylcholine

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15
Q

Duration of this NMB is around 2-3 mins but can be longer in ruminants and dogs

A

Succinylcholine

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16
Q

Pharmacological effects of this NMB is twitching followed by flaccid paralysis, transient bradycardia, increased IOP, Hyperkalemia due to twitching that releases K+.

A

Succinylcholine

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17
Q

Competitive NMB are non depolarizing or depolarizing?

A

non depolarizing

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18
Q

Nondepolarizing blocker that is mostly excreted unchanged by the kidney

A

pancuronium

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19
Q

nondepolarizing blocker that is mostly metabolized in the liver

A

Vecuronium and recuronium

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20
Q

nondepolarizing blocker that spontaneously degrades in plasma

A

Atracurium

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21
Q

Competitive blockers are reversed by:

A

cholinesterase inhibitors aka neostigmine or edrophonium

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22
Q

Sugammadex can terminate by chelation which competitive NMB?

A

Rocuronium

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23
Q

Most effective diuretic

A

Loop; 25 % Na Reabsorption

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24
Q

2nd most effective diuretic

A

Thiazide; 5% Na Reabsorption

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25
Digitalis and phosphodiesterase inhibitors are what kind of diuretic
Cardiovascular
26
Water and sodium chloride are what kind of diuretic
Physiological
27
Drugs such as mannitol, urea, glycerin and isosirbide are what kind of diuretic
Osmotic
28
Where do osmotic diuretics act on?
loop of henle
29
Since osmotic diuretics act by osmotic effect in the tubule and by reducing medullary tonicity it is not ok to use Mannitol in cases of __________
generalized edema
30
Diuretic used in the treatment of cerebral edema, glaucoma, acute renal failure, used in patients with drug overdoes....
Osmotic diuretic
31
Drugs such as foursome, bumetanide and ethacrynic acid are what kind of diuretic
Loop diuretic
32
This diuretic inhibits the NAK2Cl symporter at the luminal membrane in the thick limb of the loop of henle, not allowing the reabsorption of NA, CA, or MG, but can result in hypokalemia. the most efficacious bc 25% if NA is reabsorbed in this location
Loop diuretic
33
treats pulmonary edema and congestion, generalized edema, and can be used in conjunction with saline to treat hypercalcemia and prevent volume depletion
Loop diuretic
34
Used to treat exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage in horses
Furosemide
35
Diuretic that inhibits the NaCl simperer in the distal convoluted tubule resulting in the inhibition of tubular reabsorption of NA, CL, and diuresis; also increased reabsorption of Ca.
Thiazide diuretic
36
Used to treat edema of CHF, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome and acute glomerular nephritis; treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and central diabetes insipidus; treatment of osteoporisis
Thiazide diuretics
37
competitively blocks aldosterone from binding in the late distal tubule and collecting duct which results in excretion of NaCl and diuresis, but retention of K and H; used to treat hyperaldosteronism
Spironolactone
38
Blocks epithelial Na channels in the luminal membrane of the principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting duct, which results in excretion of Na and diuresis but retention of K and H.
Triamterene and amiloride
39
Drugs like acetazolamide, methazolamide, Dorzolamide and brinzolamide are what type of diuretic?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
40
reversible inhibition of carbonic anhydrase which inhibits the exchange of hydrogen for sodium in the proximal tubule; used to treat open angle glaucoma or udder edema.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
41
T/F? Hypertension stimulates the secretion of ADH?
False, HYPOtension
42
ADH actions?
reabsorption of water and activation of the thirst mechanism
43
Caused by ADH deficiency
Central Diabetes insipidus
44
Caused by impaired responsiveness of kidney to ADH
Nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus
45
Drug used in the treatment of Central Diabetes?
Desmopressin (DDAVP), sometimes thiazide diuretics
46
Drugs used in the treatment of nephrogenic diabetes?
thiazide diuretics
47
acts to increase the calcium level inside myocardial cells; positive inotropic effect; drug used in the treatment of CHF and atrial arrhythmias
Digoxin
48
Drug that undergoes enterohepatic recycling; renal excretion in dogs and horses, renal and hepatic in cats
Digoxin
49
From the class Beta 1 agonists that can only be used once in instances of emergency for CHF
Dopamine and dobutamine
50
Drug that acts primarily by making the heart more sensitive to calcium via troponin C; however at very high doses has the capability to increase calcium levels. causes balanced vasodilation
Pimobendan (vetmedin)
51
which diuretics can be used for CHF?
Loop (furosemide), thiazide and potassium retaining diuretics (spironolactone)
52
These drugs are only used early in treatment of CHF to blunt the harmful effects of sympathetic nervous system
B blockers- carvedilol, metoprolol, atenolol *ace inhibitors would be better bc they do not have inotropic affects on the heart
53
How many classes are there for anti-arrhythmic drugs?
4 ; they have a narrow safety margin so they are not used very often
54
Drug of choice for supra ventricular and ventricular tachyarrhythmias?
Beta blockers -Propranolol
55
Quinidine is a member of this class that prolongs the action potential:
Class 1A of sodium channel blockers
56
Flecainide is a member of this class that has no effect on the action potential?
Class 1C of sodium channel blockers
57
Lidocaine is a member of this class that shortens the action potential?
Class 1B of sodium channel blockers
58
Treatment of ventricular arrhythmias and A-fib in horses, cattle and large dogs
Quinidine
59
Treatment of ventricular arrhythmias due to surgery, ischemia and trauma
Lidocaine
60
treatment of Digitalis-induced arrhythmias in dogs only
Phenytoin
61
Anti arrhythmic drugs used for bradyarrhythmia
atropine, epinephrine, isoproterenol
62
What affect on the blood vessels do nonselective alpha agonist, selective a1 agonist and direct and indirect sympathomimetics have?
vasoconstriction
63
Ace inhibitors cause vasodilation?
True
64
this drug is a angiotensin II antagonist that is used for antihypertension
losartan
65
Hydralazine is similar in action to nitrates on blood vessels?
true
66
These drugs are calcium channel blockers that are used due to their vasodilatory affect on blood vessels but also are used to treat supra ventricular tachyarrhythmias and myocardial hypertrophy
Verapamil and diltiazem
67
Oral Levothyroxine is used to treat what?
hypothyroidism in dogs
68
What is the most commonly used drug to treat hyperthyroidism in cats?
Methimazole, specifically felimazole
69
parental calcium options that are used to treat acute hypocalcemia
Ca gluconate and Ca Chloride
70
Oral Ca options are meant to treat chronic hypocalcemia:
Ca Carbonate and Ca Proprionate
71
In what situation would calitriol be necessary to add to the diet?
Hypoparathyroidism results in the inability of the body to convert vitamin D to its active form (calcitriol) and leads to hypocalcemia
72
diet, dextrose and glucagon can all be used to treat:
acute hypoglycemia
73
this drug is only useful in type II diabeetus which is only usually recognized in what species of animal?
Glipizide; in cats
74
Mechanism of action for glipizide:
stimulate insulin secretion and also increase tissue sensitivity to insulin
75
Why is regular insulin not recommended for long term management of diabetes?
it is short acting | only one that can be administered intravenously
76
Intermediate-acting insulins; SQ only; good starting insulin types for dogs but may not provide adequate control in felines
NPH, Vetsulin/Caninsulin
77
long acting insulins; SQ only
Protamine zinc/ PZI, glargine, detemir
78
Where are glucocorticoids produced in the adrenal gland? and what is the endogenous hormone?
Zona Fasciculata; cortisol
79
Glucocorticoids have 4 main physiological effects:
increase calcium excretion, reduce fever, suppress immune response, lymphotoxic
80
Glucocorticoids have 4 main clinical uses:
Dexamethasone suppression test (low and high dose), treat for hypoadrenocorticism, anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive.
81
Which glucocorticoid is more potent? least potent?
Decamethasone; cortisol
82
Which glucocorticoid last longer? shortest?
Dexamethasone; hydrocortison, pred, methylpred
83
Why are salt esters added to glucocorticoids? limitation?
To make them suitable for IV administration; duration is unchanged.
84
Pivalate, acetate and acetonide are examples of what that have what action? haha
insoluble esters; longer duration, however they are NOT suitable for IV administration Examples are methylprednisolone acetate and triamcinolone acetonide
85
WHAT ARE THE TWO MINERALOCORTICOIDS YOU NEED TO KNOW!
Desoxycorticosterone pivalate (DOCP) and Fludrocortisone
86
Where in the adrenals are mineralocorticoids produced and what is the endogenous hormone? used for?
zona glomerulosa; aldosterone; sodium retention
87
Typical addisons is representative by the lacking of both....
glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoids
88
atypical addison are just lacking....
glucocorticoids
89
Addison's is aka
Hypoadrenocorticism
90
Cushings is aka; defined as?
Hyperadrenocorticism; excess glucocorticoid production by the adrenals