Pharm Exam #4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the action of cephalosporins?

A

Inhibit the synthesis and activates the enzymes that disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis

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2
Q

25 yr old male in urgent care, painful sore on genitals. Had unprotected sex a month ago, patient has treponema pallidum. Drug of choice for patients infection is a single dose of what?

A

Benzathine penicillin G

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3
Q

What does the drug probenecid increase activity of?

A

Increases blood levels of penicillin

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4
Q

32 yr old pneumonia allergic ampicillin?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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5
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of bacterial meningitis in children?

A

Ceftriaxone

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6
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clavulanic acid?

A

Inactivates bacterial beta-lactamases

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7
Q

Which drug causes pseudomembranous colitis as an adverse effect?

A

Clindamycin

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8
Q

Patient treated with clindamycin should notify dental office if?

A

5 or more days with watery stool

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9
Q

39 year old given an IV prophylactic drug preceding a valve prosthesis. as antibiotic is being infused, the patient becomes flushed over most of his body. What antibiotic was given?

A

Vancomycin

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10
Q

Ototoxicity and red-neck syndrome are associated with

A

Vancomycin

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11
Q

45 year old male presented with sever cellulitis and large abscess on his left leg. Incision and drainage were performed on the abcess and cultures reveal MRSA. Most appropriate treatment option for once daily outpatient intravenous therapy?

A

Daptomycin

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12
Q

Aplastic anemia is serious toxic effect of which drug?

A

chloramphenicol

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13
Q

Most appropriate statement concerning reaction caused by aminoglycosides?

A

Potent neuromuscular blockers

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14
Q

Use of tetracycline may result in

A

staining of teeth

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15
Q

All of the following are true about doxycycline except?

A

Increases efficacy of penicillin

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16
Q

Which macrolide does not inhibit cytochrom P450 and increase serum level of drugs

A

Azithromycin

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17
Q

Which quinolone treats anthrax?

A

ciproflaxin

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18
Q

What drug causes damage to growing cartilage resulting in tendon rupture

A

Fluoroquinolones

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19
Q

which drug is given as a single dose to treat chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin

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20
Q

which prodrug activated by KatG-the catalase-peroxidase?

A

Isoniazid

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21
Q

Whi is vitamin B6 usually prescribed for isoniazid

A

It prevents some adverse effect of INH therapy

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22
Q

Drug used for all types of tuberculosis?

A

isoniazid

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23
Q

Drug increases hepatic metabolism of other drugs

A

Rifampin

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24
Q

Which of the following antibiotic is implicated in contraception failure

A

Rifampin

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25
Q

35 yr old male formerly heroin abuser takes methadone. He recently got positive PPD test and now takes the 4 drug treatment regimen. Comes to emergency department feeling withdrawal symptoms. Which drug is likely to have caused this patients acute withdrawal symptoms

A

Rifampin

26
Q

Which drug is used for treatment of TB, may result in diminished vision and loss of ability to differentiate red from green

A

Ethambutol

27
Q

Ethambutol is given concurrently with other drugs in TB treatment in order to?

A

Retard development of organism resistance

28
Q

What is the first line agent for latent infection of tuberculosis?

A

Isoniazid

29
Q

What is the first line agent for active tuberculosis

A

Rifampin

30
Q

Antimicrobial given intramuscular?

A

Streptomycin

31
Q

Most active aminoglycoside in TB

A

Streptomycin

32
Q

Binds to pores and disrupts fungal wall integrity

A

Amphotericin B

33
Q

Inhibitor of 1, 3 glucan synthesis

A

Capsofungin

34
Q

What agent affects human sterol production

A

Ketoconazole

35
Q

40 year old with Hodgkins

A

Voriconazole

36
Q

Antiviral action of the following would be reduced by mutation of viral thymidine kinase?

A

acyclovir

37
Q

preferred drug treatment of uncomplicated HSV-1 infection

A

Acyclovir

38
Q

In addition to treating PCP, patient diagnosed with HIV, CMV retinitis?

A

Ganciclovir

39
Q

Which drug do you have to concurrently take probenecid and be hydrated to reduce toxicity to kidney?

A

Cidofovir

40
Q

Which drug is used as an antiviral for influenza A to inhibit uncoating

A

amantadine

41
Q

Which drug is active against both influenza A and B

A

Oseltamivir

42
Q

Question regarding HAART

A

all of the above

43
Q

Patient with AIDS giving zidovudine. Mechanism of action?

A

Inhibition of nucleoside

44
Q

A man with HIV infection takes a protease inhibitor. What is an adverse effect of this treatment?

A

Lipodystrophy

45
Q

Which chemotherapeutic drug involves alkylation?

A

Cyclophosphamide

46
Q

Which drug is an example of S phase dependent cytotoxicity

A

Methotrexate

47
Q

Enable cells to become resistant?

A

Induction of MDR-1

48
Q

Least likely to produce myelosuppression effect?

A

Vincristine

49
Q

Which of the following is a prodrug?

A

Cyclophosphamide

50
Q

Anticancer agent metabolized xanthine oxidase

A

busulfan

51
Q

Which antineoplastic medication may result in tinnitus?

A

Cisplatin

52
Q

Hydration and diuretics lessen the distal tubular necrosis which was a result from taking which medication

A

Cisplatin

53
Q

Which drugs binds to the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase?

A

Methotrexate

54
Q

Mechanism of action of leucovorin?

A

Increases 5, 10-methylene

55
Q

Nine year old with acute lymphoblastic leukemia, maintained on methotrexate. Which agent counteracts methotrexate toxicity?

A

Leucovorin

56
Q

Which treatment may result in pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Bleomycin

57
Q

Toxicity of doxorubicin?

A

Cardiomyopathy

58
Q

Glutamine Function

A

Promotes healing

59
Q

Most effective drug for immunosuppression of rejection of the allografted kidney?

A

Cyclosporin

60
Q

Incorrect concerning the use of antimicrobials for surgical prophylaxis?

A

Broad Spectrum

61
Q

Which disease is not an indication for antimicrobial to prevent infection?

A

Bronchitis