PHARM - Controlled Substances & Acute Pain Management Flashcards

1
Q

schedule I substances are defined as?

A

those with a high potential for abuse and NO accepted medical use in the US

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2
Q

schedule II substances are defined as?

A

drugs with a high abuse potential with

  • a severe liability for psychic / physical dependance
  • but are approved for mecidical use in the US
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3
Q

which drugs are Schedule I?

A
  • marijauna
  • MDMA (ecstasy)
  • methaqualone (quaaludes)
  • mescaline (peyote)
  • LDS
  • heroin
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4
Q

which drugs are Schedule II?

A
  • opioides:
    • codeine
    • morphine
    • oxycodone
    • hydromorphine
    • hydrocodone
    • fentanyl
    • meperidine
  • meth
    • methadone
    • methamphetamine
    • methylphenidate
    • dextoamphetamine
  • phenylcyclidine (PCP)
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5
Q

which drugs are schedule V?

A
  • diphenyoxylate
  • pregabalin
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6
Q

what four criteria must be met for a presciption to be legitimate?

A

four criteria

  1. prescriber registered
  2. patient desires medication for a legitimate medical need
  3. practitioner must establish this legitimate need through assessments using pertinent medical diagnostic modalities
  4. easonable correlation between drug prescribed and patients need
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7
Q

a proper prescription for a controlled substance includes what information?

A
  • date
  • patients - full name, address
  • practitioners - full name, address, signature, DEA registration #
  • the drug - name, strength, dosage, quantity, # of refills, directions, substitutions
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8
Q

in what situation would a provider need to document the reasoning of the prescription on the prescription?

A

if they are prescribing a opoids for acute pain that is going to exceed a 7-day limit

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9
Q

schedule II drug limitiations

  • quantity allowed?
  • refills allowed?
  • length of validity of prescription?
A
  • quantitiy: absolute max is 90 days - beyond 30 day supply, reason must be given*
  • refills: no refilled allowed
  • length of prescription validity: 6 months
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10
Q

schedule III & V drug limitiations

  • quantity allowed?
  • refills allowed?
  • length of validity of prescription?
A
  • quantity: 90 day supply
  • refills: maximum of 5 refills in 6-motths
  • length of prescription validity: 6 months
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11
Q

which types of interventions are preferred for chronic pain?

A
  • non-pharmaceutical
  • if pharmaceutical, non-opioid
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12
Q

physicians should initiate opioid therapy with which types of opioids?

A
  • immediate release > extended release
  • lowest effective dosage
  • quantitiy needed to cover only the expended duration (m/c 3 or less days)
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13
Q

before continuing opioid prescription as a chronic treatment, physicians should take which keys steps?

A
  1. review pts hx of controlled substance (PDMP data)
  2. drug test urine
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14
Q

after intiating chronic opioid therapy, physicians should made which periodic assessments?

at what intervals?

A
  • assess benefits vs harms: within 1-4 weeks of intiation, then at least every 3 months thereafter
  • review PMDP data: every prescription or every 3 months
  • consider urine testing annually
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15
Q

physicians should always avoid prescribing opioids with what drugs?

A

benzodiazepines

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16
Q

how should physicians manage opioid use disorder?

A

offer / arrange evidence based treatment, which is typically medication assisted treatment: (with buprenorphine or methadone) + behavioral therapies

17
Q

postoperative pain can increase risk of…?

explain why.

A
  • DVT - d/t stress-induced _hypercoagulable stat_e (any operation)
  • myocardiac ischemia - d/t stess-iduced catecholamine release (any operation)
  • pneumonia & hypomexia - d/t stress-induced hypoventilation (if operation was to upper abdomen / thorax)
18
Q

why is it important control acute post-operative pain?

A

poorly controlled acute post-operative pain is an important predictive factor for the development of chronic postoperative pain

19
Q

what is the best way to manage acute postoperative pain?

A

with a multimodal treatment pain

20
Q

what is the best way to inflammatory pain?

A

NSAIDS

21
Q

nerve blocks to which regions can reduce pain in the

  • T6-sacral area?
  • UE?
  • LE?
A
  • T6- sacrum: thoracic / lumbar epidural
  • UE: brachial plexus
  • LE: sciatic, femoral, popliteal, ankle
22
Q

neuraxial anesthesia

  • benefits
  • risks
A
  • benefits
    • decreased cognitive AES
    • possibly enhanced pain control
  • risks:
    • post-dural HA
    • hematoma
    • abcess
23
Q

which drugs are examples of neuraxial anesthetics?

A
  • spinal: bupivicaine
  • epidural: bupivicaine / ropivacaine
24
Q

peripheral nerve blocks

  • benefits
  • risks
A
  • benefits
    • lower opioid supplementation
    • improved sleep quality
    • increased pain relief / control
  • risks:
    • hematoma
    • abcess
25
Q

an interscalene nerve block is beneficial for post-operative pain following which procedures?

A
  • shoulder surgery
  • arm surgery
26
Q

a _transversus abdominus nerv_e block can be benificial for post-operative pain following which surgeries?

A
  • certain abdominal surgeries
    • C-section
    • exploratory laparotomy
    • ventral hernia repair
27
Q

a popliteal nerve block can be benificial for post-operative pain following which surgeries?

A
  • foot surgery
  • ankle surgery
28
Q

a femoral nerve block can be beneficial for post-operative pain following which operations?

A

knee surgery

29
Q

ketamine

has what role in post-operative pain management?

how does it work?

A
  • opioid sparing treatment
    • work by antagonizing NDMA receptors
    • this blunts a phenomonen where opioids actually induce hyperalgesia in patients receiving intra operative opioids