peripheral blood and hematopoesis Flashcards

1
Q

Platelets (do/do not) have a nucleus.

A

Platelets do NOT have a nucleus

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2
Q

RBC cytoskeletons consist of

A

spectrin

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3
Q

Describe features of spectrin

A
  • found in RBCs
  • springy, flexible
  • connected to membrane via glycophorins
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4
Q

Three formed elements of blood

A

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets

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5
Q

Components of the buffy coat

A

platelets, leukocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils

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6
Q

After centrifugation of whole blood, what is found in the plasma?

A

water (92%), electrolytes, nutrients, gases, waste, PROTEINS

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7
Q

Describe the protein makeup of plasma

A

58% albumin
37% globulin
4% fibronogen
1% regulatory proteins

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8
Q

Describe hematocrit

A

percentage by volume of packed RBCs in a sample of blood after centrifugation (usually 36-47%)

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9
Q

Describe differences between plasma and serum

A
  • plasma minus fibronogen=serum
  • serum contains growth factor and other proteins derived from clot formation
  • plasma is just the supernatant after centrifuge
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10
Q

function of plasma proteins

functions of albumin

A

maintain oncotic pressure in microvasculature, transport of fatty acids, electrolytes, hormones, bilirubin, drugs

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11
Q

function of plasma proteins

function of globulins

A

alpha-transport of lipids, hormones, metals
beta-transport of hormones, iron, proteolysis of fibrin clots
gamma-immunoglobulins and antibodies

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12
Q

function of plasma proteins

function of fibronogen and other proteins

A

fibrin, enzymes and hormones

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13
Q

key erythrocyte characteristics

A
  • 7.5 microns
  • biconcave disks
  • no nuclei or mitochondria
  • eosinophilic
  • integral proteins (glycophorins)=blood type
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14
Q

What components of the RBC cytoskeleton enable flexibility?

A

spectrin A and B

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15
Q

What are the types of abnormalities in RBCs?

A

poikilocytosis-shape irregularity
anisocytosis-size irregularity

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16
Q

three functions of RBCs

A
  • transport of gases
  • carbonic anhydrase
  • chloride-bicarbonate exchange
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17
Q

Adult hemoglobin is a tetramer of which globins

A

2 alpha, 2 beta

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18
Q

sickle cell is caused by

A

missense mutation (glu to val) in beta hemoglobin

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19
Q

implications of sickle cell

A
  • loss of flexibility in RBCs
  • lack of capillary blood flow
  • hypoxia, pain, tissue damage
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20
Q

neutrophils

(granular/agranular)

A

granular

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21
Q

eosinophils

(granular/agranular)

A

granular

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22
Q

basophils

(granular/agranular)

A

granular

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23
Q

monocytes

(granular/agranular)

A

agranular

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24
Q

lymphocytes

(granular/agranular)

A

agranular

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25
Q

Describe the nucleus of neutrophils. When are they banded or segmented?

A
  • polymorphonuclear: 2-5 interconneted lobes
  • banded when immature
  • segmented when old

in females, one lobe may be Barr body (inactive X chromosome)

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26
Q

Visible purples granules with lysosomal proteases

Primary or secondary

A

primary/azurophilic

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27
Q

small, indistinguishable granules that stain pink

primary or secondary

A

secondary/specific

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28
Q

neutrophil functions

A
  • inflammatory response
  • secretion of cytokines, chemokines, proinflammatory mediators
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29
Q

NADPH oxidase is found in the membrane of which leukocytes

A

neutrophils

(used for killing infectious organisms)

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30
Q

Eosinophil nucleus

A
  • two lobes connected by chromatin
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31
Q

Components of specific/secondary granules in eosinophils

A
  • major basic protein
  • eosinophil cationic protein
  • peroxidase, lipase, RNase

very few azurophilic granules

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32
Q

eosinophil function

A
  • infection fighting (esp. parasitic worms and viruses)
  • allergic reactions
  • asthma
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33
Q

basophil characteristics

A

everything is obscured by specific granules

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34
Q

basophil secondary granule contents

A
  • heparin
  • histamine
  • eosinophil chemotactic factor
  • phospholipase A
    ** stain purple**

very few primary granules

35
Q

basophil function

A
  • secrete proinflammatory mediators in response to antigens and allergens
  • IgE receptors to trigger immune responses
36
Q

lymphocyte nucleus

A
  • large, almost whole cell
  • indented in larger lymphocytes
  • condensed chromatin
37
Q

classes of lympocytes

A
  • B lymphocytes
  • T lymphocytes
  • Natural killer cells

cannot differentiate histologically

38
Q

function of lymphocytes

A

innate and acquired immunity

39
Q

monocyte nucleus

A

C-shaped saddlebag

40
Q

features of monocytes

A
  • very large (3xRBC)
  • visible vacuoles
  • many small primary granules
  • no secondary granules
41
Q

functions of monocytes

A
  • precursor for macrophages
  • antigen presenting cells
42
Q

features of platelets

A
  • membrane-bound fragments with no nucleus
  • 1/2 size of RBC
43
Q

function of platelets

A
  • blood clotting
  • plugging leaks in capillaries/small venules
44
Q

central region of platelet

A

granulomere

45
Q

outer region of platelets

A

hyalomere

46
Q

components of granulomere

A
  • alpha granules-platelet-derived growth factor, TGFb, clotting proteins
  • delta granules- serotonin/ATP/ADP
  • glycogen granules
47
Q

components of hyalomere

A
  • marginal bundle-microfilaments and microtubules (give contractile properties)
  • open canalicular system-platelet plasma membrane pieeces (for degranulation by exocytosis)
  • ER for degranulation via calcium release
  • glycoalyx for adhesion to connective tissue
48
Q

Differential counting via blood smear must include at least ____ leukocytes

A

differential counting via blood smear must include at least 100 leukocytes

49
Q

Flow cytometry measures cell size with ____.

A

Flow cytometry measures cell size with forward angle light scatter.

50
Q

Flow cytometry measures granularity and nuclear lobulation with ____.

A

Flow cytometry measures granularity and nuclear lobulation with size/side scatter light.

51
Q

half life of neutrophils in blood

A

6 hours

52
Q

half life of neutrophils in tissues

A

1-4 days

53
Q

average lifespan of RBCs

A

120 days

54
Q

platelets are derived from

A

megakaryocytes

55
Q

bilobate nuclei are a feature of which leukocyte

A

eosinophils

56
Q

methods of differential counting

A

blood smear and flow cytometry

57
Q

erythrocyte stacks in capillaries

A

rouleaux

58
Q

fetal hemoglobin is made of ____ and ____ subunits

A

fetal hemoglobin is made of 2 alpha and 2 gamma subunits

59
Q

platelet lifespan

A

8-10 days

60
Q

Normal Ranges of
* Neutrophils
* Lymphocytes
* Monocytes
* Eosinophils
* Basophils

A

Normal Ranges of
* Neutrophils: 54-62%
* Lymphocytes: 25-33%
* Monocytes: 3-7%
* Eosinophils: 1-3%
* Basophils: 0-0.75%

61
Q

Common myeloid progenitor gives rise to all cells except

A

lymphocytes

common lymphoid progenitor makes this

62
Q

Primordial hematopoesis occurs in the ____ between ____ in utero.

A

Primordial hematopoesis occurs in the embryonic yolk sac between 3-6 weeks in utero.

63
Q

Hepatosplenothymic hematopoesis happens between ____ in utero.

A

Hepatosplenothymic hematopoesis happens between 6 weeks to 6 months in utero.

64
Q

The primary site of hematopoesis by the 7th month in utero is____.

A

The primary site of hematopoesis by the 7th month in utero is medullary bone marrow.

begins shift in 3rd month in utero

65
Q

Four types of myeloid lineage

A
  • erythropoesis
  • granulopoesis
  • monocytopoesis
  • thrombopoesis
66
Q

Products of
* erythropoesis
* granulopoesis
* monocytopoesis
* thrombopoesis

A
  • erythropoesis: RBCs
  • granulopoesis: neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
    * monocytopoesis:monocytes
  • thrombopoesis: megakaryotes
67
Q

progenator cells are also referred to as

A

colony forming units

68
Q

cell type

A

Proerythroblast

69
Q

proerythroblast characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

proerythroblast characteristics
* size: 20-25 microns
* nucleus:large, round, lacy chromatin
* nucleolus:present, not prominent
* cytoplasm:basophilic
* mitosis:yes

70
Q

basophilic erythroblast characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

basophilic erythroblast characteristics
* size:15-20 microns
* nucleus:large with condensed chromatin
* nucleolus:none
* cytoplasm:super basophilc (dark)
* mitosis:yes

71
Q

polychromatophilic erythroblast characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

polychromatophilic erythroblast characteristics
* size: 12-15 microns
* nucleus: “checkerboard” condensed chromatin pattern
* nucleolus: none
* cytoplasm: mixture of acidophilic and basophilic
* mitosis: yes

72
Q

orthochromatophilic erythroblast characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

orthochromatophilic erythroblast characteristics
* size: 10-15 microns
* nucleus: highly condensed eyeball
* nucleolus:none
* cytoplasm: mostly eosinophilic due to hemoglobin
* mitosis: no

73
Q

erythrocyte characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

erythrocyte characteristics
* size: 7-9 microns
* nucleus: extruded
* nucleolus: none
* cytoplasm: eosinophilic
* mitosis: no

74
Q

reticulocytes are

A

immature RBCs with polyribosomes

75
Q

Time needed to generate erythrocytes:
Rate of erythrocyte production:

A

Time needed to generate erythrocytes: 10 days
Rate of erythrocyte production: 210 billion/70kg person/day

76
Q

Time needed to generate granulocytes:
Rate of granulocyte production:

A

Time needed to generate granulocytes: 14 days
Rate of granulocyte production: 600 million/70kg person/day

77
Q

myeloblast characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

myeloblast characteristics
* size: 10-15 microns
* nucleus: large and round, fine chromatin
* nucleolus: multiple prominent
* cytoplasm: tiny rim, no granules
* mitosis: yes

78
Q

promyelocyte characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

promyelocyte characteristics
* size: 12-20 microns
* nucleus: big, but with granular chromatin
* nucleolus: multiple and prominent
* cytoplasm: basophilic with many azurophilic granules
* mitosis: yes

79
Q

myelocyte characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

myelocyte characteristics
* size: 12-17 microns
* nucleus: ovoid with condensed chromatin
* nucleolus: none
* cytoplasm: azurophilic granules jwith few specific
* mitosis: yes

80
Q

neutrophilic metamyelocyte characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

neutrophilic metamyelocyte characteristics
* size: 12-17 microns
* nucleus: indented with condensed chromatin
* nucleolus: none
* cytoplasm: predominantly specifc granules
* mitosis: no

81
Q

band neutrophil characteristics
* size:
* nucleus:
* nucleolus:
* cytoplasm:
* mitosis:

A

band neutrophil characteristics
* size: 12-17 microns
* nucleus: horseshoe shaped with condensed chromatin
* nucleolus: none
* cytoplasm: predominantly specific granules
* mitosis: no

82
Q

megakaryocyte characteristics

A
  • 150 micron diameter
  • lobulated, irregularly-shaped nucleus
  • polyploid
83
Q

Megakaryocyte differentiation is controlled by ____.

A

Megakaryocyte differentiation is controlled by thrombopoietin.

84
Q

characteristics of protoplatelets

A
  • pass through sinusoidal endothelium
  • growth enabled by demarcation membranes
  • contain microtubles for elongation
  • contain microfilaments to pinch off platelets