Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Junior blocks > Perioperative > Flashcards

Perioperative Flashcards

1
Q

Define a fistula

A

Abnormal tract between two epithelial surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define a sinus

A

A blind ended cavity lined with epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define a hernia

A

An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the wall of the cavity it is contained in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which types of hernia are usually asymptomatic?

A

Hiatus and umbilical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the signs of limb ischaemia? Indicate which are early and which are late signs.

A

Early - Pale, Parasthesia, Pain, Perishingly cold
(if compartment, passive stretch pain, palpable swelling)

Late - Pulseless, Paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the rule of 2s for meckels diverticulum?

A 
2% of population
Presents before 2 years
2:1 male:female
2 inches long
2 ft above ileocaecal valve (In small intestine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a meckels diverticulum?

A

Remnant of the vitelline duct (yolk sac to midgut)

Contains 2 different types of mucosa, can include pancreatic or gastric.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How can a meckels diverticulum cause complications?

A
  1. Vitelline fistula (poo at umbilicus soon after birth)
  2. Haemorrhage - (Gastric mucosa - peptic ulcer)
    3 Small bowel obstruction (adhesions, stones, torsion)
  3. Diverticulits
  4. Intussusception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you differentiate between the 3 main causes of acute RUQ pain?

A

All colicky pain, provoked by fatty meal.

Biliary colic - No fever, no CRP
Acute cholecystitis - +fever, CRP, Murphy’s sign (stop breathing when press RUQ)
Ascending cholangitis - +jaundice

(Charcot’s triad of pain, fever and jaundice is ascending cholangitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you differentiate between the 3 main causes of acute epigastric pain?

A

Peptic ulcer - NSAID use, alcohol, reflux
Gastric - worse when eating
Duodenal - relieved by eating

Acute pancreatitis - radiates to back, alcohol, gallstones, fever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you differentiate between the main causes of acute central abdominal pain?

A

Early appendicitis - pain on palpation RIF, anorexia, tachy, fever

Acute pancreatitis - radiates to back, alcohol, gallstone, fever

IBD flare - diarrhoea/constipation, blood in stool, joint pains, skin signs, mouth ulcers

Obstruction - vomiting (small), complete constipation (large), tinkling bowel sounds. Hx adhesions or Ca.

Ectopic - repro age, amenorrhoea

AAA - elderly man, radiates to back, hypotensive, tachy, IHD

Mesenteric ischaemia - AF/ cardio disease, diarrhoea, metabolic acidosis from the latate produced by necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you differentiate between the main causes of acute RIF pain?

A

Appendicitis - anorexia, tachy, fever, moved from early central pain

Ectopic - repro age, amenorrhoea

IBD flare - diarrhoea/constipation, blood in stool, joint pains, skin signs, mouth ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you differentiate between the main causes of acute LIF pain?

A

Diverticulitis - elderly, colicky, diarrhoea, fever, CRP, white cells

Ectopic - repro age, amenorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you differentiate between the main causes of supra pubic pain?

A

UTI - female, dysuria, frequency

Urinary retention - male with history of BPH

Torsion - absent cremasteric reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you differentiate between the main causes of acute abdo pain radiating to the back?

A

AAA - elderly man, hypotensive, tachy, IHD

Acute Pancreatitis - alcohol, gallstones, fever.

Pyelonephritis - loin to groin pain, fever, rigors

Renal colic - colicky, severe pain, haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When would it be appropriate to prescribe Hartmann’s fluid?

A

When replacing isotonic fluid loss.

eg after surgery, diarrhoea and vomiting, blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When would it be appropriate to prescribe a dextrose - saline fluid regimen?

A

When replacing hypotonic fluid loss

eg dehydration, diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is it especially important to avoid pure saline? (ie 0.9% normal saline only)

A

Post op and in sepsis.
Because cell lysis and leaky capillaries respectively lead to increased electrolytes. Pure saline will lead to Na overload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How should you treat a fluid overloaded heart or renal failure patient?

A

Reverse with furosemide

Start fluid chart
Catheterise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the universal recipient blood type?

A

AB+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the universal donor blood type?

A

O-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a massive haemorrhage?

A

100% blood volume (5L) in 24 hours
50% blood volume in 3hrs
or
150ml/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute haemolysis in reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Shock - fever, AKI, respiratory distress, hypotension, tacchycardia, restless.

Chest pain radiating to the back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an acute haemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Host antibodies IgG and and IgM respond to the antigen (A or B) on the donor blood cells.
They bind to the donor cells, activate complement and lead to haemolysis.
They can also opsonise the rbcs so that they clump together and are captured by macrophages and the RES system.
Massive lysis of rbcs leads to acute anaemia and shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is FFP? When is it used?

A

Fresh frozen plasma - contains clotting factors, albumin and immunoglobulin.

Therefore used in patients with hepatic failure before surgery as they can’t produce these things well.

Or a massive haemorrhage in a patient on warfarin/ raised INR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is tranexamic acid? When is it used?

A

Blocks plasminogen to plasmin. Less plasmin means clots last longer.

Within 3hrs of an injury to boost the effectiveness of natural clotting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the name of the score to calculate VTE risk in surgical patients? What does it include?

A

Caprini score

  1. Age over 60
  2. Recent stroke or MI
  3. Hx VTE
  4. Thrombocytopenia
  5. CCF/AF
  6. Obesity
  7. Hormonal contraceptive/pregnancy
  8. Type of surgery - arthroplasty, cancer, longer than 45 mins
  9. Bed bound for 72 hours post op

If 2 points use thromboprophylaxis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the name of the score to calculate PE risk? What does it include?

A

Well’s score

  1. Clinical DVT
  2. PE is number 1 diagnosis or equally likely
  3. 5 HR >100
  4. 5 Surgery within 4 weeks or immobile 3 days
  5. 5 Previous DVT or PE
  6. Haemoptysis
  7. Malignancy

If greater than 4 PE likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of the d dimer? What does this mean?

A

High sensitivity but low specificity.
Means it can be used to rule out VTE but not a diagnostic tool.

Positive predictive value low
Negative predictive value high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does the d dimer measure?

A

Breakdown product of fibronlysis.

Direct measure of plasmin mediated fibrinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What pathological conditions can cause a raised d dimer?

A

VTE

Acute coronary syndrome
Stroke
Aortic dissection
AF

DIC
Sickle cell
Infection
Superficial thrombophlebitis
GI haemorrhage

Malignancy
Pre-eclampsia

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What non pathological conditions can cause a raised d dimer?

A 
Age 
Smoking
Post-operatively
Pregnancy
Race (e.g. African Americans)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?

A

Inhibits vitamin k reuctase therefore producing ineffective clotting factors (2,7,9 and 10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are all of the options when reversing warfarin?

A 
Prothrombin complex
FFP
Vitamin k oral
Vitamin k IV
Stop warfarin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How would you reverse warfarin in an active bleed?

A 
Prothrombin complex (specific clotting factors 2,7,9 and 10)
Give with vitamin k due to short half life.

Add FFP if ineffective (less specific blood product full of clotting factors, albumin and immunoglobulin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How would you reverse warfarin for an operation within 24 hours?

A

Oral vitamin k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How would you reverse warfarin for an operation within 6-8 hours?

A

IV vitamin k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How would you reverse warfarin for an elective operation?

A

Stop warfarin 5-7 days before
Operation goes ahead when INR is below 1.5
Consider heparin bridging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the advantage of LMWH over normal heparin?

A

Low risk of HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia) longer half life, no APTT monitoring.

(Normal heparin required in renal failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the thromboprophylactic dose of LMWH for a 70kg man? When should it be started around surgery?

A

Dalteparin - 2500 units SC BD
Enoxaparin - 40mg SC OD

6-12 hours post operative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When should a woman stop taking the COC before surgery?

A

4 weeks before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When should clopidogrel be stopped before surgery?

A

7-10 days

Unless prosthetic valve, in which case continue dual antiplatelet with aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When should aspirin be stopped before surgery?

A

On the day

Unless prosthetic valve, in which case continue dual antiplatelet with clopidogrel/prasugrel/ticagrelor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How should hypoglycaemics be adapted before surgery in a well controlled diabetic on oral medication?

A

Sulphonylureas - stop on the morning (risk of hypo)

Continue metformin and pioglitazone

Monitor BM throughout periop period and place first on the list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How should hypoglycaemics be adapted before surgery in an insulin dependent diabetic?

A

Sliding scale throughout peri op period (risk of hypo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which antibiotics should be used for surgical prophylaxis?

A

IV Gentamicin and metronidazole

1 hr prior to surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which surgical procedures require prophylactic antibiotics?

A 
Anything except clean surgery eg.
GI - eg appendix
Caesarean
Cataract
MSK
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which surgical procedures do not require prophylactic antibiotics?

A

Inguinal hernia repair
Lap chole
Tonsillectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the risk factors for post operative nausea and vomiting?

A

Female
Gynae and ENT
Hx N and V
General anaesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the types of anti emetic?

A

H1 antagonists - cyclizine

5HT antagonists - ondansetron

Dopamine antagonists (prokinetic) - domperidone, metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cyclizine?

A

H1 antagonist. (antihistamine)

Blocks action of histamine from brain and middle ear on the vomiting centre in the medulla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron?

A

5HT antagonist.
Blocks lots of actions on vomiting centre in the medulla.

From brain and middle ear, from the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the area postrema in the floor of 4th ventricle and from GI tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the mechanism of action of pro kinetic antiemetics? Can you give 2 examples?

A

Dopamine antagonists.
Domperidone and metoclopramide.

Block action on vomiting centre in the medulla from the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the area postrema in floor of the 4th ventricle and the GI tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the mechanism of loperamide?

A

Opioid agonist that doesnt cross the bbb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the major side effect of loperamide?

A

Risk of toxic megacolon in IBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the types of laxative?

A

Bulk - Fybogel (methylcellulose + ispaghula husk)
Stimulant - senna
Osmotic - lactulose, movicol, phosphate enema
Stool softener - arachis oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fybogel (methyl cellulose + ispaghula husk)?

A

Bulk forming by undigested hydrophillic substance that increases volume of stool.
Can help in both constipation (by increasing peristalsis and softening stool) and diarrhoea (by solidifying stool)

Therefore very good in IBS where there may be both symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the mechanism of action of senna?

A

Stimulates intestinal muosa to produce water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lactulose?

A

Osmotic agent.

Undigestible starch that draws water into the lumen by osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What should be prescribed as an initial fluid challenge for a maintenance regime?

A

500ml 0.9% saline at 30ml/kg/24hr

Therefore for a 75kg man needs 500ml at a rate of 100ml per hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What should be prescribed as a fluid challenge in a replacement regime?

A

500ml 0.9% saline stat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe the ASA classes of risk for anaesthesia.

A

ASA I No systemic disease
ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the electrolyte disturbance seen in an addissonian crisis?

A

With vomiting, Low sodium high potassium think addissonian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What reverses heparin? When is it routinely administered?

A

Protamine sulphate.

When coming off cardiac bypass because lots of heparin has been used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What imaging is required before a patient with rheumatoid arthritis has a general anaesthetic?

A

AP and lateral C spine x rays to check for atlantoaxial subluxation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the most common post op complications in timeline order?

A 
1- 4 days 
atelectasis + or - pyrexia
stroke
MI
paralytic ileus
addissonian crisis

1-7 days
Urinary retention
AKI

5-10 days
delirium

7-10 days
Infection - chest, wound, UTI
Secondary haemorrhage

10-14 days
VTE
Wound dehiscience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which groups of patients require a pre op ecg?

A

Over 65
Renal disease
Diabetes
Cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What routine bloods are required pre op?

A

Fbc - for baseline for infection/anaemia
U and e’s - for baseline in case of AKI
Crossmatch and clotting in case of bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

For a patient on steroids, what should happen to their medication over surgery? Why?

A

Steroid cover
Hydrocortisone IV at induction then normal dose 8 hourly for 72 hours.

Otherwise risk of addissonian crisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the appropriate crossmatching for the following types of surgery?

Appendicectomy
Total hip replacement
AAA repair
Cystectomy
Lap Chole
A 
Appendicectomy - group and save
Total hip replacement - x match 2
AAA repair - x match 4-6
Cystectomy - x match 4-6
Lap Chole - group and save

Unlikely bleed - group and save
Likely bleed - x match 2
Definite bleed - x match 4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the test for an acute haemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Direct coomb test

Can also measure unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin, or serum and urine bilirubin.

72
Q

What are the contraindications for day surgery?

A 
severe dementia
severe learning disabilities
ASA III and above 
BMI 32 and above
diabetes type I (if sliding scale commenced)
infection at the site of surgery
social factors
uncontrolled pain or nausea expected post-operatively
73
Q

What is the anatomy of a direct inguinal hernia?

A

Protrudes through Hesselbach’s triangle

Passes medial to the inferior epigastric artery

74
Q

What is the anatomy of an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Protrudes through the inguinal ring (inguinal canal is ex processus vaginalis)
Passes lateral to the inferior epigastric artery

75
Q

What is the anatomy of a femoral hernia?

A

Protrudes below the inguinal ligament, lateral to the pubic tubercle

76
Q

Which type of groin hernia is common in infants?

A

Indirect. Due to failure of processus vaginalis to close.

77
Q

Which type of groin hernia is common in females?

A

Femoral. (Although inguinal still more common than femoral in females. Out of all femoral hernias, more are women)

78
Q

Which type of groin hernia has a high risk of strangulation?

A

Femoral

79
Q

What causes a direct inguinal hernia?

A

Weakness in the transversalis fasica around Hesselbach’s triangle

80
Q

What causes an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Failure of processus vaginalis to close

81
Q

What are the borders of the femoral triangle?

A

Inguinal ligament
Sartorius
Adductor longus

82
Q

What are the borders of the femoral canal?

A

Femoral vein
Lymph
Lacunar ligament

Think NAVEL

83
Q

What are the the borders of Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Inguinal ligament
Inferior epigastric vessels
Lateral border of the rectus sheath

84
Q

What are the borders of the inguinal canal?

A

Diagonally through the abdominal wall

Anterior - External and internal obliques
Posterior - transversalis fascia

Floor - inguinal and lacunar ligaments
Roof - transversalis fascia and transversalis abdominis

85
Q

Describe the layers of the abdominal wall

A

External oblique
Internal oblique
Transveralis abdominis
Transversalis fascia

Above arcuate line all 3 aponeuroses go around both sides pf the rectus muscle to form rectus sheath

Below the arcuate line they travel anterior to the rectus mucles only

86
Q

What is a Spigelian hernia?

A

A hernia through the spigelian fascia

the aponeurosis between the rectus muscle and the arcuate line

87
Q

What is a Richter’s hernia?

A

A rare hernia where only one wall of the bowel herniates through the defect
Can occur at laparoscopic port sites.

88
Q

What is the arcuate line? What is its relevance?

A

The line below which the rectus sheath no longer travels posterior to the rectus muscle.

Where the inferior epigastric vessels perforate the rectus muscle

Location of spigelian hernias

89
Q

What first line treatment should be recommended for a patient with peripheral arterial disease?

A

Antiplatelet (aspirin) and a statin

Plus exercise and stop smoking

90
Q

What treatment should be offered to a patients with peripheral arterial disease in whom first line (antiplatelet and a statin) treatment is not effective?

A

Angioplasty or stenting

91
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms of peripheral arterial disease

A

intermittent claudication
limb ischaemia: foot pain at rest, often made worse by elevation e.g. at night
ulceration
loss of foot pulses

92
Q

What syndrome is associated with bilateral peripheral arterial disease and impotence? Why?

A

Leriche’s syndrome

Atheroma at the bifurcation of the aorta into the iliac arteries

93
Q

What are the risk factors for periperal arterial disease?

A

Smoking
Diabetes
Obesity

94
Q

How would you examine a patient with intermittent claudication?

A

check the femoral, popliteal, posterior tibialis and dorsalis pedis pulses
check ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI)
duplex ultrasound is the first line investigation

Buerger’s test - lie on back, waggle legs, sit up and watch colour change like Reynaud’s in abnormal leg.

95
Q

What is pathophysiology of varicose veins?

A

Valve incompetence in the superficial veins or the perforators causing inefficient drainage and venous hypertension.

96
Q

Where is the most common site of incompetent valves in varicose veins?

A

Sapheno- femoral junction

second is sapheno-popliteal

97
Q

How would you examine a patient with varicose veins?

A

Look feel for thrombophlebitis/ ulcerative changes
Check femoral, popliteal, posterior tibialis and dorsalis pedis pulses

Trendelenberg test to find incompetent valve
Duplex ultrasound

98
Q

What are the indications for surgical removal of varicose veins?

A
  1. Ulcer
  2. Pre-ulcer changes - skin pigmentation, lipodermatosclerosis
  3. Thrombophlebitis
99
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for varicose veins?

A

Stockings

100
Q

What are the branches of the coeliac trunk?

A

Left gastric
Common hepatic
Splenic

101
Q

What are the branches of the SMA?

A

Right colic
Middle colic
Ileocolic
Jejunoileal

102
Q

What are the branches of the IMA?

A

Left colic
Sigmoid
Superior rectal

103
Q

Where do the inferior epigastric vessels travel?

A

Off externl iliac above the inguinal ligament, it pierces the transversalis fascia at the arcuate line

104
Q

What are the branches of the abdominal aorta in order?

A 
Phrenic
Coeliac trunk
SMA
Renal
Gonadal
IMA
Common iliacs
105
Q

How should an ABPI be interpreted?

A

1 Normal
0.6-0.9 Claudication
0.3-0.6 Rest pain
<0.3 Impending

106
Q

What are the borders of Calot’s triangle? What is its significance?

A

Inferior border of the liver
Cystic duct
Common hepatic duct

Contains the cystic artery so identify during lap chole and make sure not to clip it.

107
Q

What is the tumour marker for pancreatic cancer?

A

CA 19-9

108
Q

What is the tumour marker for bowel cancer?

A

CEA

109
Q

What is the tumour marker for liver cancer?

A

AFP

110
Q

What is the tumour marker for ovarian cancer?

A

CA125

111
Q

What is the tumour marker for testicular cancer?

A

HCG

112
Q

Describe the scoring system used for acute pancreatitis

A 
Glasgow score. 3 points predicts severity
 P aO2 <8
A ge >55
N eutrophils >15
C alcium <2
R enal - urea >16
E nzymes - AST >200 LDH>600
A lbumin <32
S ugar >10
113
Q

What is the management for asymptomatic gallstones?

A

Reassurance

114
Q

Which type of cancer is likely to be present in the lower third of the oesophagus? Which type is in the middle third?

A

Lower third of oesophagus - adenocarcinoma

Middle third with achalasia - squamous cell carcinoma

115
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Barrett’s oesophagus

A

Recurrent GORD irritates the epithelia of the lower oesophagus. This leads to a metaplasia from stratified squamous non keratinised to simple columnar with goblet cells.

116
Q

What is whipple procedure? How commonly is it performed?

A

Removal of the head of the pancreas and the first part of the duodenum, (plus a portion of the common bile duct, gallbladder, and sometimes part of the stomach.)

Rarely performed because pancreatic cancer presents so late.

117
Q

What are the common sequelae of acute pancreatitis?

A

Pseudocyst - weeks afterwards, defined border, non epithelial wall filled with enzyme fluid. Minimal symptoms. Can drain if required.

Acute fluid collection - less defined wall, immediate, filled with serosanguinous fluid. Self resolve.

Necrosis - symptomatic. Risk of deterioration, call ITU. Necrosectomy.

118
Q

What signs would you look for in a barium swallow?

A

bird beak - achalasia

apple core - oesophageal cancer

119
Q

What histological finding indicates gastric cancer?

A

Signet ring cells filled with mucus that push the nucleus to the side.

120
Q

What signs are specific to pancreatitis?

A

Grey Turner and Cullen signs

Bleeding into the peritoneum (GT is round the flank, C is round the umbilicus)

121
Q

Which part of the pancreas is usually affected by pancreatitis?

A

Exocrine (head) of the pancreas

122
Q

How does pancreatic cancer present?

A

Painless jaundice

123
Q

What is the differential for painless jaundice?

A

Pancreatic cancer

Increased production - Haemolytic anaemia, transfusion reaction, sepsis

Decreased conjugation - Cirrhosis, hepatitis, GIlberts

Impaired excretion into bile - chronic pancreatitis, PSC

124
Q

What is the differential for painless jaundice?

A

Pancreatic cancer

Increased production - Haemolytic anaemia, transfusion reaction, sepsis

Decreased conjugation - Cirrhosis, hepatitis, GIlberts

Impaired excretion into bile - chronic pancreatitis, PSC

125
Q

What tests would you order for suspected pancreatitis?

A

Amylase (diagnostic)

FBC (neutrophils for infective cause and for glasgow score)
U+E (expect dehydration from 3rd space losses, urea for glasgow score)
LFT (look for obstructive pattern of gallstones, gamma GT for alcohol, enzymes for glasgow)
LDH (glasgow)
Calcium (causative and for glasgow)

USS abdo (look for gallstones)

126
Q

How would you treat acute pancreatitis?

A

Supportive unless infective cause (rare)

Fluids, analgesia. ERCP if gallstones

127
Q

What tests would you order for suspected gallstones?

A

FBC - leucocytes - ?cholecystitis and haemolytic anaemia risk factor
U+E - dehydration
LFT - obstructive pattern and bilirubin for ?ascending cholangitis
Lipids- causative
USS abdo

ERCP if USS positive for removal of CBD stones

128
Q

What are the risk factors for gallstones?

A

Cholesterol stones-
Fat - hyperlipidaemia, obesity, diabetes,
Female - pregnancy
Forty

Pigment stones-
Crohns
Haemolytic anaemia

129
Q

What are the most common gallstones made of?

A

Cholesterol

other type is bilirubin

130
Q

What are the most common renal stones made of?

A

Calcium oxalate

others include uric acid and cystine

131
Q

What are the indications for a lap chole?

A

Symptomatic biliary colic
Uncomplicated chronic cholecystitis
Early acute cholecystitis (within 72 hours is a hot gallbladder)

132
Q

What sign is specific to gallstones?

A

Murphy’s sign

Press under the ribs in the RUQ and ask to breathe in, pain.

133
Q

What is a general rule about obstructive jaundice in the presence of a palpable gallbladder?

A

Courvoisier’s law:
obstructive jaundice in the presence of a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to stones. This is due to the fibrotic effect that stones have on the gallbladder.

Therefore think cancer

134
Q

What is surgical emphysema?

A

Air trapped in the fascia, often following surgery. Feels like crepitations under the skin like rice krispies.
Usually benign.
Shows up on xray. Especially look at the pectoralis muscles.

135
Q

What is surgical emphysema?

A

Air trapped in the fascia, often following surgery. Feels like crepitations under the skin like rice krispies.
Usually benign.
Shows up on xray. Especially look at the pectoralis muscles.

136
Q

What are the risk factors for gastric cancer?

A 
Japanese or Chinese
H. pylori infection
blood group A: gAstric cAncer
gastric adenomatous polyps
pernicious anaemia
smoking
diet: salty, spicy, nitrates
may be negatively associated with duodenal ulcer
137
Q

How is gastric cancer diagnosed?

A

Endoscopy

138
Q

What type of bacteria is H Pylori?

A

Gram negative rod

139
Q

What is the initial test for H pylori?

A

Urease breath test

140
Q

What is H pylori associated with?

A

GORD
Peptic ulcers
Gastric cancer
B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue

141
Q

How is H pylori eradicated?

A

7 days triple therapy

a proton pump inhibitor + clarithromycin + metronidazole/amoxicillin

142
Q

Give some extramural causes of intestinal obstruction

A

Adhesions
Incarcerated Hernia
Volvulus
Tumour

143
Q

Give some intramural causes of intestinal obstruction

A

IBD
Paralytic ileus
Stricture
Intussusception

144
Q

Give some lumenal causes of intestinal obstruction

A

Faecal
Bezoar
Gallstone ileus
Parasites

145
Q

What are the most common causes of small bowel obstruction?

A

Adhesions

Hernia

146
Q

What are the most common causes of large bowel obstruction?

A

Colon cancer

Strictures from IBD and diverticulitis

147
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of small bowel obstruction?

A

Symptoms
Colicky pain
Early vomiting
Rapid onset

Signs
Distension
Tinkling bowel sounds
Shock

148
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of large bowel obstruction?

A

Symptoms
Colicky pain
Absolute constipation
Gradual onset

Signs
Distension
Empty rectum
Shock

149
Q

What are the radiological differences between small and large bowel obstruction?

A

Small - valvulae conniventes lines cross all the way

Large - haustra do not cross all the way

150
Q

What is the radiological sign of a sigmoid volvulus?

A

coffee bean shape on abdo xray

151
Q

What is the radiological sign of colonic carcinoma?

A

Apple core stricture

152
Q

What is absolute constipation?

A

Constipation with no flatus

Indicates large bowel obstruction

153
Q

What investigations would you order for a suspected bowel obstruction?

A

FBC
U and E
Group and save

Chest x ray
Abdo x ray

Consider CT abdo and or gastrograffin study

154
Q

What happens to fluid and electrolytes in bowel obstruction? Why?

A

3rd space losses of everything.
End up with acidosis and AKI

Fluid builds up at the blockage. This causes osmotic pressure into interstitium.
It also causes stasis and an overgrowth of gut flora. These release toxins that lead to leaky epithelia.

155
Q

What is your initial management of bowel obstruction?

A

Decompress with NG tube
Replace fluid and electrolytes
Monitor fluid balance

Antibiotics only if in shock

156
Q

What sign is specific to appendicitis?

A

Psoas stretch

Pain when right thigh is passively extended with the patient lying on their side with their knees extended.

157
Q

What pathogen is most likely to be associated with gangrene?

A

Strep pyogenes

158
Q

What is the tumour marker for breast cancer?

A

CA 15-3

159
Q

What type of surgery is appropriate for a patient with cancer in the splenic flexure?

A

Left hemicolectomy

160
Q

What type of surgery is appropriate for a patient with cancer in the upper rectum?

A

Anterior resection (consider TME total mesorectal excision if low/borderline)

161
Q

What type of surgery is appropriate for a patient with cancer in the lower rectum, close to the anal verge (within 6cm)?

A

Abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (includes TME total mesorectal excision)

162
Q

What are the risk factors for Mesenteric ischaemia?

A 
Age
AF
other causes of emboli: endocarditis
CVS: smoking, hypertension, diabetes
Cocaine
163
Q

How does mesenteric ischaemia present?

A 
abdominal pain
rectal bleeding
diarrhoea
fever
bloods typically show an elevated WBC associated with acidosis
164
Q

What is the treatment for mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Surgical removal of ischaemic bowel

165
Q

Where is mesenteric ischaemia most likely to occur?

A

Splenic flexure

166
Q

Where is mesenteric ischaemia most likely to occur?

A

Splenic flexure

167
Q

What nerve is at risk during inguinal hernia surgery? What effect will it have?

A

Ilioinguinal nerve

Pain in groin. Illicited on palpation of the inguinal ligament

168
Q

What nerve is at risk during anterior resection of rectum ? What effect will it have?

A

hypogastric autonomic nerves.

169
Q

What nerve is at risk during Carotid endarterectomy? What effect will it have?

A

hypoglossal nerve

170
Q

What nerve is at risk during thyroidectomy? What effect will it have?

A

recurrent laryngeal

171
Q

What is the minimum abpi value for safely using compression bandages?

A

0.8

172
Q

What are the post op complications which occur immediately?

A 
atelectasis + or - pyrexia 
stroke 
MI 
paralytic ileus 
addissonian crisis
173
Q

What are the post op complications which occur in the first 1-7 days?

A

1-7 days
Urinary retention
AKI

174
Q

What are the post op complications which occur in the first 5-10 days?

A

5-10 days

delirium

175
Q

What are the post op complications which occur in the first 7-10 days?

A

7-10 days
Infection - chest, wound, UTI
Secondary haemorrhage

176
Q

What are the post op complications which occur in the first 10-14 days?

A

10-14 days
VTE
Wound dehiscience

Junior blocks (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions