Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Junior blocks > GP > Flashcards

GP Flashcards

1
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for a red eye?

A 
Acute angle glaucoma
Corneal ulcer
Anterior uveitis (iritis)
Scleritis
Conjunctivitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes acute angle glaucoma?

A

Aqueous humour produced by the ciliary body normally drains up and over the iris and into the trabecular mesh work.
If the angle between the cornea and the iris is narrowed eg sitting around in the dark and pupil dilates, the trabecular mesh work is occluded and the pressure backs up.

Raised intraocular pressure can lead to optic nerve damage and permanent blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the red flag signs and symptoms for acute angle glaucoma?

A 
Blurred vision and haloes
Severe pain and headache
Nausea and vomiting
Oval pupil - unreactive to light 
Photophobia 
Onset in the dark
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment for acute angle glaucoma?

A

Topical beta blocker and Pilocarpine - anti m3 ach to constrict the iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a ciliary flush and what are the possible causes? How would you differentiate between them?

A

Red pattern around the iris

Corneal ulcer - associated with trauma, contact lenses etc
Anterior uveitis - associated with connective tissue disorder and photophobia
Scleritis - associated with connective tissue disorder and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the differential for a red non-painful/itchy eye?

A

conjunctivitis - diffuse pink

Subconjunctival haemorrhage - defined red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the risk factors for a subconjunctival haemorrhage?

A

Hypertension
Anticoagulant
Constipation/straining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What skin conditions are associated with blepharitis?

A

Acne Rosacea

Seborrhoea dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 main causes of an inflamed eyelid? How would you differentiate them?

A

Hordeolum - Stye - external blocked ciliary sweat gland or internal blocked tarsus sebum gland - painful

Chalazion - Meibomiam cyst - retention of an internal stye - non painful.

Blepharitis - infective area around base of eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which bacteria is usually responsible for acne?

A

Propioni bacterium acnes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is acne classified?

A

Mild - less than 30 lesions
Moderate - papules and pustules
Severe - nodular cystic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the indications referral to dermatology and isotretinoin treatment for acne?

A

Severe- nodular cystic acne
Plus scarring
Or not responding to oral antibiotics for 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the side effects of isotretinoin? What must be monitored?

A 
Dry skin (v common)
Dry mucous membranes
Nose bleeds
Photosensitive 
Teratogenic 
Hepatotoxic - monitor LFTs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is impetigo? How would you treat it?

A

Vesicular pustular lesion on the face usually
With honey coloured crusting.

Fusidic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What distinguishes acne vulgaris from acne rosacea?

A

Erythematous facial rash and telangectasia that is triggered by stress, alcohol etc.
May have eye signs including blepharitis or keratitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which organisms are most commonly associated with impetigo?

A

Staph aureus and strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which skin rashes can arise following herpes simplex virus?

A

Erythema multiforma

Eczema herpeticum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What skin rashes can arise following strep infection (strep threat or impetigo etc) ?

A

Guttate psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What organism is normally associated with warts?

A

Hpv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the pathology of shingles? What organism is associated with it?

A

Herpes zoster virus lies dormant in the dorsal root ganglion of a particular nerve following chickenpox infection.

Reactivated at a time of immune weakness.
Rash in a single dermatome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the management of shingles depending on severity.

A

Just vesicular rash in one dermatome - oral aciclovir to prevent post hermetic neuralgia.
Hutchinson’s sign (nose) or eye signs - secondary referral to ophthalmology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are molloscum contagiosum? Who gets them?

A

Smaill white or pink papules with a central punctum..

Spread easily by close contact so children and sexually active people like students.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What organism is associated with fungal skin infections?

A

Trichphyton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What skin rash develops following a generic viral urti?

A

Pityriasis rosea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe the management of tinea pedis/corporis/capitals/ungium.
Topical ketoconazole. | Except ungium - nail - oral terbinafine. Be careful because hepatotoxic.
26
Describe the appearance of pityriasis versicolor. How is it treated?
Slows of pigment, less dramatic than vitiligo. Anti fungal cream.
27
What organism is associated with pityriasis versicolor?
Malssezia
28
Describe the appearance of pityriasis rosea. How is treated?
Herald patch following viral infection. Xmas tress macular red rash. Watch and wait.
29
Describe the appearance of vitiligo. How is it treateD?
Well defined loss of pigment. Grows. Fhx. Autoimmune. So can try topical steroids or tacrolimus.
30
What are the main causes of erythema nodosum?
IBD Sarcoidosis Strep Penicillin w
31
What are the main causes of pyoderma gangrenosum?
IBD Rheumatoid arthritis Wegener's - granulomatosis w/ polyangitis
32
What are the main causes of acanthosis nigricans?
``` Diabetes ObeSity Pcos Cushings Thyroid GI malignancy ```
33
Describe the classic rash of Lyme disease?
Tick bite leading to Bulls eye or target rash leading to erythema migrans
34
Describe the classic rash of scabies.
Tiny papules. Very itchy. Especially in the skin folds.
35
Name 5 drugs and 4 other things that can exacerbate psoriasis.
``` B blockers NSAIDs ACE Lithium Infliximab ``` Trauma Alcohol Withdrawal of steroids Stress
36
Describe the treatment ladder for psoriasis.
1. Topical steroid and vitamin d analogue OD. 2. Increase vitamin d to bd 3. Increase steroid to bd and consider coal tar. 4. Dithranol reduces cell division. Stains skint yellow.
37
Describe the treatment ladder for eczema.
1. Emollient bd. 2. Topical steroid for flare. 3. Anti histamine for itch or topical tacrolimus
38
Describe the pattern of atopical eczema in infants and older children.
Infant - face, neck, scalp and extensor surfaces | Older - flexor surfaces.
39
What is eczema herpeticum ? Who is at risk?
Dangerous rash - monomorphic red blisters . Itchy, may bleed. People with eczema following herpes simplex infection.
40
What is the treatment for eczema herpeticum ?
IV aciclovir
41
What is the most likely diagnosis for a waxy/greasy red rash on face or scalp?
Seborrhoeic dermatitis
42
What rash is a common first presentation of hiv?
Seborrhoeic dermatitis
43
What is the treatment for seborrhoeic dermatitis?
1. Ketoconazole cream | 2. Topical steroid
44
Describe the two types of pemphigus.
Both autoimmune painful blistering disorders Pemphigus vulgaris Common includes mouth, common in ashkinazy Jews. ``` Bullous pemphigoid (avoid) Rare, avoids mouth ```
45
How is pemphigus treated?
Oral steroid and referral to secondary care
46
Describe the two types of lichen disease.
Lichen planus - papula polygonal pruritic rash Lichen sclerosus - rash on vulva of elderly
47
Give 3 risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma.
Pre cancerous changes eg - Actinic keratosis, Bowens disease Sun exposure Smoking
48
Which potential skin cancers should be referred on a 2 week wait?
Squamous cell Malignant melanoma (Not basal cell)
49
Describe the features of squamous cell carcinoma
``` Painful Ulceration Fast growing Can have keratin horn Located in places with sun exposure ```
50
Describe the features of malignant melanoma
Primary - change in colour, size or shape Secondary - bigger than 6mm diameter Inflammation Discharge Irregular border
51
What factor determines the prognosis of a malignant melanoma?
Depth (Breslow score)
52
Describe the appearance of a seborrhoeic keratosis
Large benign stuck onlooking with keratin plugs. Affects elderly Looks like a malignant melanoma except they have a velvety matte texture not a smooth surface.
53
Describe the features of basal cell carcinomas
Slow growing Over years Nodular with a crater in the middle and telangectasia Rolled edge
54
Describe the symptoms of a migraine
Aura- parasthesia, photophobia, visual disturbance (blind spots, shimmering lights, zig zags) ``` Nausea and vomiting Relieved in a dark room, sleep Various triggers - stress, foods, alcohol Lasts up to 3 days ± unilateral headache ```
55
What differentiates a migraine from a tension headache?
Migraine - Aura, unilateral pain, relieved by the dark Tension - Stress must be the trigger. Tight band of bilateral pain
56
What is the differential for a headache?
``` Migraine Tension headache Cluster headache Depression Drug induced - including rebound after painkillers Haemorrhage Tumour Giant cell arteritis ```
57
What are the cardinal signs of giant cell arteritis?
Jaw claudication Swollen temporal arteries Raised ESR
58
What are the cardinal signs of meningitis?
``` Neck stiffness Photophobia Fever Cold extremities (Headache) (Non blanching rash) ```
59
How is a brain tumour most likely to present?
Secondary met UMN signs Epilepsy ±Frontal headache
60
What does a sudden onset thunderclap headache indicate?
Sub arachnoid haemorrhage | Venous sinus thrombosis
61
What is the treatment for giant cell arteritis?
Immediate high dose oral prednisolone to prevent blindness
62
What are the red flag symptoms of a sore throat?
Signs of obstruction eg epiglottitis or tonsillar abcess (quinsy) ``` Hoarse voice Dysphagia Drooling, Stridor Respiratory distress ```
63
Describe the scoring system for tonsillitis
Centor 1. Exudate 2. Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy 3. Fever 4. Absent cough 3/4 Treat with abx
64
Which URTIs would you consider abx for?
Otitis media with otorrhoea Centor positive tonsillitis Sinusitis with purulent discharge Epiglottitis
65
Why is epiglottitis an emergency? What is the treatment?
Blocks the airway | IV cephtriaxone like meningitis
66
What is the recommended treatment for an URTI when you are not considering abx?
Fluids Saline drops for blocked nose Prop up children to sleep Paracetamol and ibuprofen alternate 4 hours Consider antihistamine at night to dry out mucous Consider beconase spray for nasal inflammation/ blocked nose Do not recommend decongestants due to rebound congestion. (rhinitis medicamentosa)
67
What is rhinitis medicamentosa?
Rebound nasal congestion after 5-7 days of constant use of decongestion medication eg sudafed (phenylephrine)
68
Which types of rashes might be described as violaceous?
Pyoderma gangrenosum | Dermatomyositis

Junior blocks (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions