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Perio II > Perio Midterm 2023 > Flashcards

Perio Midterm 2023 Flashcards

1
Q

SRP in pockets greater than 6mm result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

32%

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2
Q

OFD in pockets greater than 6mm result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

50%

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3
Q

SRP in pockets 4-6mm can result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

43%

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4
Q

OFD in pockets 4-6mm can result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

76%

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5
Q

SRP in pockets 1-3mm can result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

86%

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6
Q

OFD in pockets 1-3mm can result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

86%

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7
Q

The CEJ should be approximately ____ from the alveolar crest

A

2 mm

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8
Q

The gingival margin should be _____ coronal to the CEJ (covering the anatomic crown)

A

0.5 - 2 mm

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9
Q

Stages of normal tooth eruption according to crown lengthening lecture:

A

2 or 4?????

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10
Q

Minimum healing time before taking impressions after crown lengthening is ____ weeks

A

6 weeks

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11
Q

T/F: In pockets greater than 5mm, plaque and calculus is left 85% of the time

A

True

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12
Q

Contraindications for a bone graft include:

A

Poor oral hygiene/plaque control

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13
Q

Nonsurgical-treated areas have a greater percentage of defects that convert from nondiseased to diseased for:

A

Single & multi-rooted teeth

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14
Q

What do you use the end-cutting bur for?

A

Ostectomy

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15
Q

What do you use the large round bur (#6 or #8) for?

A

Osteoplasty

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16
Q

What files are used interproximally?

A

9/10 Schluger

#3S/#4S Sugarman

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17
Q

What is the BEST graft material?

A

Autograft???

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18
Q

What incidence do palatal exostosis occur?

A

40% incidence

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19
Q

Why might flap necrosis occur?

A

Palatal flap too thin

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20
Q

The union of connective tissue with root surface that has been deprived of its original attachment apparatus:

A

New attachment

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21
Q

The healing of a wound that does not fully restore the architecture in function (healing of long junctional epithelium):

A

Repair

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22
Q

The reunion of connective tissue with root surface on which viable PDL tissue is present (biologic width regrowing when flap reattached):

A

Reattachment

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23
Q

Most common type of flap:

A

Mucoperiosteal (full thickness)

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24
Q

Split thickness flap leave:

A

periosteum on bone

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25
Q

What type of defect is most common?

A

Crater

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26
Q

What is the therapeutic goal of periodontal therapy?

A

functional, comfortable, healthy dentition & stable probing

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27
Q

T/F: Periodontal osseous defects are classified by bone missing

A

False- defects are classified by bone remaining

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28
Q

How many incisons does a palatal flap have?

A

4

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29
Q

Gingivectomy is mot often done for:

A

Elimination of gingival enlargement

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30
Q

Position of flap margin on osseous/alveolar crest leads to:

A

pocket elimination

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31
Q

Keeping epithelium out:

A

Guided tissue regeneration

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32
Q

What would you perform to get interproximal bone loss/defects but no facial defects?

A

Anterior curtain

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33
Q

What is the histological difference of palatal flaps?

A

Thick connective tissue

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34
Q

What is the second incision of palatal flap?

A

Undermine

(Trace, undermine, contact bone, intrasulcular)

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35
Q

Where does healing potential come from?

A

PDL

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36
Q

Contributing anatomy to perio defect in retromolar pad areas except:

A

mylohyoid ridge

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37
Q

Disadvantages of surgical approach to tuberosity area:

A

???

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38
Q

Distal wedge:

A

Preserves keratinized tissue

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39
Q

You have a patient with lots of bleeding and subgingival calculus. You are doing scaling in the presence of inflammation. What do you do?

A

Use local anesthetic per quadrant

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40
Q

Ostectomy is:

A

Removal of alveolar bone proper

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41
Q

T/F: The space between the roots matters (2.5mm)

A

True

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42
Q

Hemiseptum =

A

1 wall

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43
Q

True intrabony =

A

3 wall

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44
Q

Three things you need before crown lengthening include:

A
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45
Q

How do you know where to start for crown lengthening?

A

Bone sounding

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46
Q

Autograft:

A

Using ones own bone for boen graft

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47
Q

When you can see a window in the bone, this is called:

A

Fenestration

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48
Q

Type of defect that has a most successful outcome to surgery:

A

3-wall defect

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49
Q

Picture of intrammarow penetration - the purpose of this is to:

A

increase blood flow

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50
Q

The CEJ should be ____ mm from the osseous crest

A

2mm

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51
Q

Which of the following is not a distal wedge flap

A

Trapezoidal

52
Q

Factors affecting retromolar area: (4)

A
  1. external oblique ridge
  2. lingual bony ridge
  3. ascending ramus proximity to terminal tooth
  4. impacted third molars
53
Q

Factors affecting tuberosity area: (3)

A
  1. palatal exostosis
  2. buccal exostosis
  3. impacted third molars
54
Q

Distal wedge advantages/indications:

A
  1. management of pockets and keratinized tissue
  2. access to osseous defects
  3. access for exostosis removal
  4. less post-op discomfort due to primary closure
55
Q

Types of distal wedge flaps:

A
  1. square
  2. triangular
  3. O & R (trap door)
56
Q

Excessive force on a normal system is:

A

Primary occlusal trauma

57
Q

Which side of trauma from occlusion is associated with resorption of the alveolar bone proper?

A

Compression

58
Q

Trauma from occlusion in the absence of inflammation does NOT cause:

A
  1. gingivitis
  2. periodontitis
  3. pocket formation
  4. mucogingival defects
59
Q

Periodontitis superimposed with occlusal trauma produces an ____ in bone loss

A

increase

60
Q

Which of the following is considered pathologic?

A

Traumatic occlusion

61
Q

What is associated with an increased density in the lamina dura?

A

Hyperfunction

62
Q

What is associated with capillary hemorrhage into the PDL spaces?

A

Traumatic occlusion

63
Q

The principle of excluding epithelium and connective tissue from surgical site is termed:

A

Guided tissue regeneration

64
Q

What does pocket elimination do?

A
  1. creates shallow sulci
  2. ease of maintenance by therapist & patient
65
Q

The most common type of flap design:

A

mucoperiosteal (full thickness flap)

66
Q

Histologic difference that separates te palatal flap from other flaps:

A

Thickness of connective tissue

67
Q

The second incision of a palatal flap is also known as:

A

Undermining

68
Q

The third incision of a palatal flap is also known as:

A

contact with bone

69
Q

All of the following are factors exaggerating the periodontal bony lesion n the retromolar area except:

a) external oblique ridge
b) mylohoid ridge
c) promiximity of ascending ramus to the terminal tooth
d) impacted third molars

A

b

70
Q

Disadvantages of surgical approach to tuberosity area include:

A
  1. presence of exostosis on the palatal aspect
  2. presence of exostosis on the buccal aspect
  3. presence of impacted third molars
71
Q

Disadvantages of surgical approach to the tuberosity area include:

A
  1. can’t gain access to osseous defects
  2. incisions end in mucosa
  3. extremely broad wound
  4. exposed exostosis
72
Q

Know the advantages/indications of the distal wedge flap procedure:

A
  1. management of pockets and keratinized tissue
  2. access to osseous defects
  3. access for exostosis removal
  4. less post-op discomfort due to primary closure
73
Q

Lit the contraindications fo a distal wedge flap:

A
  1. flat palate
  2. limited distal space
  3. when no osseous defect exists
74
Q

List the types of distal wedge flaps:

A
  1. triangular
  2. linear
  3. square
75
Q

Gingivectomies are typically started with a ____ bevel

A

External

76
Q

List the contraindications of gingivectomies:

A
  1. anterior maxilla region
  2. base of pocket is apical to MG junction without attached tissue
  3. infrabony defects
77
Q

T/F: you can perform a gingivectomy for the exposure of interrupted teeth

A

True

78
Q

The modified widman flap requires:

A

3 separate incisions

79
Q

Purpose of the modified widman flap:

A

to allow access to root surfaces

80
Q

Which type of flap is used in the maxillary anterior region where there are interproximal defects but not facial defects?

A

anterior curtain

81
Q
A
82
Q

Hemiseptum is another name for which type of defect?

A

1 wall

83
Q

Which is the most common osseous defect:

A

2 wall (crater defect)

84
Q

Which is a true intrabony defect?

A

3 wall

85
Q

Which type of defect has the greatest predictability of success:

A

3 wall

86
Q

Interdental crestal bone located APICAL to the level of the radicular bone is termed:

A

Negative architecture

87
Q

Which of the following is NOT a determinant of gingival contour?

A

Bone

(interdental space, position of tooth in arch & root/crown shape are all determinants of gingival contours)

88
Q

Contraindications of osseous surgery include:

A
  1. 3-walled defects
  2. maxillary anteriors
  3. isolated deep defects

(Ledges and tori are NOT a contraindication of osseous surgery)

89
Q

Which of the following materials is osteoconductive?

A

Freeze dry bone allograft

90
Q

Vertical defects occur when the distance between the roots of the teeth are greater than:

A

2.5 mm

91
Q

Which of the following does NOT have an effect on bone grafts?

A

Use of antibiotics

(intrammarow penetrations, endo, smoking do have an effect on bone grafts)

92
Q

PRP is used to induced the formation of:

A

Platelet-derived growth factors

93
Q

Attachment loss =

A

Probing depth + GM (enlargment)

94
Q

Gingival enlargement is a ____ value

A

negative

95
Q

Gingival recession is a _____ value

A

positive

96
Q

Trauma from occlusion does NOT cause:

A

recession

97
Q

Aggressive periodontitis is now termed:

A

Periodontitis

98
Q

Studies show that single rooted teeth are better than molars for:

A

Both surgical & non-surgical perio therapy

99
Q

Gingivectomies are performed to eliminate:

A
  1. gingival enlargements
  2. SUPRAbony pockets
100
Q

Primary goal of periodontal surgical procedures is:

A

ACCESS

101
Q

The only advantage of a gingivectomy is:

A

Easier & quicker

(cannot gain access to osseous defects, broad wound may be created, and incision often ends in mucosa are all disadvantages)

102
Q

-flat palate
-limited distal space
-when no osseous defect is present

These are all contraindications of:

A

Distal wedge

103
Q

What is both an INFRAbony and INTRAbony defect?

A

3 wall defect

104
Q

Give an example of an indication for osseous surgery:

A

Osseous ledges & tori

105
Q

Root sensitivity is a disadvantage of:

A

osseous surgery

106
Q

If placement of flap margin is done at the alveolar crest, the goal is:

A

elimination of pocket depth

107
Q

What is a contraindication for osseous grafting?

A

Poor plaque control

108
Q

A graft with 25% hydroxyapatite and 75% freeze dried bone is an:

A

composite graft

109
Q

What is a disadvantage of an osseous graft?

A

Expensive

110
Q

T/F: Osseous surgery success is defect dependent

A

True

111
Q

Residual calculus is often found at:

A

CEJ & line angles

112
Q

If a patient has #1 missing and defect on #2 what is the best choice of flap?

A

Distal triangular wedge

113
Q

Where does the incision start for a palatal flap?

A

2/3 probing depth

114
Q

An ideal bone graft releases:

A

BMP slowly to form bone

115
Q

Trauma from occlusion in the absence of inflammation may be responsible for causing:

A

Bone density loss

116
Q

The main tissue that guided tissue regeneration excludes is:

A

epithelium

117
Q

Open flap curettage uses a ____ bevel incision

A

Intrasulcular- modified widman, palatal flap

118
Q

Which of the following will NOT increase the width of keratinized tissue?

A

Modified widman flap

119
Q

Crown lengthening usually only requires:

A

OstECTOMY on the FACIAL

120
Q

The second step in the healing sequence of a bone graft is:

A

Revascularization

121
Q

Free gingival grafts will end up:

A

Revascularizing with underlying CT

122
Q

The coding to determine the type of tissue you obtain from a graft is in the:

A

CT

123
Q

Epithelium gets its blood supply and nutrients from:

A

underlying CT

124
Q

What is hard to accomplish with a bone augmention?

A

Bone height

125
Q
A

Perio II (4 decks)

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