Perio Midterm 2023 Flashcards

1
Q

SRP in pockets greater than 6mm result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

32%

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2
Q

OFD in pockets greater than 6mm result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

50%

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3
Q

SRP in pockets 4-6mm can result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

43%

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4
Q

OFD in pockets 4-6mm can result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

76%

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5
Q

SRP in pockets 1-3mm can result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

86%

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6
Q

OFD in pockets 1-3mm can result in what percentage of plaque & calculus reduction?

A

86%

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7
Q

The CEJ should be approximately ____ from the alveolar crest

A

2 mm

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8
Q

The gingival margin should be _____ coronal to the CEJ (covering the anatomic crown)

A

0.5 - 2 mm

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9
Q

Stages of normal tooth eruption according to crown lengthening lecture:

A

2 or 4?????

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10
Q

Minimum healing time before taking impressions after crown lengthening is ____ weeks

A

6 weeks

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11
Q

T/F: In pockets greater than 5mm, plaque and calculus is left 85% of the time

A

True

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12
Q

Contraindications for a bone graft include:

A

Poor oral hygiene/plaque control

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13
Q

Nonsurgical-treated areas have a greater percentage of defects that convert from nondiseased to diseased for:

A

Single & multi-rooted teeth

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14
Q

What do you use the end-cutting bur for?

A

Ostectomy

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15
Q

What do you use the large round bur (#6 or #8) for?

A

Osteoplasty

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16
Q

What files are used interproximally?

A

9/10 Schluger

#3S/#4S Sugarman

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17
Q

What is the BEST graft material?

A

Autograft???

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18
Q

What incidence do palatal exostosis occur?

A

40% incidence

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19
Q

Why might flap necrosis occur?

A

Palatal flap too thin

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20
Q

The union of connective tissue with root surface that has been deprived of its original attachment apparatus:

A

New attachment

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21
Q

The healing of a wound that does not fully restore the architecture in function (healing of long junctional epithelium):

A

Repair

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22
Q

The reunion of connective tissue with root surface on which viable PDL tissue is present (biologic width regrowing when flap reattached):

A

Reattachment

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23
Q

Most common type of flap:

A

Mucoperiosteal (full thickness)

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24
Q

Split thickness flap leave:

A

periosteum on bone

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25
What type of defect is most common?
Crater
26
What is the therapeutic goal of periodontal therapy?
functional, comfortable, healthy dentition & stable probing
27
T/F: Periodontal osseous defects are classified by bone missing
False- defects are classified by bone remaining
28
How many incisons does a palatal flap have?
4
29
Gingivectomy is mot often done for:
Elimination of gingival enlargement
30
Position of flap margin on osseous/alveolar crest leads to:
pocket elimination
31
Keeping epithelium out:
Guided tissue regeneration
32
What would you perform to get interproximal bone loss/defects but no facial defects?
Anterior curtain
33
What is the histological difference of palatal flaps?
Thick connective tissue
34
What is the second incision of palatal flap?
Undermine (Trace, undermine, contact bone, intrasulcular)
35
Where does healing potential come from?
PDL
36
Contributing anatomy to perio defect in retromolar pad areas except:
mylohyoid ridge
37
Disadvantages of surgical approach to tuberosity area:
???
38
Distal wedge:
Preserves keratinized tissue
39
You have a patient with lots of bleeding and subgingival calculus. You are doing scaling in the presence of inflammation. What do you do?
Use local anesthetic per quadrant
40
Ostectomy is:
Removal of alveolar bone proper
41
T/F: The space between the roots matters (2.5mm)
True
42
Hemiseptum =
1 wall
43
True intrabony =
3 wall
44
Three things you need before crown lengthening include:
45
How do you know where to start for crown lengthening?
Bone sounding
46
Autograft:
Using ones own bone for boen graft
47
When you can see a window in the bone, this is called:
Fenestration
48
Type of defect that has a most successful outcome to surgery:
3-wall defect
49
Picture of intrammarow penetration - the purpose of this is to:
increase blood flow
50
The CEJ should be ____ mm from the osseous crest
2mm
51
Which of the following is not a distal wedge flap
Trapezoidal
52
Factors affecting retromolar area: (4)
1. external oblique ridge 2. lingual bony ridge 3. ascending ramus proximity to terminal tooth 4. impacted third molars
53
Factors affecting tuberosity area: (3)
1. palatal exostosis 2. buccal exostosis 3. impacted third molars
54
Distal wedge advantages/indications:
1. management of pockets and keratinized tissue 2. access to osseous defects 3. access for exostosis removal 4. less post-op discomfort due to primary closure
55
Types of distal wedge flaps:
1. square 2. triangular 3. O & R (trap door)
56
Excessive force on a normal system is:
Primary occlusal trauma
57
Which side of trauma from occlusion is associated with resorption of the alveolar bone proper?
Compression
58
Trauma from occlusion in the absence of inflammation does NOT cause:
1. gingivitis 2. periodontitis 3. pocket formation 4. mucogingival defects
59
Periodontitis superimposed with occlusal trauma produces an ____ in bone loss
increase
60
Which of the following is considered pathologic?
Traumatic occlusion
61
What is associated with an increased density in the lamina dura?
Hyperfunction
62
What is associated with capillary hemorrhage into the PDL spaces?
Traumatic occlusion
63
The principle of excluding epithelium and connective tissue from surgical site is termed:
Guided tissue regeneration
64
What does pocket elimination do?
1. creates shallow sulci 2. ease of maintenance by therapist & patient
65
The most common type of flap design:
mucoperiosteal (full thickness flap)
66
Histologic difference that separates te palatal flap from other flaps:
Thickness of connective tissue
67
The second incision of a palatal flap is also known as:
Undermining
68
The third incision of a palatal flap is also known as:
contact with bone
69
All of the following are factors exaggerating the periodontal bony lesion n the retromolar area except: a) external oblique ridge b) mylohoid ridge c) promiximity of ascending ramus to the terminal tooth d) impacted third molars
b
70
Disadvantages of surgical approach to tuberosity area include:
1. presence of exostosis on the palatal aspect 2. presence of exostosis on the buccal aspect 3. presence of impacted third molars
71
Disadvantages of surgical approach to the tuberosity area include:
1. can't gain access to osseous defects 2. incisions end in mucosa 3. extremely broad wound 4. exposed exostosis
72
Know the advantages/indications of the distal wedge flap procedure:
1. management of pockets and keratinized tissue 2. access to osseous defects 3. access for exostosis removal 4. less post-op discomfort due to primary closure
73
Lit the contraindications fo a distal wedge flap:
1. flat palate 2. limited distal space 3. when no osseous defect exists
74
List the types of distal wedge flaps:
1. triangular 2. linear 3. square
75
Gingivectomies are typically started with a ____ bevel
External
76
List the contraindications of gingivectomies:
1. anterior maxilla region 2. base of pocket is apical to MG junction without attached tissue 3. infrabony defects
77
T/F: you can perform a gingivectomy for the exposure of interrupted teeth
True
78
The modified widman flap requires:
3 separate incisions
79
Purpose of the modified widman flap:
to allow access to root surfaces
80
Which type of flap is used in the maxillary anterior region where there are interproximal defects but not facial defects?
anterior curtain
81
82
Hemiseptum is another name for which type of defect?
1 wall
83
Which is the most common osseous defect:
2 wall (crater defect)
84
Which is a true intrabony defect?
3 wall
85
Which type of defect has the greatest predictability of success:
3 wall
86
Interdental crestal bone located APICAL to the level of the radicular bone is termed:
Negative architecture
87
Which of the following is NOT a determinant of gingival contour?
Bone (interdental space, position of tooth in arch & root/crown shape are all determinants of gingival contours)
88
Contraindications of osseous surgery include:
1. 3-walled defects 2. maxillary anteriors 3. isolated deep defects (Ledges and tori are NOT a contraindication of osseous surgery)
89
Which of the following materials is osteoconductive?
Freeze dry bone allograft
90
Vertical defects occur when the distance between the roots of the teeth are greater than:
2.5 mm
91
Which of the following does NOT have an effect on bone grafts?
Use of antibiotics (intrammarow penetrations, endo, smoking do have an effect on bone grafts)
92
PRP is used to induced the formation of:
Platelet-derived growth factors
93
Attachment loss =
Probing depth + GM (enlargment)
94
Gingival enlargement is a ____ value
negative
95
Gingival recession is a _____ value
positive
96
Trauma from occlusion does NOT cause:
recession
97
Aggressive periodontitis is now termed:
Periodontitis
98
Studies show that single rooted teeth are better than molars for:
Both surgical & non-surgical perio therapy
99
Gingivectomies are performed to eliminate:
1. gingival enlargements 2. SUPRAbony pockets
100
Primary goal of periodontal surgical procedures is:
ACCESS
101
The only advantage of a gingivectomy is:
Easier & quicker (cannot gain access to osseous defects, broad wound may be created, and incision often ends in mucosa are all disadvantages)
102
-flat palate -limited distal space -when no osseous defect is present These are all contraindications of:
Distal wedge
103
What is both an INFRAbony and INTRAbony defect?
3 wall defect
104
Give an example of an indication for osseous surgery:
Osseous ledges & tori
105
Root sensitivity is a disadvantage of:
osseous surgery
106
If placement of flap margin is done at the alveolar crest, the goal is:
elimination of pocket depth
107
What is a contraindication for osseous grafting?
Poor plaque control
108
A graft with 25% hydroxyapatite and 75% freeze dried bone is an:
composite graft
109
What is a disadvantage of an osseous graft?
Expensive
110
T/F: Osseous surgery success is defect dependent
True
111
Residual calculus is often found at:
CEJ & line angles
112
If a patient has #1 missing and defect on #2 what is the best choice of flap?
Distal triangular wedge
113
Where does the incision start for a palatal flap?
2/3 probing depth
114
An ideal bone graft releases:
BMP slowly to form bone
115
Trauma from occlusion in the absence of inflammation may be responsible for causing:
Bone density loss
116
The main tissue that guided tissue regeneration excludes is:
epithelium
117
Open flap curettage uses a ____ bevel incision
Intrasulcular- modified widman, palatal flap
118
Which of the following will NOT increase the width of keratinized tissue?
Modified widman flap
119
Crown lengthening usually only requires:
OstECTOMY on the FACIAL
120
The second step in the healing sequence of a bone graft is:
Revascularization
121
Free gingival grafts will end up:
Revascularizing with underlying CT
122
The coding to determine the type of tissue you obtain from a graft is in the:
CT
123
Epithelium gets its blood supply and nutrients from:
underlying CT
124
What is hard to accomplish with a bone augmention?
Bone height
125