Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 2 Infectious Disease and Public Health > Perinatally acquired infections > Flashcards

Perinatally acquired infections Flashcards

1
Q

machine like murmur and cataracts - what are the ddx?

A

TORCHES

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TORCHES infections

A 
toxoplasmosis 
other 
rubella 
CMV 
herpes / hepatitis 
syphilis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

cats should point to what congenital infection risk?

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is toxoplasmosis gondii acquired?

A
  • cat feces
  • undercooked meat
  • uncooked eggs
  • unpasteurized milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is risk of toxoplasmosis transmission affected by gestational age? severity of disease?

A
  • risk increases as gestational age increases
  • severity of disease decreases as gestational age increases (if a mother gets toxo first trimester, the severity will be worse)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

vertical transmission for toxoplasmosis is most likely in which trimester(s)?

A

2nd and 3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what proportion of toxoplasmosis babies have CNS symptoms?

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the most common neuro symptom with toxoplasmosis infection?

A

chorioretinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

chorioretinitis is most likely associated with what infection?

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the CNS symptoms of toxoplasmosis?

A
  • hydrocephalus
  • chorioretinitis
  • intracranial calcifications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • hydrocephalus
  • chorioretinitis
  • intracranial calcifications

which infection?

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

is congenital toxoplasmosis infection usually symptomatic or asymptomatic?

A

asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

definition: chorioretinitis

A
  • inflammation of the posterior portion of the uveal tract and retina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the uveal tract?

A

iris, ciliary body, choroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where are the calcifications located in toxplasmosis?

A

caudate nucleus, choroid plexus, meninges, subependyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which calcifications are usually periventricular?

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

diagnosing criteria for toxoplasmosis

A
  • serum IgM titers or persistent IgM titers
  • ophthamology exam
  • neuro exam
  • head CT
  • LP for toxo PCR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which drugs are used for toxoplasmosis for first 21 weeks of gestation?

A

spiramycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which drugs are used for toxoplasmosis confirmed after 18th week of gestation or few remaining weeks of gestation?

A
  • pyrimethamine
  • sulfadiazine
  • leucovorin
  • prednisone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the toxoplasmosis outcomes?

A
  • mental retardation
  • seizures
  • cerebral palsy / spasticity
  • deafness
21
Q

rubella has what type of genome? which familiy?

A

RNA, togaviridae

22
Q

how is rubella spread?

A

respiratory droplets

23
Q

what is the most common vaccine preventable cause of birth anomalies in the world?

A

congenital rubella syndrome

24
Q

CRS infection in fetuses shows what type of damage / which organs?

A

cellular damage and non-inflammatory necrosis of large organs:

EYES
HEART
BRAIN
EARS

25
Q

what is the most common isolated sequela in CRS?

A

hearing loss

26
Q

what is the classic triad of CRS?

A

deafness
cataracts
congenital heart disease

27
Q

definition: cataracts

A
  • clouding of the lens

- deposition of protein in the lens

28
Q

when is the only time a diagnosis of rubella can be made?

how is it made?

A

first year of life

  • culture of nasopharyngeal swab
  • serum IgM titers
  • rise in IgM titers over 2-3 weeks
  • rtPCR
29
Q

does rubella have a treatment?

A

no - only supportive care

30
Q

what type of genome is CMV? which family?

A

DNA, herpes virus

31
Q

what is the most common congenital infection in developed countries?

A

CMV

32
Q

a jaundiced baby should make you think of what congenital infection?

A

CMV

33
Q

the worst sequelae for CMV occur if the mother is infected in what trimester?

A

1st

34
Q

what are the three most common symptoms of CMV in infected babies?

A
  • petechiae / ecchymosis
  • jaundice at birth or within a few HOURS (day 1)
  • hepatosplenomegaly
35
Q

calcifications seen in CMV have what pattern?

A

periventricular

36
Q

how is CMV diagnosis made?

A
  • urine CMV culture
  • serum IgM titers
  • head CT for periventricular calcifications
37
Q

what is the treatment for CMV?

A

gancyclovir can be used in life threatening situations

38
Q

what is the leading cause of childhood sensorineural hearing loss in developed countries?

A

congenital CMV

39
Q

how can congenital HSV infection manifest?

what can these symptoms mimic?

when do initial symptoms occur?

A
  • disseminated disease (50%)
  • skin symptoms
  • liver and lungs

almost indistinguishable from neonatal sepsis from bacteria or enterovirus

occur between birth and first 4 weeks

40
Q

how does CNS disease present in congenital HSV?

A
  • irritability
  • lethargy
  • poor feeding
  • tremulousness
  • seizures

2nd or 3rd week of life

41
Q

diagnosis for HSV

A
  • culture for PCR (vesicle fluid and/or CSF)
  • Tzanck smear (not accurate)
  • CBC, LFTs
42
Q

what is the treatment for congenital HSV?

A

IV acyclovir x 14-21 days

43
Q

pregnant mothers with Hep B are given what treatment?

A

give Ig and Hep B vaccine

44
Q

what are the EARLY symptoms for congenital syphilis?

A
  • mucocutaneous lesions, lymphadenopathy, rash
  • metaphyseal drystrophy
  • osteochondritis / periostitis
  • snuffles (hemorrhagic rhinitis)
45
Q

what are LATE symptoms for congenital syphilis?

A
  • hutchison teeth
  • sabre shins
  • deafness, MR
  • frontal bossing, saddle nose
46
Q

risk of infection for infant born to HIV seropositive mother without treatment is what %?

A

25-30%

47
Q

should HIV positive mothers breast feed?

A

NO

48
Q

93% of infected neonates will be HIV positive by what age?

A

2 weeks

Year 2 Infectious Disease and Public Health (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions