Perinatal Care Flashcards
1
Q
What is the definition of labor?
A
The clinical evaluation of labor is essentially a process of serially estimating the likelihood of a safe vaginal delivery.
2
Q
What are the characteristics of the latent phase of labor for primiparous and multiparous women?
A
Primiparous: < 20 hours; Multiparous: < 12 hours.
3
Q
What is the average cervical dilation rate during the active phase of labor?
A
1.5 cm/h.
4
Q
What are the three stages of labor?
A
1st Stage: Onset of Labor to Full Dilatation; 2nd Stage: Full Dilatation to Delivery of Infant; 3rd Stage: Delivery of Infant to Delivery of Placenta.
5
Q
What is the duration of the 1st stage of labor for nulliparous women?
A
16-18 hours.
6
Q
What is the definition of induced labor?
A
The stimulation of uterine contractions using pharmacologic methods or mechanical methods
7
Q
What are the three ‘P’s in the evaluation of labor?
A
- Passenger = Fetus
- Passageway = Pelvis
- Power = Contractions.
8
Q
What does cervical funneling represent?
A
Dilatation of the internal portion of the cervical canal and reduction of cervical length.
in other words, cervical dilation is occurring from the inside out rather than outside in
increased risk for pre-term delivery
9
Q
What is the Bishop’s Score?
A
A scoring system to evaluate the cervix’s readiness for labor induction.
10
Q
What is indicated by a Bishop’s Score of ≥8?
A
Chances of having a vaginal delivery are good and the cervix is said to be favorable or ‘ripe’ for induction.
11
Q
What are the 7 cardinal movements of labor?
A
- Engagement
- Descent
- Flexion
- Internal Rotation
- Extension
- External Rotation
- Expulsion.
12
Q
What is the difference between mediolateral and midline episiotomies?
A
Mediolateral: ↑ bleeding, ↑ pain, ↓ 3rd & 4th degree lacerations; Midline: ↓ bleeding, ↓ pain, ↑ 3rd & 4th degree lacerations.
13
Q
What does a 1° laceration involve?
A
Skin of perineum and vaginal mucosa but not underlying fascia and muscle.
14
Q
What does a 2° laceration involve?
A
Skin of perineum, vaginal mucosa, fascia + muscles of perineal body but not anal sphincter.
15
Q
What are the indications for a primary cesarean section?
A
- Non-reassuring fetal tracing
- Malpresentation
- Multiple gestation
- Maternal-Fetal macrosomia
- Maternal request.
16
Q
What is the difference between a vertical incision and a Pfannenstiel incision for cesarean sections?
A
- Vertical (classical): rapid delivery, superior exposure; * Pfannenstiel (low transverse): more cosmetic, stronger, less likely to dehiscence.
17
Q
What is the APGAR score range indicating good health?
A
7-10.
18
Q
What does the ‘A’ in the APGAR score stand for?
A
Activity (muscle tone).
19
Q
What is the significance of retained placenta in the 3rd stage of labor?
A
It can lead to complications such as uterine inversion or retained placenta
20
Q
Fill in the blank: The average labor curves for women with singleton term pregnancies presenting in spontaneous labor are compared from _______.
A
[1959–1966] and [2002–2008].
21
Q
What is the role of oxytocin in labor?
A
It is used as a common augmentation agent for labor.
22
Q
Delivery occurs when the cervix dilates to what?
A
4-6 cm
23
Q
The body naturally going into labor is referred to as spontaneous onset. What happens if the labor becomes protracted?
A
intervention is necessary via pharmacological agents and artificial rupture of membranes
24
Q
Define Cervical Effacement.
A
the amount of thinning w/ 0% being full thickness and 100% being thinnest
25
how is station determined?
top of the fetal head to the ischial spine; if fetus is at the level of this spine, it is considered 0 station;
negative values are assoc. w/ fetal heads at a higher level
positive values are accos. w/ fetal heads at a lower level
26
what does a bishop score <6 indicate?
cervix is not ripe enough for induction of labor
27
describe engagement?
biparietal diameter passes through the pelvic inlet
28
describe descent
fetal head descends in an OT position b/c that is the widest pelvic diameter
29
describe flexion
fetal chin touches fetal chest
remain in OT orientation
30
describe internal rotation
further descent, occiput rotates anteriorly and fetal head assumes an oblique orientation
31
describe extension
curving of the sacrum favors extension of the fetal head away from the chest
32
describe external rotation
shoulders rotate into an oblique or AP orientation
this encourages fetal head to return to its transverse position
AKA restitution
33
describe expulsion.
delivery of the anterior followed by the posterior should of the fetus
34
how is a 3rd degree laceration defined?
involves all the above plus the anal sphincter w/ sparing of the rectal mucosa
4th would be all the above plus rectal mucosa damage
35
using pitocin and cord traction for active management of the 3rd labor stage decreases risk of what?
bleeding and postpartum hemorrhage
36
what causes a uterus to be inverted?
when the placenta fails to detach from the uterine wall
37
T or F: the use of forceps to manually remove the fetus from the birthing canal causes more damage to the mother than the fetus
true
the vacuum method causes more harm to the fetus rather than the mother
38
what is arrest of descent
fetus has already started its descension down the birth canal but stops b/c the cervix dilation stops
39
define laten phase or failed induction?
when interventions does not initiate active labor
40
List out the components of the APGAR score
Activity
pulse
grimace
appearance
respirations
review slide 41 on labordelivery ppt
41
What hormones stimulate the growth and development of the breast's ability to secrete milk?
Progesterone, estrogen, placental lactogen, prolactin, cortisol, insulin
## Footnote
These hormones play crucial roles in preparing the breast for lactation.
42
What happens to progesterone and estrogen levels after delivery?
They decrease
## Footnote
This decrease allows prolactin to stimulate milk production.
43
What is the role of prolactin in lactation?
Causes milk production
## Footnote
Prolactin is released from the anterior pituitary gland.
44
What is the function of oxytocin in lactation?
Stimulates myoepithelial cells to contract and eject milk
## Footnote
Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary gland.
45
What initiates the reflex arc of lactation?
Infant suckling
## Footnote
Suckling stimulates tactile sensors in the areola, leading to the release of oxytocin.
46
What is colostrum?
First milk produced, rich in immunoglobulins
## Footnote
It has more protein and less fat than mature milk.
47
What immunoglobulin is principal in colostrum and breast milk?
Secretory IgA
## Footnote
Secretory IgA levels are highest in colostrum.
48
What is the AAP's recommendation regarding breastfeeding duration?
Exclusive breastfeeding for approximately 6 months
## Footnote
Continued breastfeeding is encouraged for as long as mutually desired by mother and infant.
49
List some advantages of breastfeeding for infants.
* Decreased incidence of otitis media
* Acute diarrheal disease
* Lower respiratory illnesses
* SIDS
* Inflammatory bowel disease
* Childhood leukemia
* Diabetes mellitus
* Obesity
* Asthma
* Atopic dermatitis
## Footnote
These benefits contribute to overall infant health.
50
List some advantages of breastfeeding for mothers.
* Lower risk of type 2 diabetes mellitus
* Breast cancer
* Ovarian cancer
* Hypertension
* Endometrial cancer
## Footnote
Breastfeeding has significant health benefits for mothers as well.
51
What conditions contraindicate breastfeeding?
* Infant has classic galactosemia
* Mother has HIV infection without ART or unsuppressed viral load
* Mother has Human T-Lymphotropic Virus I or II
* Mother using illicit drugs
* Mother with suspected or confirmed Ebola virus
## Footnote
These conditions pose significant health risks to the infant.
52
What are some temporary contraindications to breastfeeding?
* Untreated brucellosis
* Certain medications (antineoplastic, radiopharmaceuticals)
* Active HSV infection with lesions on the breast
* Monkey pox virus infection
## Footnote
These conditions require caution but may allow for feeding expressed milk.
53
What vitamin is important for blood coagulation and is low in breast milk?
Vitamin K
## Footnote
Newborns are at risk of VKDB due to low levels of Vitamin K.
54
What is the AAP recommendation for Vitamin D supplementation in infants?
400 IU/day for infants consuming less than 28 oz of formula
## Footnote
This is recommended to prevent Vitamin D deficiency.
55
What indicates successful milk transfer during breastfeeding?
Audible swallowing
## Footnote
Proper positioning and latch-on are crucial for effective milk transfer.
56
What is the role of tactile sensors in lactation?
Stimulate the release of oxytocin during suckling
## Footnote
This leads to milk ejection from the alveoli.
57
What happens to milk production after a prolonged period of no suckling?
Milk production will cease, and breasts return to prepregnancy state
## Footnote
Regular suckling is essential for maintaining lactation.
58
What is the significance of proper infant positioning during breastfeeding?
Ensures effective latch and milk transfer
## Footnote
Alignment of the infant's ear, shoulder, and hip is important.
59
When should women temporarily NOT breastfeed?
If the mother has untreated active tuberculosis (treatment for 2 weeks) or active varicella infection during specific time frames.
## Footnote
Tuberculosis: once treated for 2 weeks and no longer contagious, may resume breastfeeding. Varicella: developed between 5 days prior to delivery to 2 days following delivery.
60
What resource provides information on medication safety during breastfeeding?
LactMed
## Footnote
LactMed is a reference that gives comprehensive information on the safety of medication use while breastfeeding.
61
What are common complications of lactating mothers?
* Breast Engorgement
* Mastitis
* Breast Abscess
62
What does breast engorgement result in?
Firm and swollen breast tissue, painful and tender breasts.
## Footnote
Can occur 3-7 days after delivery or anytime there is inadequate milk drainage.
63
What can lead to dysfunctional breastfeeding during engorgement?
The infant is unable to latch effectively.
## Footnote
If not treated, it can also lead to mastitis.
64
What is the primary treatment for breast engorgement?
Frequent breastfeeding of the infant to manage symptoms and relieve distention.
65
What is lactational mastitis?
Inflammation of the breast in breastfeeding patients resulting from ductal narrowing and inadequate milk drainage.
66
What are common symptoms of lactational mastitis?
* Swollen, tender breast
* Erythema
* Fever
* Systemic symptoms like malaise and chills
67
How is lactational mastitis diagnosed?
By history and physical exam demonstrating swollen tender breast.
68
What is the recommended treatment for lactational mastitis?
* Encourage rest and adequate fluid intake
* Breast support with a properly fitting bra
* Continue breastfeeding
* Pain relief with warm/cold compresses, acetaminophen, or ibuprofen
stop using nipple shields and breast pumps
69
When should antibiotics be administered for lactational mastitis?
If there are signs of bacterial infection or if symptoms persist beyond 24-48 hours.
70
What is the course of antibiotics typically prescribed for severe mastitis?
A 10-14 day course of dicloxacillin or first generation cephalosporins.
71
What is a breast abscess?
Localized fluid collection in the breast that may require drainage and antibiotics.
72
What are the symptoms of a breast abscess?
* Fever
* Malaise
* Localized painful area of the breast
73
What is the management for a breast abscess?
Serial percutaneous needle aspiration under ultrasound guidance, antibiotics, and frequent milk removal.
74
What is the ideal nutrition for the infant?
Breast milk.
75
What are some benefits of breastfeeding for both mother and infant?
Numerous benefits, including nutritional, immunological, and psychological advantages.
76
What is essential for physicians regarding breastfeeding?
Educate patients on the benefits of breastfeeding and recognize and treat common breastfeeding problems.
77
what parts of the breast produce and store milk?
the alveoli
78
removal of what hormone allows prolactin to stimulate the production of alpha-lactablbumin?
progesterone
79
T or F: levels of IgA are highest in colostrum
true
80
how does mature milk differ from colostrum?
mature breast milk is more complex in its assortment of nutrients which includes biomacromolecules and hormones
81
what is the role of lactoferrin?
antiviral, antibacterial, and important for neonatal iron metabolism
82
levels of what vitamins are low in breast milk?
Vit. K & Vit. D
83
breastfeeding is a protective factor against what disease?
DM II
breast cancer
ovarian cancer
HTN
endometrial cancer
84
what bacteria commonly infect stagnant breast milk?
Staph A. S. epidermidis, streptococci, MRSA
85
T or F: engorgement usually presents unilaterly unlike abscess and mastitis.
false
it is the other way around
engorgement usually presents BL
86
What are transplacental pathogens?
Pathogens that can cross the placenta and infect the fetus
## Footnote
Includes viruses, bacteria, and parasites that can lead to congenital infections.
87
What is the definition of a neonate?
A newborn: from birth to ~28 days
## Footnote
Important for identifying the stage of life in which certain infections occur.
88
What is the difference between early-onset and late-onset infections in neonates?
Early-onset occurs within 5 to 7 days; late-onset occurs 7 to 10 days (up to several weeks)
## Footnote
Timing of infection can impact treatment and outcomes.
89
What does the acronym TORCHES stand for in relation to congenital infections?
Toxoplasmosis, Other (e.g., syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes Simplex Virus, Zika
## Footnote
Helps to remember common pathogens responsible for congenital infections.
90
What are common clinical manifestations of congenital infections?
* Abnormal facies
* Microcephaly
* Developmental delay
* Hepatosplenomegaly
* Intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)
* Dermatological manifestations
## Footnote
These symptoms can indicate possible congenital infections in neonates.
91
What is the mode of transmission for Toxoplasmosis?
* Ingestion of raw or undercooked meat
* Exposure to cat feces
* Contaminated soil or unwashed produce
## Footnote
Understanding transmission routes is crucial for prevention.
92
What are the maternal manifestations of Toxoplasmosis?
* Asymptomatic or non-specific symptoms
* Fatigue
* Fever
* Headache
* Malaise
* Myalgia
* Lymphadenopathy
## Footnote
Symptoms in mothers can be vague, making diagnosis challenging.
93
What is the classic triad of clinical manifestations in congenital Toxoplasmosis?
* Chorioretinitis
* Hydrocephalus
* Intracranial calcifications
## Footnote
Recognition of this triad can aid in diagnosis.
94
What are the diagnostic procedures for congenital infections?
* Serology testing for IgM and IgG
* PCR of amniotic fluid
* Biopsy for direct visualization of parasites
## Footnote
These tests help confirm infections in neonates.
95
What are the maternal manifestations of Rubella?
* Fever
* Post-auricular lymphadenopathy
* Arthralgia
* Fine rash spreading from face to trunk
## Footnote
Symptoms can help identify potential Rubella infection in pregnant women.
96
What is the classic triad of clinical manifestations in congenital Rubella?
* Cataracts
* Sensorineural Deafness
* Cardiac Defects
## Footnote
This triad is crucial for diagnosing congenital Rubella syndrome.
97
What are the clinical manifestations of Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in neonates?
* Microcephaly
* Deafness
* Intellectual Disability
* Periventricular Calcifications
* Seizures
## Footnote
These manifestations are important indicators of congenital CMV infection.
98
What are common diagnostic methods for Cytomegalovirus infection?
* Viral culture or PCR
* Serology for IgM or complement-fixation antibodies
* Histology for viral inclusion bodies
## Footnote
These methods are essential for identifying CMV in neonates.
99
What is the recommended treatment for congenital Toxoplasmosis?
Pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine and folinic acid (leucovorin)
## Footnote
Early treatment can help reduce complications in affected neonates.
100
What are the maternal manifestations of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
* Asymptomatic
* Vesicular genital lesions
* Systemic symptoms like fever and myalgia
## Footnote
Maternal symptoms can vary, affecting diagnosis and management.
101
What are neonatal manifestations of Herpes Simplex Virus?
* Localized skin, eye, and mouth lesions
* CNS findings: irritability, poor feeding
* Potential complications: encephalitis, pneumonia
## Footnote
Recognition of these symptoms is critical for prompt treatment.
102
What is the primary treatment for Herpes Simplex Virus in neonates?
Acyclovir
## Footnote
Early treatment is crucial for improving outcomes in infected infants.
103
What is the mode of transmission for Varicella (VZV)?
* Transplacental
* Intrapartum
* Direct contact with lesions during birth
## Footnote
Understanding transmission is key for prevention strategies.
104
What are the clinical manifestations of congenital Varicella Syndrome?
* Limb hypoplasia
* Cutaneous dermatomal scarring
* Ocular defects, blindness
## Footnote
These manifestations can significantly impact the quality of life.
105
What is the microbiologic feature of Syphilis?
Spirochete: Treponema pallidum
## Footnote
Identification of the pathogen is crucial for diagnosis and treatment.
106
What are the neonatal manifestations of congenital Syphilis?
* Stillbirth
* Prematurity
* Snuffles (syphilitic rhinitis)
* Maculopapular lesions
* Hepatosplenomegaly
## Footnote
Early recognition can prevent severe outcomes.
107
What is the main diagnostic method for congenital Syphilis?
Serological testing for maternal antibodies and direct detection of T. pallidum
## Footnote
Accurate diagnosis is essential for timely treatment.
108
What is nonimmune hydrops fetalis?
A condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the fetal compartments.
## Footnote
It is often asymptomatic at birth.
109
What are common symptoms of congenital syphilis that may appear by 3 months?
* Syphilitic rhinitis ('snuffles')
* Maculopapular lesions (especially on palms and soles)
* Hepatosplenomegaly + jaundice
* Generalized lymphadenopathy
* Skeletal and CSF abnormalities
110
What are later symptoms of congenital syphilis?
* Cutaneous rhagades
* Gummas
* Hutchinson teeth
* Mulberry molars
* Frontal bossing
* Saddle nose
* Short maxilla
* Interstitial keratitis
* Chorioretinitis
* Sensorineural hearing loss
* Saber shins
111
What does the RPR card test indicate in syphilis diagnosis?
* No clumping (-) indicates negative
* Clumping (+) indicates positive
112
What is the initial step in diagnosing suspected congenital syphilis after a negative RPR test?
Check FTA-ABS
113
What is Parvovirus B19 commonly known as?
'5th disease' or Erythema Infectiosum
114
What are the clinical manifestations of Parvovirus B19 in children?
* Non-specific prodrome (malaise, congestion, fever)
* 'Slapped-cheek' rash
115
What are fetal manifestations of Parvovirus B19?
* 30% risk of fetal loss
* Severe anemia
* Severe hydrops fetalis (ascites, polyhydramnios/oligohydramnios, pleural or pericardial effusions, skin edema, cardiomegaly)
116
What is the microbiologic feature of N. gonorrhoeae?
Gram (-) diplococcus that lives intracellularly in neutrophils
117
What are neonatal manifestations of gonorrhea?
* Purulent conjunctivitis
* Profuse exudate
* Swelling of eyelids
* Can lead to scarring & vision loss if untreated
118
What is the treatment for neonatal conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia?
Topical erythromycin
119
What is the primary cause of early-onset sepsis in neonates?
Vertical transmission by ascending contaminated amniotic fluid or vaginal delivery
120
What are common causal organisms of neonatal sepsis?
* Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
* Staphylococcus aureus
* E. coli
121
What is the treatment for early-onset neonatal sepsis?
Therapy directed against GBS and other gram-positive and gram-negative organisms
122
What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates?
E. coli strains with K-1 capsular polysaccharide antigen
123
What are the microbiological features of Group B Streptococcus (GBS)?
* Gram (+) cocci
* Catalase (-)
* Hemolytic pattern: beta
* Encapsulated
bacitracin resistant
124
What are maternal manifestations of Listeriosis?
* Mild, flu-like illness
* Amnionitis
* Septicemia
* Spontaneous abortion
125
What are the neonatal manifestations of Listeriosis?
* Early-onset disease: pneumonia, shock, salmon-colored dermal papules
* Late-onset disease: meningitis
126
What is Zika virus classified as?
A single-stranded RNA flavivirus
127
What are the maternal manifestations of Zika virus?
* Acute onset low-grade fever
* Maculopapular rash
* Arthralgia
* Non-purulent conjunctivitis
128
What are the congenital manifestations of Zika virus?
* Microcephaly
* Craniofacial disproportion
* Neurologic changes
* Ocular abnormalities
* Sensorineural hearing loss
129
What is the treatment for Zika virus?
Supportive
130
What is the likely organism responsible for a 2-week-old infant with seizures and edema in the right temporal lobe?
Herpes simplex virus
131
What organism is likely responsible for a 1-month-old infant with jaundice and calcifications along the ventricular margin?
Toxoplasma gondii
132
What are common pathogens causing conjunctivitis in newborns?
* Staphylococcus
* Streptococcus
* Chlamydia
* Gonococci
* Certain viruses
133
What are common pathogens causing otitis media in newborns?
* E. coli
* S. aureus
* Haemophilus
* Streptococcus pneumoniae
134
What condition is indicated by thrombocytopenia and hepatosplenomegaly in an infant?
Possible congenital infection
135
Which imaging result is associated with the infant's condition?
Calcifications along the ventricular margin
136
What is a possible source of infection for the infant?
A. Cat feces, B. Ingestion of undercooked meat, C. Genital lesions, D. Mosquitoes, E. Daycare center
137
What virus is associated with microcephaly?
Zika virus
138
Which organism is the most common cause of congenital infection?
CMV (Cytomegalovirus)
139
What are the effects of Toxoplasmosis on the fetus?
Hydrocephalus, intracranial calcification, chorioretinitis
140
What congenital defects are associated with Rubella?
Cardiac defects, sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts
141
What symptoms are typical of congenital CMV infection?
Jaundice, petechiae, microcephaly
142
Which virus is less common but can cause encephalitis with high mortality?
HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus)
143
What is a common symptom of congenital Zika virus infection?
Microcephaly
144
Fill in the blank: Congenital infection by _______ can cause skin lesions, rhinorrhea, and bone damage.
Syphilis
145
What is the effect of Parvovirus B19 in utero?
Slapped cheek rash, diffuse edema (hydrops fetalis)
146
What are the effects of Listeria monocytogenes infection in infants?
Sepsis, meningitis
147
What are the potential outcomes of infections by Group B Streptococcus in newborns?
Sepsis, pneumonia, meningitis
148
True or False: Chlamydia trachomatis can cause pneumonia and inclusion conjunctivitis in infants.
True
149
What is the consequence of infection by Neisseria gonorrhoeae in newborns?
Ophthalmia neonatorum (conjunctivitis)
150
List the viruses that can cause persistent postnatal infection.
* CMV
* HIV
* Rubella
* VZV
* Coxsackievirus B
* Mumps
151
True or False: Zika virus only causes microcephaly.
False
152
List out the TORCHES mnemonic.
T - Toxoplasmosis
O - other (GBS, listeria, candida, etc.)
R - Rubella
C - CMV & chicken pox
H - HSV
E - enteroviruses
S - syphilis
153
toxoplasmosis oocysts are found where?
cat GI tract
154
When do trophozoites form?
produced only after the oocysts are ingested by people
155
what are bradyzoites?
latent stage
cyst form in tissue that is transmitted to humans by food
156
157
T or F: rubella is a dsDNA virus.
false
it is enveloped ss+ linear RNA
158
the blueberry muffin rash is assoc. w/ what congenital infection?
rubella
159
what kind of heart defects are most commonly assoc. w/ rubella?
patent ductus arteriosus
pulmonary artery hypoplasia
septal defects
160
what is the genome of CMV?
enveloped ds linear DNA
much like herpes-type virus
161
what is the most common cause of non-hereditary sensorineural hearing loss of the newborn?
CMV
162
what can be seen on a brain CT scan of a neonate w/ CMV?
periventricular calcifications
163
list the maternal manifestations of CMV?
pneumonia
retinitis
linear esophagitis
164
what anti-viral agents are commonly used to treat CMV?
ganciclovir/valganciclovir
165
list the clinical manifestations of primary maternal syphilis.
chancre
166
list the clinical manifestations of secondary maternal syphilis.
disseminated rash, condylomata lata, fever
167
list the clinical manifestations of tertiary maternal syphilis.
gummas, aoritis, tabes dorsalis, neurosyphilis, argyll robertson pupil
168
a + cardiolipin test indicates what
syphilis
169
what is the ABxs for syphilis?
1st line: G-penicillin
2nd line: doxycycline
170
T or F:parvovirus B19 is a ds linear enveloped DNA
false
ssDNA linear
non-enveloped
171
describe the clinical manifestations of erythema Infectiosum or 5th disease.
self-limited
non-specific prodrome of malaise, congestion, fever
slapped-cheek rash
172
parvovirus B19 can lead to what in-utero complication?
hydrops fetalis as a result of destruction of Fetal RBCs which causes aplastic crisis
173
list the fetal manifestations of parvovirus B19.
cardiomegaly and CHF
ascites
aplastic anemia
poly or oligo hydramnios
174
gonorrhea can be detected on what types of agar?
chocolate and Thayer Martin
175
T or F: there is no vaccine for N. gonorrhoeae b/c it exhibits an antigenic variation via pilus protein
true
176
List the most common clinical manifestations of neonatal sepsis.
hyperthermia
RDS
tachycardia
177
T or F: late-onset sepsis is assoc. w/ both vertical and horizontal transmission
true
178
Describe the physiologic characteristics of listeria monocytogenes.
intracellular microbe
motility
torcket tails
beta-hemolytic
catalase +
gram + bacillus
listeriolysin O bacterial toxin- allows for invasion of phagosome
179
what ABxs are used for listeriosis?
ampicillin or penicillin combined w/ gentamicin
180
how is the zika virus transmitted?
blood-borne pathogen
mosquito carrier - aedes aegypti
