Peri and neonatal Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What can opioid analgesics use during labour do?

A

May suppress respiration at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Effect of epidural anaesthesia during labour?

A

Can cause maternal pyrexia which is often difficult to differentiate from fever caused by infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What can oxytocin and prostaglandin use during labour do?

A

Can cause hyperstimulation of the uterus leading to fetal hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is transient tachypnoea of the new born and when can it occur?

A

Rapid, laboured breathing for several hours after birth by c-section
Because lungs weren’t squeezed during delivery therefore fluid was not squeezed out and there is still fluid in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does Apgar score measure?

A

Used to measure babys condition 1 and 5 mins after delivery and then every 5 mins afterwards if condition remains poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What measurements are included in Apgar score?

A
Heart Rate  >100 bpm = good
Respiratory effort 
Muscle tone (flexion good)
Reflex irritability (grimace (1) or cry (2))
Colour (pink good)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does passage of meconium become more common

A

Greater the infants gestational age, especially post-term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can happen with passage of meconium?

A

If infants become acidotic from aspyhxia and try to breathe in utero then they can inhale thick meconium and develop meconium aspiration syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Risk with aspiration of newborn and management

A

Can stimulate reflex bradycardia and cause newborn to be bradycardic
If regular breathing starts then nothing, if doesn’t - aspiration and if bradycardic then Post-pressure ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Way to manage respiratory depression following maternal opiate use

A

Give Naloxone if respiration continues to be depressed following initial resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Phases of neonatal resus

A
Airway opening maneouvres
Mask ventilation 
Two-person airway control 
Tracheal intubation 
Reintubate
Chest compressions if HR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Resus of pre-term infants

A

Placed in a plastic bag or wrapped in plastic sheeting with exception of face
Use air/oxygen mixer to prevent excessive tissue oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is erythema toxicum?

A

Neonatal urticaria
A common rash appearing at 2-3 days of age
Consisting of white pinpoint papules at the centre of an erythematous base
Fluid contains eosinophils
Mostly on the trunk - come and go at different sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Mongolian blue spots

A

Blue/black macular discolouration at base of the spine and on buttocks
Usually but not invariably in Afro-Caribbean or Asian infants
Fade slowly over first few years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is port-wine stain

A

Naevus flammeus
Due to vascular malformation of capillaries in dermis
Present from birth and usually grows with the infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What can port-wine stain be associated with if in trigeminal nerve distribution?

A

Associated with intracranial vascular anomalies = Sturge-Weber syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are strawberry naevus?

A

Cavernous haemangioma
Not present at birth but appear in first month of life and may be multiple
More common in preterm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Development of strawberry naevus?

A

Increases in size until 3-15 months old

Then gradually regresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of strawberry naevus

A

No treatment needed unless vision or airway are obstructed

Thrombocytopenia may occur with large lesions - therapy with systemic steroids or interferon-a may be required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Heart murmurs in newborn?

A

Most murmurs audible in first few days of life resolve shortly afterwards
Some are caused by congenital heart disease and if there is a significant murmur then investigation is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vit K and newborn

A

Should be given to all newborns to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
At risk infants (mothers on anticonvulsant therapy) should be given IM
IM better than orally but controversial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is screened for with the Guthrie test? x5

A
Phenylketonuria 
Hypothyroidism 
Haemoglobinopathies 
Cystic fibrosis 
MCAD deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When is Guthrie done?

A

Day 5-9 of life when feeding has been established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is cystic fibrosis detected?

A

Serum immunoreactive trypsin - raised if there is a pancreatic duct obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy?

A

Brain damage following perinatal asphyxia and diminished brain tissue perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Causes of hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy? x5

A

Failure of gas exchange across placenta
Interruption of umbilical blood flow (cord compression)
Inadequate maternal placental perfusion
Compromised fetus (anaemia, IUGR)
Failure of cardiorespiratory adaptation at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clinical features of mild HIE x5

A

Irritable infant, responds excessively to stimulation
May have staring of eyes and hyperventilation
Impaired feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Moderate HIE features x3

A

Infant shows marked abnormalities of tone and movement
Cannot feed
May have seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Severe HIE features x4

A

No normal spontaneous movements or response to pain
Limb tone may fluctuate between hypotonia and hypertonia
Seizures prolonged and often refractory to treatment
Multi-organ failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Management of HIE

A

Monitoring
Respiratory support
Electrolyte balance
Restrict fluids as transient renal impairment
Treat any seizures with anticonvulsants
(wrapping in cooling blanket may help reduce brain damage - induced mild hypothermia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Prognosis of HIE

A

Mild can recovery completely
Moderate if recovery and neuro exam/feeding normal at 2 weeks then good prognosis, but if clinical abnormalities persist beyond 2 weeks - unlikely to improve
Severe = mortality of 30-40% and over 80% over survivors have neurodevelopmental disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Severe consequence of HIE

A

Cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Chignon?

A

Oedema and bruising from Ventouse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Caput Succedaneum?

A

Birth injury causing bruising and oedema of presenting part extending beyond margins of skull bones
resolves in few days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Cephalhaematoma

A

Birth injury
Haematoma from bleeding below periosteum, confined within margins of skull sutures
Usually over parietal bone and centre feels soft
Resolves over several weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When do brachial nerve palsys occur in delivery

A

May occur at breech deliveries or with shoulder dystocia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Upper nerve root brachial plexus injury name and association

A

Erb Palsy

May also be associated with phrenic nerve injury causing elevated diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Erb palsy management

A

Most resolve completely but should be referred to orthopaedic surgeon if not resolved within 2-3 months

39
Q

What is common cause of clavicle or humerus/femur fracture in delivery

A
Shoulder dystocia (femur - breech deliveries)
Both heel rapidly and well
40
Q

What is respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Due to deficiency of surfactant in preterm babies

Alveolar collapse and inadequate gas exchange

41
Q

Treatment of RDS

A

Surfactant therapy

Ventilation

42
Q

RDS on chest xray x3

A

Diffuse granular or ‘ground glass’ appearance of lungs
Air bronchogram - larger airways outlined
Heart border indistinct or obscured with severe disease

43
Q

What can develop with RDS

A

Pneumothorax
From ventilation of RDS
Thorax will transilluminate

44
Q

Other pre-term concerns

A

Keep warm
Fluid increase
Increased nutrition (supplementations in milk with phosphate, protein, calories, calcium, vitamin D, iron)
Patent ductus arteriosus

45
Q

Risk with preterm infants

A

Risk of infection
Maternal IgG is transferred in last trimester
Therefore increased risk of infection compared to term babies

46
Q

What is preterm brain injury?

A

Haemorrhages in the brain occur in 25% of very low birth weight babies
Most within first 72 hours of life
More common if asphyxia or RDS

47
Q

What happens to eyes of preterms?

A

Retinopathy of prematurity
affects developing blood vessels causing vascular proliferation which may progress to retinal detachment, fibrosis and blindness

48
Q

Why do 50% of newborns become jaundice?

A

Marked physiological release of Hb from breakdown of RBCs because of high Hb concentration at birth
RBC life span of newborns is less - 70days
Hepatic bilirubin metabolism is less efficient in first few days of life

49
Q

What is Kernicterus?

A

Encephalopathy resulting from deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei - may occur when level of unconjugated bilirubin exceeds albumin binding capacity of bilirubin in the blood

50
Q

Acute manifestations of kernicterus?

A

Lethargy and poor feeding

More severe - irritability and increased muscle tone, seizures and coma

51
Q

What happens to infants that survive having Kernicterus? x3

A

Choreoathetoid (chorea + athetosis - twisting and writhing) cerebral palsy, learning difficulties and sensorineural deafness

52
Q

What did Kernicterus used to be common with?

A

Rhesus haemolytic disease - now less common with anti-D

53
Q

Causes of non-physiological jaundice

A

Haemolytic disease - rhesus or ABO incompatibility
G6PD deficiency
Spherocytosis
Congenital infection

54
Q

Causes of jaundice at 1 day - 2 weeks

A
Physiological
Breast milk jaundice 
Dehydration (delay in establishing breast feeding)
Infection 
Crigler-Najjar
55
Q

Causes of conjugated jaundice >2 weeks age

A

Bile duct obstruction - biliary atresia

Neonatal hepatitis

56
Q

Management of unconjugated jaundice

A

Phototherapy

Exchange transfusions if levels are dangerous

57
Q

Causes of unconjugated jaundice >2 weeks age

A

Breast milk jaundice
Infection (esp. urinary tract)
Congenital hypothyroidism

58
Q

Signs of conjugated jaundice aka biliary atresia

A

Dark urine and pale stools

Hepatomegaly, poor weight gain

59
Q

Features of diaphragmatic hernia

A

Usually left-sided herniation of abdominal contents through posterolateral foramen of diaphragm
Apex beat and heart sounds displaced to right and poor air entry in left chest
Respiratory distress will be present
Surgically treated - main complication is pulmonary hypoplasia

60
Q

When is risk highest in childhood for developing a serious invasive bacterial infection

A

Neonatal period

61
Q

What is early-onset sepsis?

A

Sepsis which occurs within 48hours of birth

62
Q

What causes early-onset sepsis?

A

Bacteria have ascended from birth canal and invaded amniotic fluid - fetus then infected because fetal lungs are in direct contact with infected amniotic fluid

63
Q

Type of infection in early-onset sepsis?

A

Infants have pneumonia and secondary bacteraemia/septicaemia

64
Q

What increases the risk of early-onset sepsis? x2

A

Prolonged or premature rupture of amniotic membranes

Maternal fever during labour due to chorioamnionitis

65
Q

Presentation of early-onset sepsis? x3

A

Respiratory distress, apnoea and temperature instability

66
Q

Diagnosis of early-onset sepsis? x4

A

Chest X-Ray
Septic screen
FBC for neutropenia
Blood cultures

67
Q

Treatment of early-onset sepsis?

A

IV antibiotics started immediately - usually benzylpenicillin or amoxicillin (for group B strep, listeria and other gram positive) as well as gentamicin (for gram negative organisms)

68
Q

What is late-onset infection

A

Infection >48h after birth

69
Q

Source of infection with late-onset infection?

A

Usually in the infant’s environment

70
Q

Presentation of late-onset infection

A

Usually non-specific - fever/temp, not feeding, vomiting, resp. distress, jaundice etc

71
Q

Most common pathogen in neonatal intensive care

A

Coagulase negative staphylococcus - staph epidermis

72
Q

Treatment of late-onset infection

A

Flucloxacillin and gentamicin - to cover most staphylococci and gram-negative bacteria

73
Q

Treatment of neonatal sticky eyes

A

Cleaning with saline or water and it will resolve spontaneously

74
Q

Other more serious causes of conjunctivitis in neonatal period

A

Redness and discharge could be staphylococcal or streptococcal - treat with antibiotic eye ointment eg. neomycin
Purulent discharge and eyelid swelling could be gonococcal
Also could be chlamydial

75
Q

HSV neonatal infection presentation

A

Any time up to 4 weeks of age
Local herpetic lesions on skin or eye
or as encephalitis and disseminated disease

76
Q

Treatment of neonatal HSV

A

Aciclovir

77
Q

Management of infants born to hep B surface-antigen positive mothers

A

Should receive Hep B vaccination after birth and complete course during infancy

78
Q

Who is hypoglycaemia common in, in first 24h of life x7

A

Babies with IUGR, born preterm, born to mothers with DM, large-for-dates, hypothermic, polycythaemic or ill

79
Q

Cause of hypoglycaemia in IUGR or preterm infant

A

Poor glycogen stores

80
Q

Cause of hypoglycaemia in baby born to diabetic mother

A

Have sufficient glycogen stores but hyperplasia of islet cells in pancreas cause high insulin levels

81
Q

Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

Jitteriness, irritability, apnoea, lethargy, drowsiness and seizures

82
Q

Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

Can usually be prevented with early and frequent milk feeding
If two low values or one v.low value recorded then give IV infusion of glucose

83
Q

Cause of cleft lip

A

Failure of fusion of frontonasal and maxillary processes - can be unilateral or bilateral

84
Q

Cause of cleft palate

A

Failure of fusion of palatine processes and nasal septum

85
Q

Management of cleft lip and cleft palate

A

Surgical repair - can be done of lip within first few weeks of life but palate usually done at several months

86
Q

What are cleft palate patients prone to?

A

Secretory and acute otitis media

87
Q

What is oesophageal atresia associated with?

A

Tracheo-oesophageal fistula and associated with polyhydramnios during pregnancy

88
Q

Clinical presentation of oesophageal atresia

A

Persistent salivation and drooling from the mouth after birth
If not detected will choke when fed and have cyanotic episodes

89
Q

What is exomphalos?

A

Also omphalocele

Protrusion of abdominal contents through the umbilical ring, covered with transparent sac

90
Q

What is gastroschisis

A

Bowel protrudes through defect in anterior abdominal wall, adjacent to umbilicus and no covering sac

91
Q

Associations of exomphalos and gastroschisis?

A

Exomphalos is associated with other congenital abnormalities but gastroschisis is not

92
Q

Clinical signs of RDS x4

A

Tachypnoea >60 breaths/min
Laboured breathing with chest wall recession and nasal flaring
Expiratory grunting
Cyanosis if severe

93
Q

What is Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis - port wine stains, glaucoma, seizures, mental retardation and ipsilateral leptomeningeal angioma