Percutaneous Coronary Intervention for Acute Coronary Syndromes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the medical therapy recommended for STEMI patients?

A

Aspirin, beta-blockers, statins, and ACE inhibitors

Medical therapy is crucial for managing patients with STEMI.

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2
Q

What did the Occluded Arteries Trial (OAT) conclude about PCI in asymptomatic patients?

A

No benefit with PCI regarding death, reinfarction, or reduction in heart failure at 4-year follow-up

The trial involved over 2,000 patients with total occlusion of the infarct-related artery.

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3
Q

What is the recommended dose of enoxaparin for patients undergoing PCI?

A

0.3 mg/kg IV once

This is typically administered at the time of PCI for adequate anticoagulation.

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4
Q

What is a significant risk associated with fondaparinux during PCI?

A

Significant increase in catheter-related thrombosis

Fondaparinux is an indirect inhibitor of factor Xa with no effect on thrombin.

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5
Q

When is early angiography indicated in patients?

A

In patients with refractory angina or hemodynamic instability

The term ‘early’ generally means within 24 hours.

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6
Q

What is the recommended action for patients who received thrombolytic therapy 2 hours ago?

A

Admit to the coronary care unit for evaluation

Angiography should be considered within 3- to 24-hours after thrombolysis.

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7
Q

What are high-risk features that support an ‘early invasive’ strategy?

A

[“Recurrent angina/ischemia at rest”, “Elevated TnT or TnI”, “New ST-segment depression”, “Recurrent angina with symptoms”, “High-risk findings on stress testing”, “Depressed systolic function”, “Hemodynamic instability”, “Sustained ventricular tachycardia”, “Prior CABG”]

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8
Q

What is the Class III recommendation regarding PCI of a non-infarct-related artery?

A

Due to concerns over additional contrast use and higher complication rates

Recent trials have shown safety and efficacy for PCI of a non-infarct-related artery.

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9
Q

What are GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors primarily used for in ACS patients?

A

In patients considered for early invasive approach not adequately preloaded with a P2Y12 inhibitor

They provide rapid antiplatelet activity but are associated with increased bleeding risk.

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10
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a patient in cardiogenic shock with inferior STEMI?

A

Thrombolyze and transfer immediately

This approach is known as ‘drip and ship’ to a PCI-capable facility.

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11
Q

What procedure should be performed for a patient with a large thrombus burden?

A

Angioplasty and stent placement

This is to prevent distal embolization and poor cardiovascular outcomes.

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12
Q

What is the ideal strategy for antiplatelet therapy in patients undergoing PCI?

A

IV cangrelor loading followed by an infusion for 4 hours, transitioned to ticagrelor

Cangrelor provides immediate antiplatelet effects, suitable for patients inadequately loaded with P2Y12 inhibitors.

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13
Q

True or False: Patients undergoing PCI should receive a loading dose of P2Y12 inhibitors.

A

True

This is critical for achieving rapid platelet inhibition.

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14
Q

What is the outcome of the TAPAS trial regarding aspiration thrombectomy?

A

Significant improvement in myocardial blush grade with aspiration thrombectomy plus PCI

However, subsequent trials showed no benefit with routine thrombus aspiration.

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15
Q

What is a key benefit of clopidogrel in PCI?

A

Reduction in stent thrombosis

Cited from Bhatt DL, et al. N Engl J Med 2013;368(14):1303–1313.

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16
Q

When is cangrelor ideally suited for use?

A

For patients who couldn’t be adequately loaded with P2Y12 inhibitors before PCI and in whom GP inhibitors are not used.

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17
Q

What is a risk of administering clopidogrel hours after PCI?

A

Increased risk of stent thrombosis.

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18
Q

Why is it less desirable to use GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors with bivalirudin?

A

It negates the bleeding risk reduction provided by bivalirudin.

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19
Q

What is the recommendation for PCI of completely occluded vein grafts?

A

Class III recommendation against it due to low success rates and high risk for complications.

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20
Q

What intervention reduces MACE in vein graft procedures?

A

Distal embolic protection with a filter.

21
Q

What is the bleeding risk range for patients on triple therapy?

A

10% to 14%.

22
Q

What did the WOEST trial find regarding single antiplatelet treatment?

A

Fewer bleeding complications and no increase in thrombotic events compared to DAPT.

23
Q

What does the PIONEER AF-PCI trial compare?

A

Rivaroxaban plus clopidogrel, very low-dose rivaroxaban plus DAPT, or warfarin plus DAPT.

24
Q

What is a Class I recommendation for NSTEMI patients regarding P2Y12 inhibitors?

A

Give a loading dose of P2Y12 inhibitor.

25
Q

What is the difference between thienopyridines and ticagrelor?

A

Thienopyridines are prodrugs; ticagrelor does not require activation.

26
Q

Why is ticagrelor preferred over clopidogrel for a clopidogrel nonresponder?

A

Due to prior stent thrombosis indicating clopidogrel failure.

27
Q

What are the independent predictors of major bleeding in ACS?

A
  • Advanced age
  • Female gender
  • History of bleeding
  • Renal insufficiency
28
Q

What is a major predictor of contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN)?

A

Volume of contrast.

29
Q

What strategies are beneficial in reducing CIN?

A
  • Infusion of normal saline
  • Minimizing contrast use
30
Q

When is routine stress testing indicated after PCI?

A

Only for patients with high-risk features.

31
Q

What is the recommended dosing of bivalirudin for a patient with eGFR <30 mL/min?

A

1 mg/kg/h infusion.

32
Q

What did the ISAR-REACT 3 trial compare?

A

Bivalirudin versus UFH in patients undergoing PCI.

33
Q

What is a common misconception regarding platelet function testing?

A

It can tailor antiplatelet therapy effectively.

34
Q

What is the role of clopidogrel in patients undergoing PCI?

A

Patients were pretreated with clopidogrel 600 mg more than 2 hours before PCI

Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication used to prevent blood clots in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

35
Q

What is the bleeding risk comparison between bivalirudin and heparin?

A

Bivalirudin is as effective as UFH or LMW heparin plus a GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor and associated with a lower bleeding risk

The effectiveness and safety of bivalirudin versus heparin were evaluated in patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS).

36
Q

What is the ideal treatment strategy for a patient with cardiogenic shock?

A

Emergent angiography and revascularization as indicated

This strategy is essential for managing patients presenting with cardiogenic shock.

37
Q

When should hemodynamic support devices be used in cardiogenic shock?

A

When patients are refractory to pharmacologic measures

Hemodynamic support devices assist patients who are not responding adequately to medications.

38
Q

What is the function of the intra-aortic balloon pump?

A

Improves diastolic coronary blood flow but does not provide meaningful cardiac output in pump failure

It is commonly used in cardiogenic shock situations.

39
Q

What is the Impella device used for?

A

Provides a forward flow of up to 2.5 L (Impella 2.5) or 3.5 L (Impella CP)

The Impella is a percutaneous left ventricular assist device used in cardiogenic shock.

40
Q

Have hemodynamic support devices shown improved outcomes in cardiogenic shock?

A

No, none have shown improved outcomes in randomized clinical trials

Observational data may show improved hemodynamics, but randomized trials do not support outcome improvements.

41
Q

What is the only strategy consistently shown to improve outcomes in cardiogenic shock?

A

Early revascularization

Early intervention is crucial for improving prognosis in patients with cardiogenic shock.

42
Q

What is the benefit of supervised cardiac rehabilitation programs?

A

Significant reduction in all-cause mortality and cardiovascular mortality

These programs improve exercise tolerance, cardiac symptoms, and overall psychosocial well-being.

43
Q

In which patients should cardiac rehabilitation be particularly considered?

A

Intermediate- to high-risk patients

Cardiac rehabilitation is beneficial for patients with a higher risk of cardiovascular events.

44
Q

What improvements are associated with cardiac rehabilitation?

A

Improvements in exercise tolerance, cardiac symptoms, lipid levels, smoking cessation rates, stress levels, medical regimen compliance, and psychosocial well-being

These benefits contribute to the recommendation of cardiac rehabilitation in clinical guidelines.

45
Q

What is indicated by a thin fibrotic cap and large atheromatous burden?

A

Most likely would provoke an ACS in the event of rupture

This finding suggests a higher risk for acute coronary syndrome due to plaque instability.

46
Q

What does normal vessel anatomy with very mild atherosclerotic changes indicate?

A

Normal vessel anatomy with very mild atherosclerotic changes

This finding is typically not associated with significant clinical risk.

47
Q

What does the presence of a side branch in coronary angiography indicate?

A

Presence of a side branch

Side branches are anatomical features that may influence blood flow and treatment options.

48
Q

What is indicated by unstable angina in the context of coronary artery disease?

A

Shows plaque rupture/dissection

Unstable angina is a clinical manifestation of acute coronary syndrome and indicates significant plaque instability.

49
Q

What is associated with a significant atheromatous burden and decreased mean lumen area?

A

Most likely would be associated with stable angina

Stable angina typically arises from chronic ischemia due to atheromatous changes in coronary arteries.