Peds_Exam3_Notes Flashcards
1
Q
- 4 things you would assess in osteomyelitis
- Factors that associate iwth SCFE x3
- What would you find in assessment DDH
A
- unable to move extremity, severe pain, fever, redness/swelling
- obesity, hormonal changes, endocrine disorders
- asymmetry of gluteal and thigh folds
2
Q
- Osteosarcoma, side effects of neutropenia?
- Assessments for compartment syndrome
- Sprains involve
A
- risk for infection
- pain, pulses, cap refill, pain meds
- ligament/joint
3
Q
- Where does a sprain cause damage?
- What is a strain?
- MGMT of sprain/strains
A
- blood vessels, muscles, tendons nerves
- microscopic tear to the muscle, similar features to sprain
- Ice, 20 min q 2-3 hours for 1st 48 hrs., elevate
4
Q
- Medications for sprain/strain
- What is the maximum amount of meds for this you can take
- torus/buckle fractures are characterized by..
A
- motrin, advil (10mg/kg/dose),
- 600 mg every 6 hours, 2.4 gm/day
- bulging of the cortex
5
Q
- What does a torus fracture resemble?
- Where do the 5P’s occur in a fracture?
- Early signs of compartment syndrome?
A
- torus or base of a pillar
- distal to the site of the fracture
- edema, numbness, tingling, pain,
6
Q
- What is a late sign of compartment syndrome?
- Causes of compartment syndrome?
- Ischemia and compartmanet syndrome
A
- weak pulse
- tight casts, skin traction, hemorrhage, trauma, burns, surgery
- deformity, muscle fibrosis, contracture, paralysis
7
Q
- Traction where legs are in extended position, skin traction
- uses skin traction onthe lower leg, padded sling under the knee
- Golden rule of calling physician
A
- Buck’s
- Russell’s
- do assessment first
8
Q
- Complication of osteomyelitis
- What bones are affected with osteomyelitis
- Treatment for Avascular Necrosis
A
- infection can rupture thru cortex into the subperiosteal space, stripping loose periosteum and forming abscess
- Long bones (tibia, femur)
- Bone Graft, Total Joint Replacement
9
Q
- Symptoms of SCFE
- Restrictions of SCFE
- How do you Dx SCFE
A
- continuous, intermittent pain in the hip, groin, front of thigh or knee.
- Internal rotation on adduction and external deformity with loss of abduction
- X-ray
10
Q
- How will child lay with SCFE
- Tx for SCFE
- Is legg Valve bilateral or unilateral
A
- lower extremity flexed, abducted, externally rotated b/c of intense pain
- pinning, non weight bearing, rest, PCA, cruch walking
- both
11
Q
- Onset of SCFE
- This is a disturbance of circulation to the femoral capital epiphysis producing an ischemic aseptic necrosis of femoral head
- 4 Stages of Leg Calve
A
- continuous pain in the hip
- Leg Calve
- avascular, fragmentation, reparative, regenerative
12
Q
- Tx of LCP
- This is a spinal deformity that occurs in 3 planes
- What does scoliosis do to ribs?
A
- Abduction casts, pelvic/fem osteotomy, leather harness sling, traction, surgical reconstruction
- Scoliosis
- assymmetry
13
Q
- What does scoliosis do to the thoracic cage?
- When does scoliosis occur congenital
- When does scoliosis occur in infantile
A
- hypokyphosis
- fetal development
- birth - 3 years
14
Q
- When does juveline scoliosis occur
- When does scoliosis occur in adolescents
- What is the Adam’s Test?
A
- 4-10 years of age
- during growth spurt, MOST COMMON
- Scoliometer
15
Q
- Definitive Dx of Scoliosis
- Treatment of osteogenesis
- Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
A
- Xrays using Cobb technique
- bone marrow transpant, -dronate drugs, splints, rods, genetic counseling
- inflammation of synovium, fibrosis of cartilage, ankylosis of joints, adhesion btwn joints
16
Q
- Goals for JIA
- What are SAARDS used for?
- Diagnosis of DDH
A
- prevent deformity and preserve function
- Slower acting antirheumatoid drugs for JIA
- asymmetrical of the gluteal and thigh folds, limited hip abduction, ortolani/Barlow maneuvers, xrays, ultrasound
17
Q
- tx for DDH
- tx for club foot
- What is important to watch for club foot
A
- pavlik harness, spica casting
- serial casting after birth, surgery, pin fixations, achills tendon lengthening
- skin and circulation
18
Q
- tx for subluxation of radial head
- most common site for osteosarcoma
- MGMT of osteosarcoma
A
- applying firm pressure to the head of the radius
- femur
- surgery, foot salvage, chemo, amputation (body image)
19
Q
- obtunded
- Signs of hydrocephalus and ICP
- Febrile Seizure
A
- falling asleep, needs to be shaken to respond
- high pitched cry
- could have another one, acetominphen when ill, do not require seizure meds
20
Q
- First procedure for dx meningitis
- braind damage with closed head injury
- Where is lumbar puncture inserted
A
- send spinal fluid and blood cultures to the lab
- decreased perfusion to brain, increased metabolic needs to brain
- between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae.
21
Q
- Neurological exam
- Unilateral fixed pupils
- Dilated/non reactive pupils
A
- LOC, Alert, Verbal Pain, Unresponsibe, Glascow Coma score, Pupils, Motor sensory, reflex, gait, cranial nerves
- lesion on the same side
- hypothermia, anoxia, ischemis, poisoning w/ atropine like sub
22
Q
- pinpoint pupils
- Widely dilated & reactive
- widely dilated fixed pupils
A
- brainstem dysfunction, poisoning (barbiturate or opiate)
- after a seizure, may be one sided
- paralysis of CN III, secondary from herniation thru tentorium
23
Q
- Bilateral fixed pupils
- Conjugate pupils
- Absent pupil response indicates
A
- brainstem damage if present more than 5 minutes
- movement of the eyes direction opposite the head rotation (doll’s head maneuver)
- dysfunction of brainstem or CNIII
24
Q
- Full consciousness
- Confusion
- Disorientation
A
- awake, alert, oriented to time, place person behavior appropriate for age
- impaired decision making
- confusion w/ time, place, decreased LOC
25
Q
- Lethargy
- obtundation
- stupor
A
- limited spontaneous movement, sluggish speech, drowsy, failling asleep
- arousable w/ stimulation
- deep sleep, slow response to stimulation, moaning
26
Q
- Coma
- PVS
- 3 components of glascow coma scale
A
- no motor or verbal response, extension posturing to painful stimuli
- permanent loss of of cerebral cortex
- eye opening, verbal response, motor response
27
Q
- Causes for ICP x3
- Signs of Increased ICP
- What Cushing’s triad?
A
- increased brain mass, increased cerebral blod volume, obstruction of CSF
- Cushing’s triad
- inc systolic BP, bradycardia, irregular respers (dec)
28
Q
- What is a risk for ICP
- prevention of ICP
- In hydrocephalus, where does impaired absorption of CSF occur
A
- brain herniation
- group activities, avoid crying or painful activity, place child in comfortable position, minimize noise, lights down, quiet music
- subarachnoid space,
29
Q
- Signs in the eyes of hydrocephalus
- What might you see in craniosyntosis
- What is a concussion
A
- setting sun eyes, unequal response to light, sluggish pupils
- papilledema, optic atrophy, blindness
- altered mental status after head injury (confusion, vomiting), diffuse axonal injury
30
Q
- What happens with brainstem herniation
- Brainstem and Medulla oblongata injuries
- Pediatric differencees in head injuries
A
- Cessation of life
- affect breathing/circulatory center, fixed pupils (vitals fluctuated)
- lg blood volume to the brain, small subdural spaces, soft/thin tissue, vulnerable to acceleration/decceleration injury
31
Q
- 3 Major causes of brain damage?
- Linear Skull fracture
- Depressed Skull fracture
A
- falls, motor vehicle accident, bikes
- do not cross suture lines
- fragments pushed inward, bone is broken locally
32
Q
- What is a comminuted skull fracture
- Open skull fracture
- The cervical plexus c1-c4 innervates?
A
- multiple associated linear fractures
- increased risk for CNS infection, communication w/ URI
- necka nd diaphragm
33
Q
- Brachial plexus c4-t1
- Lumbosacral plexus L1-s4
- Prognosis for spinal cord inury child vs adult
A
- shoulders, chest, arms
- Lower trunk and legs
- better in children b/c rapid healing, inc nervous sys regeneration
34
Q
- Nursing care SCI
- Causes for seizures
- What is an atonic seizure?
A
- Skin, PT, neurogenic bladder, bowel training, remobile
- head trauma, tumors, metabolic, infection, toxins
- loss of muscle tone, falls, drop attacks
35
Q
- Classification ofr a myoclonic seizure?
- Infantile Spasms?
- When does febrile seizure occur?
A
- Generalized
- generalized
- happens at Peak temp rather than the rapidity of temp elevation
36
Q
- What is the post ictal period
- What procedure is done with first seizure
- What are the demographics for migraine headaches?
A
- ialtered state of consciousness after epileptic seizure. Lasts between 5 and 30 minutes
- Lumbar Puncture
- boys, 10-14 years
37
Q
- What is a migraine headache
- Migrain with aura
A
- release polypeptides cause pain and vasodilation of cranial vessels
- visual, tingling of lips face, throbbing, N/V, photophobia
38
Q
- Migrain without aura
- Tx for migraines in ED
- Name some CNS infections
A
- personality change, appetite, thirst, N/V, pallor
- IV fluids, rest, toradol, zofran, benadryl
- Meningitis (bacterial, Aseptic), Encephalitis
39
Q
- What vaccination has alleviated bacterial meningitis
- Pathogens in bacterial meningitis
- Pathogen in neonatal meningitis
A
- HiB, Pneumococcoal.
- Streptococcus pneumoniae, neisseria meningidis
- Broup B Streptococci, gram negative bacilli
40
Q
- S/Sx of Meningitis in neonates?
- S/Sx of Meningitis in infants
- Children adolescents
A
- refuse feeding, poor sucking, Vomiting, diarrhea, poor tone, weak cry,, bulgin fontanel
- fever, nuchal rigidity, seizures,
- abrupt, agitation
41
Q
- Prognosis for Meningitis
- Outcomes of bacterial meningitis
- How is MENINGOCOCCEMIA spread?
A
- 10-15% of bacterial meningitis are fatal
- hearing loss, brain damage, learning disability
- oral or nasal droplet
42
Q
- Prognosis for meningococcemia?
- Incubation period
- Sx of on bacterial meningitis
A
- death can occur within hours
- 2-10days
- headache, fever, malaise, & GI
43
Q
- What viruses cause aseptic meningitis?
- When do meningial irritation signs appear
- Testing for encephalitis
A
- A wide variety
- 1-2 days after onset
- lumbar puncture, CSF test, CT scan, blood test for virus
44
Q
- diagnosed with viral encephalitis, where admitted?
- Newborns dx with encephalitis, what problems?
- What can be seen with encephalittis?
A
- PICU
- neurologic injury
- meningitis
45
Q
- Seizures associated with herpes simplex encephalitis?
- Most common brain tumors in pediatrics
- Most common intraocular malignancy of childhood
A
- focal, IV acyclovir
- neuroblastoma, retinoblastoma
- retinoblastoma
46
Q
- Average age of onset of retinoblastoma?
- Prognosis for neuroblastoma?
- S/Sx of neuroblastoma
A
- 2 years
- younger than 1 year have the best prognosis
- weight loss, abdominal distention,
and fatigue.
47
Q
- Retinoblastoma unilateral or bilateral?
- Hereditary or nonhereditary?
- What percent are bilateral and hereditary?
A
- Unilatera 60%
- hereditary
- 25%
48
Q
- What percent of retinoblastoma are unilateral and hereditary?
- What gross signs are associated with retinoblastoma?
- What stage is the worse for retinoblastoma?
A
- 15% (autosomal)
- none
- E
49
Q
- What is the 10 year survival rate for retinoblastoma?
- What tx will cause vision loss for retinoblastoma?
- other treatments
A
- 90%
- enucleation
- plaque brachytherapy, photocoagulation, crytotherapy
50
Q
- What tumor is called the silent tumor?
- Where does neuroblastoma arise?
A
- Neuroblastoma
- cyst cells that give rise to adrenal medulla and SNS or adrenal gland, retroperiotneal sympathetic chain
51
Q
- What is the primary site for neuroblastoma?
- Other manifestation of neuroblastoma
A
- abdomen or (head, neck chest, pelvis)
- non tender firm abdomen, mass crosses the midline. exophthalmos, hepatomegaly, pymphadenopathy, skeletal pain
52
Q
- How is neuroblastoma diagnosed?
- Worse stage of neuroblastoma?
- What percent of metastasis occurs with neuroblastoma?
A
- CT , Bone scan, urinary excretion of catecholamines
- IV
- 70%
53
Q
- Parent of child with CP asks the nurse if the infant will be mentally retarded. Which of the following is the nurse’s best response?
- What would the nurse expect if the infant has hydrocephalus?
- Following surgical repair and closure of a myelomeningocele shortly after birth, what to expect?
A
- Many children with CP have normal intelligence
- Bulging fontanelles, downwardly focusing eyes
- lifelong management of urinary, orthopedic, and neurological problems
54
Q
- Signs of spastic CP
- Which of the following is a priority nursing diagnosis for GBS
- What are the primary disturbances of cerebral palsy
A
- deep tendon reflexes, scoliosis, contractures, scissoring, hearing/vision impairment, seizures, cannot sit up by 8 months, arching back
- Impaired skin integrity r/t infectious disease process
- abnormal muscle tone and coordination
55
Q
- What condition causes an increased risk for cerebral palsy
A
- hyperbilirubemia
56
Q
- Goal of thearpy fo CP
A
- locomotion, communication
- integration of motor function
- correct defects ASAP
- promote socialization
57
Q
- Care of the child with myelomeningocele
- Another name for infectious polyneuritis
- What can GBS lead to?
A
- sterile dressing, infection, joint contractures, skn breakdown, wheelchairs, RoM, Latex allergy
- GBS (Guillain barre syndrome)
- flaccid paralysis
58
Q
- When is GBS highly suceptible
- What kind of disease is GBS
- What is a major concern of GBS?
A
- between age 4-10 years
- immune mediated
- immobility
59
Q
- what may become compromised with GBS progression?
- Why is adequate calorie intake important for GBS
- Cause for infant botulism?
A
- Respiratory tract muscles
- to prevent catabolism
- ingestion of toxin produced by anaerobic bacillus costridium botulinum, breast fed babies who are introduced to nonhuman milk, honey
60
Q
- Pathophysiology of Infant botulism
- First symptom of botulism
- Other signs
A
- inhibits release oc acetylcholine impairing motor activity of muscles, can lead to respiratory failure
- constipation
- weakness, spontaneous movements, deep tendon reflexes, cranial nerve deficits
61
Q
- peak incidence of botulism
- What does idiopathic thrombo purpura cause
- ITP and bone marrow ?
A
- 2-4 months of age, counsel about dangers of home canned foods
- excessive destruction of platelets
- normal
62
Q
- Clinical manifestations of Von Wildebrand’s disease
- Implementation for a child with von wilebrand nosebleed
- How is willebrands passed on
A
- bleeding of mucous membranes, bruises easily, excessive menstruation, frequent nosebleeds
- apply pressure for at least 10 minutes
- hereditary, caused by deficiency of protein
63
Q
- Abnormality in child with hemophilia
- function of the hematologic system
- 3 major organs of the hematopoietic sys
A
- partial thromboplastin time
- produce cells, o2, distribute nutrients, immune protection, heat regulation, waste collection
- red bone marrow, lymphatic, reticuloendothelial
64
Q
- 3 main causes of anemia
A
- inadequate rbcs
- destruction of rbcs
- loss thru hemorrhage
65
Q
- Affects of Anemia on circulatory sys
- When should hemoglobin be measured in infancy?
- what 2 things are important with sickle cell disease?
A
- hemodilution, decreased peripheral resistance, increased turbulence, cyanosis growth retaration
- 9-12 months
- hydration, analgesics
66
Q
- Medication for ICP
- Where do you support a fracture
- most important assessment for fracture
A
- Mannitol osmotic diuretic
- above and below site
- neurovascular checks
67
Q
- Symptoms of iron deficiency anemia
A
- pale, irritable, tachycardia, fatigue, glossitis, koilonychia
68
Q
- what color can stool turn with iron therapy
- Other crises for sickle cell disease
- What is the leading cause of death with sickle cell disease
A
- tarry green or black
- stroke, chest syndrome, infection, hyperhemolytic
- bacterial infection
69
Q
- what makes prognosis better for sickle cell disease
- Lifespan for Sickle cell disease
- What is acute chest syndrom in SCD
A
- bone marrow transplant
- 50s
- similar to pneumonia, chest pain, fever cough, tachypnea, wheezing hypoxia
70
Q
- What can repeated episodes lead to with acute chest syndrome
- Tx for SCD
- What does hemostasis do?
A
- Pulmonary hypertension
- cyclosporin, steroids, bone marrow
- stops bleeding when a blood vessel is injured
71
Q
- What is hemophilia
- What hemorrhages are common with hemophilia
- tx
A
- congenital deeficiency of coagulation proteins, 80% x-linked recessive
- sub Q, IM
- Ice, splinting, steroids, exercise and PT
72
Q
- What is von willebrand’s disease
- tx
- tx for DIC
A
- deficiency of protein, prolonged bleeding b/c of platelets
- DDVAP (inc vWF), Humate-P
- IV heparin, platelets, transfusion
73
Q
- Henoch Schonlein purpura
- What does HSP often follow
- What major vital sign are you watching with HSP
A
- nonthrombocytopenic purpura, arthritis, swelling face, hands feet nephritis, ab pain
- URI, 2-11 year range
- blood pressure, watch salt intakeH
74
Q
- what should you monitor for HSP
- S/Sx of lupus
- Meds used for lupus
A
- Urine and stools, intake and output
- atelectsis, myocarditis, glomerulonephritis, ab pain, N/V, blood in stool, anemia, cytopenia, arthritis
- rituximab, hydroxychloroquine, cyclophosphamide, NSIAD, steroids
75
Q
- Common presenting signs of lupus (test question)
- tx regiment for lupus
- Primary immune system organs
A
- Fever, malaise, weight loss
- low salt intake, killed virus vaccines, systemic corticosteroids, antimalarials
- thymus, bone marrow, liver
76
Q
- Secondary immune sys organs
- What is humoral immunity
- principle cell in antibody production
A
- lymph nodes, spleen, gut associated tissue
- occuring outside the cells
- b-lymphocyte
77
Q
- Cell mediated immunity involves
- 3 Subsets of t- lymphocytes
- most common route of transmission for HIV
A
- inside the cell, t lymphocyte
- cytotoxic, helper, suppressor
- perinatal
78
Q
- How much can HIV transmission be reduced with antiretroviral therapy
- Most common opportunistic infection in child with HIV
- Lab tests ordered for infant whose parent is HIV positive
A
- less than 2%
- pneumonia
- P24
79
Q
- HIV restrictions with child in daycare
- Lab value > 18 months
- What are immune categories based on
A
- mpo restriction, should be allowed to participate in all activities
- immunosorbent assay, western blot
- CD4 and lymphocyte counts
80
Q
- What is severe combine immunodeficiency syndrome?
- What is their suceptibility
- symptoms of scids
A
- absence of humoral and cell mediated immunity
- infection, graft vs host reaction
- no logical source of infection, failure to thrive, first month
81
Q
- Tx for SCIDS
- Prognosis for SCIDS
- what is the triad of wiscott aldrich syndrome?
A
- Stem cell transplant from sibling, IVIG,
- poor without bone marrow donor
- thrombocytopenia w/ sm platelets, eczema, immunodeficiency (b & T)
82
Q
- What happens to infection and eczema as child gets older w/ WAS
- why does WAS have increased bleeding time
- Other infections/sx of WAS
A
- Gets worse (x-linked recessive)
- thrombocytopenia, bloody diarrhea
- Herpes, Chronic pulmonary disease, sinusitis, otitis media
83
Q
- Tx for WAS
- Most common form of childhood cancer
- Peak onset of ALL
A
- platelet transfusion, IVIG, Prophylactic antibiotics, skin tx, splenectromy, HSCT and HLA matched donor
- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), 80% prognosis
- 2-5 years of age
84
Q
- This type of leukemia is similar for males and females
- when are higher rates seen for AML
- Types of testing for leukemia
A
- Acute myelogenous leukemia
- first 2 years of life
- Lumpar Puncture, Bone marrow, Blood smears
85
Q
- What do blood smears for leukemai show
- what is the definitive diagnosis of Leukemia
- what does bone marrow show
A
- immature forms of leukocytes, low blood counts
- bone marrow aspiration or biopsy
- infiltrate of blast cells
86
Q
- What are the 3 phases of tx for Leukemia
- What is the best defense against communicable diseases
- What is the most common cause of infection among infants?
A
- Induction, intesification/consolidation, maintenance
- Vaccines
- Virus
87
Q
- What do viruses do?
- What can happen when viruses damage cells
- How is Varicella Zoter Virus transmitted?
A
- Hid in cells and avoid inflammatory/immune response
- secondary bacterial infection
- contact, droplet, contaminated objects
88
Q
- When should child receive varicella IG
- Symptoms of Varicella
- What is the incubation period for varicella
A
- Within 96 hours of exposure
- runny nose, veseicles on chest and face rather than legs or arms
- 14-16 days
89
Q
- Prodromal stage of chicken pox
- skin stages of Chicken pox
- When is it okay to interact with others w/ chicken pox
A
- slight fever, malaise, anorexia, rash itchy
- starts as macule, papule, then vesicle
- when lesions are crusted over
90
Q
- Meds for chickenpox
- Shingles medication
- Peak Age for Roseola (Baby Measles)
A
- benadryl, antihistamines, tylenol, motrin, advil, calamine lotion, hydrocortisone, aveeno baths
- Acyclovir
- Peak Age 6-15 months
91
Q
- Incubation period for Roseola baby measles
- Sx of Baby Measles
- What is the source for Red Measles (Rubeola)
A
- 5-15 days
- Precipitous drop in fever to normal with sudden appearance of rash
- respiratory tract secretions, blood, urine, infected person
92
Q
- What is the incubation period for read measles
- Prodromal stage of red measles
- How does rash spread
A
- 10-20 days
- coryza (inflammation of mucous membrane), cough, conjuctivits, koplik spots, malaise, fever
- downard, starts from the face
93
Q
- Source for Rubella (german measles)
- Incubation period
- prodromal stage for rubella
A
- nasopharyngeal, blood, stool, urine
- 14-21 days
- Adults and Adolescents (not children), coryza, sore throat, cough, conjuctivitis, lymphadenopathy. AVOID PREGNANT WOMEN
94
Q
- prodromal stage for mumps
- Source for mumps
- Mumps Tx
A
- fever, headache, anorexia, earache, parotitis
- saliva
- fluids, soft dies, hot/cold compress to neck
95
Q
- Age group for Coxsackie Virus
- Symptoms of Coxsackie
- Agent for diptheria virus
A
- Under 10
- throat blisters, herpangina
- corynebacterium
96
Q
- Diptheria source
- Incubation period for diptheria
- Sx of Diptheria
A
- mucous membranes of nose, lesions
- 2-5 days
- Resembles common cold, epistaxis, sore throat, low grade fever, bull neck, shcok, hoarseness (nose, tonsills, laryngeal)
97
Q
- Drug Tx for Diptheria
- Other treatments?
- What population gets affected by 5th disease?
A
- Penicillin, Erythromycin
- humidified oxygen, suctioning, equine antitoxin
- school age
98
Q
- How is fifth disease spread?
- Signs of Fifth disease
- What is the agent for Fifth disease
A
- Respiratory secretions, blood
- slapped face, maculopapular red spots, rx to sun, heat cold or friction
- parvovirus
99
Q
- What is the agent for impetigo
- Sx of impetigo
- tx
A
- Strep, staph, MRSA
- itching, red sores, honey colored crusts
- antibiotics and ointment
100
Q
- What is the agent of tinea corporis (ringworm of skin)
- Transmission
- How do they test for this
A
- Dermatophytes (fungus, trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton
- animals to humans
- scraping of skin
101
Q
- Sx of tinnea corporis
- tx
- ringworm of the scalp, agent?
A
- Annular (circular) lesions,
- antifungal cream (-azoles)
- dermatphytes
102
Q
- How is ringowrm of scalp tested?
- Tx for tinea capitis
- What should be monitored with this
A
- toothbrush scrapings
- oral antifunga for 6-8 weeks, Selenium sulfide shampoo
- liver function
103
Q
- Sx for Tinea Capitis
- Where does scabies occur under 2 years of age
- Over 2 years of age
A
- swelling in scalp called “kerion”
- feet ankles
- hands, wrists
104
Q
- Interventions for Scabies
- A spinal curve of less than _________degrees that is nonprogressive does not require treatment for scoliosis.
- Skin breakdown DDH, how often to check pavlik harnes
A
- All linens washed in hot, antihistamines for itching, topical steroids
- 20degrees
- 2-3 x daily
105
Q
- What can occur if DDH goes untreated?
A
- duck gait, pain, osteoarthritis
106
Q
- Delirium
- Confusion
- Sx of a v-p shunt malfunction
A
- confused and anxious
- not oriented to person, place, time
- headache blurry vision, iritable, sleepy
107
Q
- Position after V-P shunt Placement
- Treatment nurse should question with bacterial meningitis?
A
- flat in the crib
- Iv fluids con increase ICP