Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3P/Certification Exam > Peds & OB Review > Flashcards

Peds & OB Review Flashcards

1
Q

Where is estrogen produced during pregnancy what is it responsible for?

A

Ovaries & placenta produce causes enlargement of uterus, breasts and genitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is progesterone during pregnancy responsible for?

A

Maintains endometrium for implantation
Inhibits uterine contractions- prevents abortion
Promotes secretory ducts of breasts for lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Thyroxine (T4) elevates during pregnancy, what does it produce?

A

Increased BMR by 23%, elevated HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What hormone stimulates progesterone and estrogen by the corpus luteinizing to maintain pregnancy until uterus takes over?

A

HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This hormone is responsible to increase in glucose and protein metabolism and is produced by the placenta?

A

Human placental lactogen (hPL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This hormone produced by the anterior pituitary is responsible for the darkening of skin found in pregnancy?

A

Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Relaxin is produced where and responsible for what?

A

By the corpus luteum and inhibits uterine activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What hormone prepares breasts for lactation?

A

Prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Oxytocin is produced where and responsible for what during pregnancy?

A

Posterior pituitary
Stimulates uterine contraction
—after birth contractions reduce bleeding
Stimulates mild ejection reflex (let-down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F cortisol is 2-3 times higher during pregnancy and helps to developer fetuses neurological system including mental development and temperament?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the presumptive signs of pregnancy?

A

Subjective: Amenorrhea, nausea, breast tenderness, fatigue, increased urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the probably signs of pregnancy?

A

Objective: softening and darkening of the cervix, uterine softening and enlargement, positive pregnancy test, ballottement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the positive signs of pregnancy?

A

Diagnostic: Fetal heart sounds, fetal outline and movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens to the alveoli during pregnancy?

A

They become increasingly distended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What 2 hormones cause the proliferation in duct and grandular tissue that produces an average 12-ounce increase in breast weight?

A

Estrogen and progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is uterine soufflé?

A

Maternal arterial blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens to the walls of the uterus during pregnancy?

A

They thicken from 10-25mm in first 16 weeks, then thin to 5-10 mm by term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Hegar’s sign?

A

Uterine softening, lengthening and bending anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Chadwick’s sign

A

Bluish, darkening of the vagina, vulva & cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Goodell’s sign?

A

Softening of the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the average increase in fundus after 20 weeks?

A

1cm per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the fundal height at 20 weeks?

A

20cm or at umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the fundal height at 12 weeks?

A

12cm or just at symphysis pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the fundal height at 16 weeks?

A

Halfway between symphysis pubis and umbillicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens to the vaginal pH during pregnancy?

A

It decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F it is expected to hear hyperactive bowel sounds during all stages of pregnancy?

A

False- usually tend to be more hypoactive due to the normal decrease in peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How much is the cardiac output usually increased in pregnancy?

A

30-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

At 30-34 weeks, blood volume increases by how much?

A

30-50% (1110-1600ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the normal increase in oxygen consumption during pregnancy?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What hormone very active during pregnancy decreases bladder tone further increasing risk for incontinence?

A

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F the pituitary gland increased to 3x it’s normal size during pregnancy?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What labs are routinely ordered at during early pregnancy?

A

H&H, Rh factor, Type & Screen, antibody screen, varicella, and rubella and TSH (if indicated)
urine culture
STI screen for chlamydia & gonorrhea, Hep B & C, syphilis, and trachomatis

Maternal genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is rhogam shot given to pregnant Rh negative mom?

A

28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery (or abortion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two most critical elements to prenatal supplementation?

A

Folate & Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When does the extreme fatigue of pregnancy usually peak?

A

9-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the common genetic and fetal screening tests often in first trimester?

A

CF, Sickle cell, autosomal recessive disorders (screen both parents)
Fetal screenings: Down syndrome, aneuploiudies, chromosomal number abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common STI?

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F removal HPV wart cures infection?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the most commonly reported STI?

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A major complication of PID is what condition?

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

HIV affects CD4 cells in what manner?

A

Decreasing number AND function

42
Q

What is considered the perimenopausal period?

A

2-8 years prior to cessation of menses

43
Q

What is considered the early post-menopausal period?

A

First 5 years after cessation

44
Q

What is considered the late perimenopausal period?

A

6+ year after onset of symptoms

45
Q

What is necessary to diagnose menopause?

A

Complete essation of menses for 1 continuous year

46
Q

What test might be used to aide in the diagnosis of or predict menopause?

A

Anti-Mullerian hormone reflects the number of follicles

47
Q

When should patients be screened for thyroid dysfunction?

A

Every 5 years starting at 35 years olf

48
Q

What is the leading cancer cause of death?

A

Lung, followed by breast, then colon

49
Q

T/F women are more likely to experience depression but men are more likely to die from it?

A

True

50
Q

What is are helpful diagnostic tools when evaluating urinary incontinence (UI) in a woman?

A

3-day voiding diary
Filling Cystometogram
Urethral pressure profile
MRI, 3-D US

51
Q

What are lifestyle interventions that should be utilized with urge incontinence?

A

Beverage management: avoid caffeine, artificial sweeteners and alcohol
Bladder training
Knack skill
Kegel exercises
Weight management
Pessary

52
Q

What drugs can help with urge-type incontinence?

A

Anticholinergics: oxybutynin (ditropan), tolterodine (Detrol), fesoterodin (Toviaz), solinenacin (Vesicare), and dirifenacin (Enalblex).
Also- SSIRs duloxetine
TCA- imipramine (tofranil) and mirabegron
Post menopausal women- vaginal estrogen

53
Q

What may be secondary causes of scrotal swelling?

A

CHF, trauma, and hernia

54
Q

What are primary causes of scrotal swelling?

A

Testicular cancer, inflammation (orchitis), hydrocele, variocele, hernia, and epidymitis

55
Q

T/F hydrocele is common in newborns?

A

True

56
Q

What are two major causes of orchitis?

A

STI, mumps

57
Q

T/F variocele usually reduces in size when laying down?

A

True

58
Q

T/F BPH is often a warning sign for impending prostate cancer

A

False

59
Q

Alpha blockers relax the prostate and neck of bladder, what are some examples?

A

Doxazosin (cardura)
Tasulosin (Flomax)
Terazosin (Hytrin)
Prazosin (minipress)
Siodosin (Rapaflo)

60
Q

These drugs shrink the prostate and prevent hypertrophy, dutasteride (avodart) and finasteride (Proscar), what class do they belong to and who should never handle them?

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitors - pregnant or potentially pregnant woman should never handle

61
Q

What additional drugs have been show to reduce prostate symptoms and increase flow rate?

A

Phophodiesterase 5 inhibitors (PDE5): Sildenafil (viagra), garden AFib (Levitra) and tadalafil (Cialis)

62
Q

What is the most important finding on the growth chart?

A

What is the pattern, is there a change? Falling <25 or >95 are usually concerning

63
Q

What is considered newborn age?

A

0-28 days

64
Q

What is considered infant age?

A

1-12 months

65
Q

What is the average birth weight and what is expected in the first few days then 2 weeks?

A

Average 7.5lb, can expect to lose 5-8% first week
Gains back by 10-14 days

66
Q

What is the expected weight increase at mile markers?

A

Birth weight doubled 4-6 months
Tripled at 12 months

67
Q

Anterior Fontanels close at what age?

A

Around 18 months

68
Q

Posterior fontanels close at what age?

A

2-3 months

69
Q

What is the normal pulse and RR for newborns?

A

HR 120-170
RR 30-80

70
Q

What is the normal pulse and RR for 3 year old? What would be considered hypertensive?

A

HR 80-120, RR 20-30
>116/76

71
Q

What is the normal pulse and RR for 1 year old? What would be considered hypertensive?

A

HR 80-160, RR 20-40
>112/74

72
Q

What is the normal pulse and RR for 6 year old? What would be considered hypertensive?

A

HR 75-115, RR 16-20
>122/78

73
Q

What is the normal pulse and RR for 10 year old? What would be considered hypertensive?

A

HR 70-110, RR 16-20
>126/82

74
Q

What BP would be considered elevated for 13-15 year old?

A

> 136/86

75
Q

What should be considered in a child with a low HGB? And a high HGB?

A

Low= anemia, thalassemia or SCD
High= dehyrdation

76
Q

What should be considered in a child with a low HCT? And a high HCT

A

High- dehyrdation, polycythemia-usually response to chronic respiratory issues
Low- anemia, hyperthyroidism, leukemia

77
Q

What should be considered in a child with a low WBC? And a high WBC?

A

Low- bone marrow suppression, viral infection, hypersplenia, leukemia and some drugs

High- acute bacterial infection, hemolysis, steroid use

78
Q

Newborn screening is required usually 24-48 hours of life includes what disorders?

A

Hypothyroidism
PKU
Galactosemia
Hemoglobinopathies
Maples syringe disease
CF

79
Q

How does colic present differently from reflux regurgitation?

A

Colic appears in pain, just ting out or in of legs, persistent crying. Will eat normally when not crying.
Reflux- Eats normal, no fussing, but ejects undigested food after eating

80
Q

What are concerning signs suggestive of cystic fibrosis?

A

Newborn failure to pass meconium (meconium ileus)
Extremely thick, tenacious, and copious respiratory secretions
Salty tasting skin
Poor growth trajectory

81
Q

Children and adults with cystic fibrosis also frequently have problems what additional problems?

A

Pancreatic insufficiency

82
Q

What is the gene is responsible for CF?

A

CFTR gene

83
Q

What is the average age CF is diagnoses in a child where prenatal genetic testing or newborn screening was not done?

A

6-8 months

84
Q

CFTR gene causes impaired mucous clearance, leads to bacterial infections and chronic neutrophilic inflammation. This results in what lung pathology?

A

Bronchiectasis

85
Q

What are the treatments for CF?

A

High calorie and protein diet
Chest physiotherapy
Breathing exercises
Aerosol therapy (bronchodilators)
Mucolytics
Pancreatic enzymes

86
Q

What are the symptoms often found in CF?

A

Fatigue
Chronic cough
Recurrent URI and infections
Thick, sticky mucous
Clubbing of nails, barrel chest due to hypoxia
Abdominal distention (poor digestion r/t lack of digestive enzymes)(
Fatty, stinky stools (steatorrhea)

87
Q

Child is consistently failing milestones such as sitting up at 6 months and talking at 12 months with social interaction issues, what disorder should they be evaluated for?

A

Autism spectrum disorder

88
Q

This is defined at child who demonstrates in attention, impulsivity, and motor hyperactivity more so than peers at same developmental level?

A

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

89
Q

With autosomal dominant disorders, how many parents need to have the gene to pass on to the child?

A

Only 1- the trait is dominant, 50% chance to pass on

90
Q

With autosomal recessive disorders, how many parents need to have the gene to pass on to the child?

A

Both, 25% chance of passing on to children if heterozygous (Dd)(Dd)
Unless, both are homozygous (meaning 2 pairs of recessive genes), then all of their offspring will be affected (dd) (dd)

91
Q

With x-linked disorders, who is it passed and to whom?

A

If carried by unaffected mothers:
50% of passing on to sons
50% of daughters will be carriers
If carried by father- 100% of daughters will be carriers

92
Q

What is aneuploidy and what are some examples

A

Wrong number of chromosomes such as trisomy 13, 18, and 21
Turner syndrome where X chromosome is missing

93
Q

First trimester genetic screening includes what tests and are they conclusive?

A

Nuchal translucency (US measurement of fluid around fetuses neck) and maternal blood draw for woman at risk of Down’s syndrome or tiresomy 18. Usually done 15-21 weeks

Triple screen or AFP 3- usually 15-18 weeks detects genetic disorders such as downs, trisomy, and neural tide defects.

Positives means need to investigate further with US or amnio

94
Q

Chorionic villus sampling is an invasive procedure, when is it performed and what can it indicate?

A

Samples the placental cells which share some genetics as fetus, generally done 10-12 weeks and tests for chromosomal abnormalities

95
Q

With trisomy 18, what is often found en urtero and postnatal?

A

Uterine growth restriction, cardiac defects, club feet, wide posterior head and narrow frontal region.
50% of babies die within 1 week

96
Q

What is another name for trisomy 21?

A

Downs syndrome

97
Q

Trisomy 13 infants usually present with what findings and what is the prognosis?

A

Cerebral defects- two hemispheres are fused, mass CNS abnormalities, abnormal mid face developing (cleft face), and heart defects.
50-80% die within 1 month, the vast majority die before 6 months

98
Q

Which is the most common inherited form of mental retardation?

A

Fragile X syndrome- males are more likely to be affected because they only have one X chromosome
But woman are frequently carriers

99
Q

PKU is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects what?

A

Ability to metabolized phenylalanine- causing the resulting protein to build up in the blood stream causing metal retardation.
Diet is the treatment

100
Q

This condition produces an extra X chromosome in males and produces what outcome?

A

Klinefelter syndrome- boys are taller but have developmental issues and are infertile

3P/Certification Exam (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions