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Exam #3 > Pediatric Pathology > Flashcards

Pediatric Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the time spans associated with Ped’s pathology?

A
  • Neonates - 0-4 weeks
  • Infants - first year of life
  • Children - 1-4 and 5-14
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2
Q

What are the differences in causes of death for neonates compared to other Pediatrics?

A
  • neonatal deaths are due to congenital anomalies or unknown reasons
  • older child deaths are due to preventable diseases
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3
Q

What are the types of congenital anomalies?

A
  • Intrinsic - due to maternal or baby problem

- Extrinsic - due to mechanical factors or compression of growing fetus

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4
Q

What is the difference between deformations and malformations?

A
  • Malformations - inappropriate development

- Deformations - abnormality after complete formation

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5
Q

What is the difference between a sequence and a syndrome?

A
  • Syndrome - a constellation of multiple anomalies

- Sequence - anomalies triggered by one aberration

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of Trisomy 21?

A
  • single palmar crease, broad hands
  • large tongue and wide spaced eyes
  • widely separated first and second toes
  • most common chromosomal abnormalities
  • may accompany other malformations
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7
Q

What are the characteristics of Trisomy 18?

A
  • Micrognathia, low set ears, short neck
  • rocker bottom feet, short great toe
    • Horseshoe kidney
  • Severe congenital heart defect
  • not compatible with life
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8
Q

What is Gastroschisis?

A
  • malformation of the intestines not being replaced into the abdomen
  • normal umbilical cord
  • no association with other congenital anomalies
  • can be repaired
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9
Q

What is an Omphalocele?

A
  • outpocketing of the abdominal cavity including membrane
  • many have other major congenital anomalies
  • defect occurs at the insertion of the umbilical cord
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10
Q

LGA

A
  • Large for Gestational Age
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11
Q

SGA

A
  • Small for Gestational Age
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12
Q

What are the concerns with a LGA newborn?

A
  • hypoglycemia and hyperinsulinemia
  • birth injuries due to large size
  • 3 fold risk for congenital anomalies
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13
Q

Pre-term

A
  • born before 38 weeks
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14
Q

SUID

A
  • sudden unexplained infant death

- includes - SIDS, sleep related infants, accidental suffocations

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15
Q

What are some methods that reduce the risk of SIDS?

A
  • Sleeping on back
  • Breast feeding
  • Immunizations
  • Cribs be empty
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16
Q

IUGR

A
  • Intrauterine growth retardation
17
Q

What are general characteristics of IUGR?

A
  • fetal etiologies (congenital anomalies)
  • placental etiologies (infection)
  • maternal etiologies (drugs, diabetes, HTN)
18
Q

What are placental signs of an active baby?

A
  • long umbilical chord

- many twists in the umbilical chord

19
Q

What is defined by TORCH infections?

A
  • T - toxoplasmosis
  • O - other vacteria and viruses
  • R - rubella
  • C - cytomegalovirus
  • H - herpesvirus
20
Q

What are the fetal results of a CMV infection?

A
  • Stillbirth, IUGR, Cardiac anomalies, Deafness

- if they survive they will be very sick and short life span

21
Q

What are some indications for an examination of the placenta?

A
  • Maternal conditions - diabetes, HTN, fever, TORCH infection
  • Newborn conditions - stillborn, congenital anomalies, poor APGAR score, multiple pregnancy
  • Placental conditions - abruption, infarction, masses, cacificaitons
22
Q

What does the APGAR score access?

A
  • Heart rate
  • Respiratory rate
  • Muscle tone
  • Nasal stimulus
  • Color
    Uses a 0-2 scale for each of these areas
  • 0-1 = 50% mortality
  • 4 = 20% mortality
  • 7 or more = 0% mortality
23
Q

What are screening tests that are required by state law?

A
  • hypothyroidism and PKU deficiency
24
Q

What is the criteria for a screening test?

A
  • the disorder can be identified at this phase
  • a screening test is available
  • there are demonstrated benefits of early detection
25
Q

What are the required screening tests in for a Nebraska newborn?

A
  • Severe combined immune deficiency
  • cystic fibrosis
  • Congenital primary hypothyroidism
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Sickle cell disease
  • Galactosemia
  • Fatty acid disorders
  • Amino acid disorders
  • Organic acid disorders
26
Q

Why do we screen for metabolic disorders?

A
  • these disorders usually present with no-specific symptoms

- early diagnosis, early intervention, better prognosis

27
Q

How is a cystic fibrosis screening done?

A
  • sweat chloride test
  • high chloride levels are indicative of cystic fibrosis
  • needs to be coupled with a symptom, sibling with CF or another test to be confirmative
28
Q

What is the most common genotype identified in CF patients?

A
  • Delta F508
29
Q

What are the characteristics of Hirschsprung’s disease?

A
  • a lack of ganglion cells in portion of intestine which leads to stopping of stool movement
  • distended bowel and a transition zone in a barum enema study
  • can be associated with Down’s syndrome
30
Q

What is an immature teratoma?

A
  • germ cell neoplasm containing all three embryonic cell types
31
Q

What are the characteristics of infintile germ cell neoplasms?

A
  • no malignant elements

- extragonadal tumors are common

32
Q

What are the most common categories of pediatric cancers?

A
  • hemetologic and brain neoplasms
33
Q

Wilm’s Tumor

A
  • kidney malignancy in pediatric pts
34
Q

How are pediatric tumors handled after removal?

A
  • histology
  • snap freeze for biologic studies
  • touch preps (cytology and FISH)
  • Cytogenetic chromosome testing

Exam #3 (9 decks)

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