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Exam #3 > Parasites > Flashcards

Parasites Flashcards

1
Q

List the intestinal Helminth roundworms

A
  • human Roundworm - Ascaris lumbricoides
  • Pinworm - Enterobius
  • Whipworm - Trichuris trichuria
  • Threadworm - Strongylides
  • Hookworms - Necator and Ancyclostoma
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2
Q

List the intestinal helminth Tapeworms

A
  • Taenia saginata (beef)
  • Taenia solium (pork)
  • Diphyllobothrium latum (fish)
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3
Q

List the tissue and blood Roundworm that are ingested

A
  • Trichenella spiralis
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4
Q

List the tissue and blood Tapeworm that are ingested

A
  • Echinococcosis granulomosis
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5
Q

List the Helminth flatworms that enter the skin

A
  • Schistosoma mansoni, haematobium, japonicum
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6
Q

List the Helminth roundworms that enter the skin

A
  • Wachereria bancrofti

- Onchocerciasis volvulus

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7
Q

List the protozoa associated with malaria

A
  • Plasmodium falciparum
  • Plasmodium vivax, ovale
  • Plasmodium malariae
  • Plasmodium knowlesi
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8
Q

List the protozoa associated with blood disorders

A
  • Plasmodium

- Babesia microti

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9
Q

List the protozoa associated with tissue disorders

A
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Pneumocystis jiroveci
  • Leishmania donovanii
  • Trypanosoma cruzi
  • Trypanosoma brucei
  • Naegleria acanthamoeba
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10
Q

List the protozoa associated with intestinal disorders

A
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Giardia lamblia
  • Cryptosporidium
  • Cyclospora cayetanensis
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11
Q

List the protozoa associated with vaginal disorders

A
  • Trichomonas vaginalis
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12
Q

List some viruses that are associated with zoonotic transmission.

A
  • Yellow Fever
  • Dengue Fever
  • West nile
  • Hantavirus
  • Orf virus
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13
Q

Explain the relationship between the ages of RBCs attacked by the Plasmodium types.

A
  • P. falciparum - all ages and appear with small dots in RBC
  • P. vivax, ovale - produce ring forms and tetrads in young RBC
  • P. malariae - produces bands in old blood cells
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14
Q

What malarial species is most commonly associated with heavy parasitemia?

A
  • Plasmodium falciparium gametocyte
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15
Q

Describe thick smears for malaria diagnosis.

A
  • a few drops of blood are placed on a slide for microscopy

- used to identify the presence of parasites

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16
Q

Describe a thin smear for malaria diagnosis.

A
  • one drop of blood is smeared on a slide for microscopy

- used to identify the morphology of the parasite for identification

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17
Q

Describe the life cycle of malaria parasites.

A
  • Anopheles mosquito (female) bites (drools into) human
  • parasite moves to the liver to mature and then released as a merozoite into the RBC
  • As RBC dies merozoite released and forms gametes
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18
Q

What is the incubation period of malaria and exceptions?

A
  • 8-30 days after bite
  • Vivax and ovale can persist as hypnozoites in liver for years
  • Malariae attacks older cells = chronic infection
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19
Q

What are polymorphisms of RBC that can affect the severity of malaria?

A
  • Sickle cell

- Duffy polymorphism

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20
Q

What is the distribution of malaria infections worldwide?

A
  • near equator at low elevations
  • tropical climates where Anopheles mosquitos live
  • Vivax absent in west Africa
  • Ovale in West Africa
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21
Q

What are four methods of malaria transmission?

A
  • mosquitos
  • transfusion
  • needle sharing
  • perinatal
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22
Q

What are the clinical presentations for malaria?

A
  • fever recurring every 48 hours
  • recent tropical travel
  • malaise
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23
Q

What are the three categories of parasites?

A
  • protozoan
  • helminth
  • ectoparasites
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24
Q

What are two organs that can be attacked by P. falciparum?

A
  • brain

- kidney

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25
Q

What are some medications used to prevent Chloroquine resistance?

A
  • mefloquine
  • Atovaquone-proguanil
  • doxycycline
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26
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of the malaria causing parasites?

A
  • P. falciparum - large lateral spine
  • P. vivax, ovale - terminal spine
  • P. malariae - small/no spine
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27
Q

What is the deadliest of the malaria species?

A
  • Plasmodium falciparum
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28
Q

What malaria species is associated with chloroquine resistance?

A
  • Plasmodium falciparum
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29
Q

Describe the timing of malaria prophylaxis.

A
  • doxycycline/ atovaquone-proguanil - 2 weeks prior to exposure and continued for 4 weeks after departure
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30
Q

What are the characteristics of Babesia microti?

A
  • resembles malaria infection
  • found in NE U.S.
  • tetrad found in RBC
  • clindamycin used to treat
  • spread by tick bites
31
Q

How is toxoplasmosis spread?

A
  • parasite oocytes are found in cat feces

- undercooked meats

32
Q

What are the characteristics of Pneumocystis jiroveci?

A
  • AIDS opportunistic infection
  • fungus
  • Treat with TMX-SMX
33
Q

What are the characteristics of Leishmania donovanii?

A
  • vector - Phlebotomine sandflies
  • produces a cutaneous ulcer
  • intracellular protozoan
  • reservoir - dogs
34
Q

What are the characteristics of Trypanosoma cruzi?

A
  • intracellular protozoan
  • manifests in Chagas disease, esophageal dysmotility
  • bug feces are rubbed into wounds
35
Q

What are the characteristics of Trypansoma brucei?

A
  • protazoan infecting tissue
  • in Africa
  • vector - Tsetse fly
  • manifests in encephalitis “African sleeping sickness”
36
Q

What are the characteristics of Naegleria/ameba?

A
  • infect tissue
  • swim in fresh water
  • occurs in the US
  • can have WBC in stools
37
Q

What are the characteristics of Giardia lamblia?

A
  • distinct structure - raised and ghost like
  • spread fecal-oral
  • causes chronic diarrhea
  • treated with metronidazole
38
Q

What are the characteristics of Cryptosporidum?

A
  • causes chronic diarrhea
  • diagnosed with an acid-fast stain of a stool sample
  • treatment is Nitazoxanide
39
Q

What are the characteristics of Cyclospora cayetanensis?

A
  • resembles cryptosporidium
  • transmitted in contaminated food and water
  • treatment TMX-SMX
40
Q

What are the characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis?

A
  • passed by sexual transmission
  • very motile organism
  • results in a frothy discharge (vaginitis)
  • treatment Metronidazole
41
Q

What are cutaneous larva migrans?

A
  • protazoa that are normally in animals that infect the skin of humans
42
Q

What is the common name for nematodes?

A
  • Roundworms ( Ascaris, Enterobius, Trichuris, Hookworms, Strongyloides)
43
Q

What is the common name for cestodes?

A
  • Tapeworms (Taenia and Diphyllobothrium)
44
Q

What is the treatment for nematodes?

A
  • Abendazole

- Ivermectin (Strongyloides only)

45
Q

What are the characteristics of Ascaris?

A
  • Helminth - intestinal roundworm
  • larvae move from lymph to lungs to trachea and then to intestine
  • worms mature in intestines
  • eggs can be seen in stools
46
Q

What are the characteristics of Enterobius?

A
  • “pinworm”
  • Helminth - intestinal roundworm
  • female lays eggs on rectal skin at night
  • fecal-oral transmission
47
Q

What are the characteristics of Trichuris trichiura?

A
  • “Whip worm”
  • Helminth - intestinal roundworm
  • worm matures in colon
  • causes diarrhea and rectal prolapse
  • fecal-oral transmission
48
Q

What are the characteristics of Necator americanus?

A
  • Hook worm
  • Helminth Intestinal roundworm
  • larvae penetrate skin and travel to lymphatics then to lung and when coughed up is swallowed and then infects intestine
49
Q

What are the characteristics of Strongyloides?

A
  • Threadworm
  • Helminth intestinal roundworm
  • larvae penetrate skin and travel to lymphatics then to lung and when coughed up is swallowed and then infects intestine
  • Elevated eosinoplia
50
Q

What are the different tapeworms?

A
  • taenia saginata (beef) - nausea
  • Taenia solium (pork) - cysticercosis in brain
  • Diphyllobothrium latum (fish) - competes for B12
51
Q

What is the treatment for tapeworms?

A
  • Prazequantel

- Albendazole

52
Q

What are the characteristics of Trichenella spiralis?

A
  • Helminth - tissue and blood by ingestion
  • cysts will hatch in intestine and migrate to muscle
  • transmitted in undercoked meats
53
Q

What are the characteristics of Echinococcosis?

A
  • Helminth - tissue and blood by ingestion
  • forms hydatid cysts
  • transmission - eggs in dogs feces
  • concern is the dispersal during surgery
  • treatment is to aspirate and remove cysts
54
Q

WHat are the characteristics of schistosomiasis?

A
  • Helminth - skin entry
  • zoonitic transmission - snails and fresh water
  • can cause puritic rash, serum sickness and eosinophilic granulomas
  • treatment - Praziquantel and anti-inflammatories
  • distribution - mainly Africa
55
Q

What are the structural specifics of shistosomiasis species?

A
  • S. mansoni - large lateral spine
  • S. haematobium - large terminal spine
  • S. japonicum - small spine
56
Q

What is the schistosoma life cycle?

A
  • invades snail and develops
  • released into water from snail and pentrates human skin
  • matures and lays eggs in skin
  • human defecates into water and eggs hatch and invade snail
57
Q

What are the characteristics of bird schistosoma?

A
  • invades human skin but does not mature so it dies and causes irritation
58
Q

How is elephantiasis produced?

A
  • wachereria bancrofti parasite invades the lymphatics and clogs the flow resulting in severe edema
  • spread by masquito bites
59
Q

How is onchocerciasis produced?

A
  • spread by black fly bites (onchocerca volvulus parasite)

- River blindness - effects anterior chamber

60
Q

What are the five principles of zoonotic diseases?

A
  • vector specificity
  • limited distribution
  • often intracellular
  • cannot live out of cell
  • not transmitted person-person
61
Q

What are some general characteristics of ticks?

A
  • humans are dead end hosts
  • embedded part of tick causes granuloma
  • removal of tick can cure some toxic effect
  • are most likely biting during mid-spring to mid summer
62
Q

What are the characteristics of colorado tick fever?

A
  • most prominent in Colorado and Utah
  • causes a biphasic fever, low WBC and platlets
  • can cause encephalitis
63
Q

What are five characteristics of rickettsial diseases?

A
  • obligate intracellular
  • penicillin resistant
  • humans are dead end organism
  • serologic diagnosis is limited because of specificity
  • grouped into spotted fevers and typhus
64
Q

Discuss Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A
  • Rickettsiae rickettsii
  • mostly seen in E. US and Missouri
  • causes fever, headache and rash
  • seen with immunofluorescent biopsy
  • treated with doxycycline
65
Q

What are the differences between ehrlichiosis/anaplasmosis and RMSF?

A
  • no rash in ehrlichiosis/anaplasmosis
66
Q

What are the characteristics of Lyme disease?

A
  • Rash initially and can manifest to arthritis and neurologic/heart conditions
  • found in NE US and Wisconsin/Minnesota
67
Q

What are the characteristics of Yellow fever?

A
  • transmitted by the aedes mosquito (usually bite during day)
  • Flavivirus
  • Distribution - central Africa and north half of S. America
  • Vaccine for travelers but prevent mosquito bites
68
Q

What are ways to prevent mosquito bites?

A
  • screen beds
  • long sleeved clothes
  • DEET
  • plan your activity time
69
Q

What are the characteristics of Dengue fever?

A
  • transmitted by aedes mosquito
  • Flavivirus
  • Distribution - along the equator
  • usually self limited but includes musculoskeletal pain
  • can lead to a hemorrhagic fever/shock
70
Q

What are the characteristics of West Nile?

A
  • small percentage of ppl infected are symptomatic
  • can be a neuroinvasive disease (encephalitis)
  • transmitted by the culex mosquito
  • Flavivirus
71
Q

What are the characteristics of Bartonellosis?

A
  • caused by bartonellosis bacilliformis
  • “cat scratch disease”
  • transmitted by sandflies and kittens
  • seen in the Andean valley
72
Q

What are the characteristics of Yersinia pestis?

A
  • painful lymphadenopathy
  • SW US
  • transmitted by fleas
  • treated with doxycycline
73
Q

What are the characteristics of Mycobacterium marinum?

A
  • causes severe cellulitis

- transmitted by saltwater fish

Exam #3 (9 decks)

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