Pediatric newborn assessment Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of a large for gestational age of an infant?

A

Maternal diabetes

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2
Q

What are some ddx for a small for gestational age infant?

A

Maternal drug use, chromosomal abnormalities, exposure to intrauterine viral infection, multiple gestation, advanced maternal age.

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3
Q

A 3 day oldnewborn presents with small pustules on erythematous blotchy base. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Erythema toxicum

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4
Q

A 4 day old newborn presents with small pustules on erythematous blotchy base. What is the tx for the suspected diagnosis?

A

Self limiting; resolves 1-2 weeks

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5
Q

A newborn presents with small, white Papules concentrated on the nose, cheeks, forehead and chin. What is the most likely dx?

A

Milia

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6
Q

A newborn presents with small, white Papules concentrated on the nose, cheeks, forehead and chin. When do these usually resolve!?

A

1-2 months

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7
Q

An AA newborn present with large, blue-black macules concentrated on the back and buttock. What is the most likely diagnosis and what advice should you give the parents?

A

Mongolian spots, resolve most of the time by age 4

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8
Q

A newborn presents with a slightly pink, irregularly shaped lesion on the back of the neck. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Nevus simplex

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9
Q

A newborn presents with a slightly pink, irregularly shaped lesion on the back of the neck. What is the tx and parent education?

A

None. Most resolve spontaneously by age 2, but some can persist. It occurs secondary to surface capillary dilation. Benign

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10
Q

What type of skin conditions are commonly seen in preterm infants?

A

Vernix caseosa and lanugo

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11
Q

What is vernix caseosa?

A

Greasy covering

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12
Q

What is lanugo?

A

Fine hairs

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13
Q

What type of skin condition is commonly seen in post term infants?

A

Dry, cracked, peeling skin

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14
Q

When should the anterior fontanelle be closed? How large should it be initially?

A

Around 10-24 mnths, 1-4 cm

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15
Q

When should the posterior fontanelle be closed? How large should it be initially?

A

1-3 mnths; 1 cm

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16
Q

A newborn presents with a third fontanelle along the Sagittal suture. What disorder is this associated with?

A

Trisomy 21

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17
Q

A newborn presents with premature fusion of one or more sutures. What is the diagnosis and what should happen if these is found on exam?

A

Craniosynostosis; prompt referral to neurologist

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18
Q

A newborn presents with capital succedaneum. What will be found on physical exam?

A

Palpable sweeping crossing the midline

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19
Q

A newborn presents with capital succedaneum. What is the cause?

A

Fluid accumulation secondary to birth trauma

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20
Q

What should posteriorlu rotated or low-set ears prompt suspicion of

A

Congenital abnormalities

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21
Q

A newborn presents with preauricular pits and deafness. What other system should be looked at?

A

GU. Renal ultrasound

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22
Q

How should hearing be assessed in the newborn period?

A

Auditory brain stem response or evoked otoacoustic emission testing

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23
Q

What infants should be screened for hearing?

A

All

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24
Q

A newborn presents with an absent red reflex. What disorders is this associated with?

A

Congenital cataracts, glaucoma, retinoblastoma

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25
A newborn presents with gray/yellow spots at the periphery of th iris. What is this called and what condition is it associated with?
Brushfield spots, Down syndrome
26
What eye disorder is almost always present in the newborn period?
Strabismus. Problem if it is fixed or something persists past 4 mnths if age
27
How is nasal patency tested in the newborn
Test nare individually by placing cold metal object below the nose to check for fogging or using a cotton wisp to check for air movement
28
Why is nasal patency so important in the newborn?
They are obligate nasal breathers. Bilateral obstruction can result in infant death
29
How is choanal atresia or stenosis confirmed in the newborn
AXial CT
30
A newborn presents with small, pearly nodules along the midline of the hard palate. What is the dx and parent education?
Epstein pearls; Benign retention cysts
31
A newborn presents with a small mandible and tongue, along with a clefted soft palate. What is the dx?
Pierre-robin syndrome
32
A newborn is diagnosed with Pierre -robin syndrome. What should you tell the parents about positioning the baby?
Prone positions will often control respiratory difficulties caused by the tongue occluding the airway
33
A newborn presents with large tongue that appeared to be larger than the mouth. What disorderly is this associated with?
Trisomy 21
34
What is a common cause of a newborn having difficulty latching during breast feeding
A shortened frenulum
35
A newborn presents with webbed/redundant skin of neck. What disorder is this associated with?
Turner
36
A newborn presents with a midline mass on the anterior neck. What is the most concerning diagnosis!”?
Thyroidmegaly.
37
A newborn presents with a mass anterior to the SCM. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Brachial cleft
38
A newborn presents with a mass posterior to the SCM. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cystic hygroma
39
A newborn presents with a mass inside the SCM. What are the top two ddx?
Torticollis, hematoma
40
A newborn presents with grunting, intercostal retractions, and tachypnea. PE shows cyanosis. What are the most common causes of the suspected diagnosis?
Aspiration, congenital pneumonia, transient tachypnea
41
What is considered newborn tachypnea?
>60 breaths per min
42
A newborn present with unilateral decreased breathsounds. What are 2 ddx?
Pneumothorax; diaphragmatic hernia
43
A newborn presents with cyanosis, chf, and diminished peripheral pulses, what ddx is the most serious?
Heart dz
44
A newborn presents with a prune belly. What condition is this associated with?
Renal issues Prune belly- absence of musculature
45
A newborn presents with a sever scaphoid belly and respiratory distress. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Diaphragmatic hernia
46
Where should the liver be located in a newborn?
About 1 cm below th coastal Margin
47
A newborn presents with delayed stool (>24 hours after birth). What condition is this associated with?
Hirschsprung disease
48
A newborn presents with a urethra that is proximal and ventral to its normal location. What is the likely diagnosis?
Hypospadias
49
A newborn presents with a urethra that is proximal and ventral to its normal location. What further work up is warranted and what is contraindicated?
Bilateral renal US; circumsicion.
50
What is epispadias?
Dorsal displacement of the urethra
51
When are testes supposed to descend in the newborn?
By 9 mnths is age.
52
At what age should you refer to a pediatric urologist for undescended testes?
Age 1
53
Are inguinal hernias more likely to be seen in a preterm, term, or post term infant “?
Epreterm
54
What is a very common finding in newborn males due to the patency of the process vaginalis?
Hydroceles
55
At what age to hydroceles typically resolve?
18 mnths.
56
A newborn female presents with vaginal leucorrhea and bloody dc within the labia. What is the most likely cause and what should you tell the parents?
Maternal estrogen. Resolve in 7-10 days, but more slowly in breastfed child
57
A newborn female presents with a fused introitus. What medicine can be used to resolve the problem?
Estrogen or beclomethasone cream for 5 to 10 days
58
What is the Barlow maneuver?
An attempt to dislocate the hip via posterior pressure. Examiner adducts fully flexed hips while pushing the thighs posteriorly.
59
What is a positive Barlow?
If the femoral head is felt to dislocate or leave the acetabulum
60
What is the ortolani maneuver?
Attempts to identify a hip that’s dislocated or subluxed.
61
How is the ortolani maneuver performed?
Grasp the medial aspect of the flexed knee with thumb and fully abduct the hips. Feel for a spasm or a clunk as the hips are brought to full abduction
62
What is indicated in a positive Barlow or ortolani maneuver?
Bilateral US
63
What increases the risk for developmental hip dislocation?
Breech position delivery
64
What is talipes equinovarus?
Club foot
65
What is indicated for clubfeet?
Immediate ortho referral
66
What are the 2 earliest infant reflexes?
Sucking and rooting
67
What is the Moro reflex?
Allow the infants head to suddenly drop 1-2 cm; observe for abduction of the shoulders and elbows along with spreading and extending if fingers, followed by addiction and flexion of the same
68
When does the Moro reflex disappear
3-4 mnths
69
When does the palmar/plantar grasp reflex disappear
4 mnths
70
What is the traction response?
Pulling the infant by the arms to a sitting position and observe the head lag initially, finally coming briefly to midline before falling forward
71
Placing reflex?
Infant dangled about the bed, allowing the toe to ha e minimal contact with surface. Extremity will respond w/ flexion is a stepping response
72
How should deep tendon reflexes appear in the newborn
Brisk, clonus May be seen
73
A positive babinski reflex is... in the newborn
Normal. May be seen as late as 2 Years old.
74
A newborn presents with poor feeding, lethargy, jitteriness, tremulousness, and irritability. BLood glucose level is 40. What is the tx for the suspected diagnosis?
A Bolus of dextrose and water (D10W) and IV glucose
75
What maternal disorder most common causes hypoglycemia of the newborn
Diabetes
76
Hypoglycemia of the newborn is associated with way intrauterine complication?
Intrauterine growth restriction
77
How else can hypoglycemia of the newborn present
Asymptotic
78
What is normal blood glucose level at 3 hours of age?
50 to 80
79
A newborn presents with jaundice during the first 24 hours of life. Labs reveal a positive Coombs test, increased reticulocytes, and a decreased H/H. What are the top two differentials?
ABO incompatibility and Rh isoimmunization
80
What is the treatment for a jaundiced baby in the first 24 hours of positive Coombs test?
Transfusion; phototherapy
81
What are the most common causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
Physiologic jaundice, prematurity, and breast feeding jaundice
82
What are the two groups of etiologies for newborn jaundice?
Excess production of bilirubin or decreased rate of conjugation w/ normal reticulocyte counts
83
What are common causes of excess production of bilirubin?
Hemolysis secondary to blood group senstization or hereditary spherocytisis or G6PD
84
What are commonly n causes of decreased rate of conjugation with normal reticulocyte count?
Physiologic jaundice, more uncommon: Gilbert or crigler-najjar syndrome
85
A newborn presents with jaundice 24 hours after birth. What is the MC cause of this jaundice?
Physiological jaundice.
86
A newborn presents with jaundice 4 days after birth. On day 4, the bilirubin level is 10. On day 5 the level is 13, and by day 6 the bilirubin level is at 17. Is treatment indicated at this time?
Yes. Tx hyperbilirubenemia if > 15, or if not descending.
87
What is the tx of hyperbilirubenemia?
Phototherapy
88
A newborn presents with jaundice during the first 24 hours of life. Coombs test is negative. What are the top 2 differentials at this point?
G6PD deficiency, hereditary spherocytosis
89
A newborn presents with jaundice during the first 24 hours of life. Coombs test is negative. A peripheral smear show spherocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hereditary spherocytosis
90
A newborn presents with jaundice during the first 24 hours of life. Coombs test is negative. A peripheral smear show spherocytes what is the recommended tx?
Blood transfusion if severe, phototherapy
91
A newborn presents with bilirubin levels greater than 20-25. What is the most concerning complication?
Kernicterus
92
What are the recommendation for bilirubin screening in the newborn?
All infants before 24 hours
93
newborn presents with jaundice during the first 24 hours of life. Coombs test is negative. A peripheral smear show spherocytes. What other finding may be present on physical exam?
Splenomegaly
94
what is the ortolani maneuver?
grasp medial aspect of knee and abduct hip whil applying anterior force to the femur-results in reduction of hip joint
95
what is the barlow maneuver?
adduct the fully flexed hip while applying posterior force to the femur, resulting in dislocation of the hip