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Pediatrics > Pediatirc Shelf > Flashcards

Pediatirc Shelf Flashcards

1
Q

What causes Acute cerebellar ataxia, opsoclonus, myoclonic encephalopathy?

A

Neuroblastoma

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2
Q

Where does Neuroblastoma’s arise from?

A

Neural crest cells

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3
Q

In a kid what can give you an abdominal mass, fever, anemia and weight loss?

A

Neuroblastoma

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4
Q

What is “dancing eyes and dancing feet” associated with?

A

Neuroblastoma

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5
Q

What are the diagnostic test for Neuroblastoma?

A

CT scan or ultrasound of the abdomen. Urine VMA, HVA

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6
Q

What gives you a poor outcome in Neuroblastoma?

A

High MYCN gene expression456

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7
Q

What childhood tumor is associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

Wilms tumor

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8
Q

What is associated with aniridia (absent iris), macroglossia, visceromegally and hemihypertrophy?

A

Wilms Tumor

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9
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Wilms tumor?

A

CBC, BUN, Cr, UA and abdominal ultrasound

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10
Q

In a 5 yr old kid what can give you fever, HTN, nontender abdominal mass, abdominal pain and hematuria

A

Wilms Tumor

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11
Q

What tumor in a kid presents with flank pain, hematuria and a mass?

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma

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12
Q

What is the most common soft tissue malignancy in childhood?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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13
Q

What is the most common malignant bone tumor in children?

A

Osteosarcoma

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14
Q

What translocation is associated with Ewing Sarcoma?

A

11:22 translocation

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15
Q

What bone tumor gives you cancer in the midshaft of long bones, leukocytosis, elevated sedimentation rate, and lytic bone lesions with onion skin periosteal reaction on x-ray?

A

Ewing Sarcoma

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16
Q

Which bone tumor in kids give you cancer in the metaphyses, elevated alkaline phosphatase and sunburst lytic bone lesions?

A

Osteosarcoma

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17
Q

Tennis-racquet shaped birbeck granules are seen? And where are these granules found?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis. These granules are found in the histiocytes

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18
Q

What condition can mimic retinoblastoma?

A

Ocular toxocariasis

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19
Q

What would the CBC show in toxocariasis?

A

Eosinophilia

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20
Q

How would you diagnose retinoblastoma?

A

Slit lamp exam

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21
Q

Where do you fine juvenile polyps and what symptom do they cause?

A

Found in the colon and they cause painless rectal bleeding

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22
Q

Where are astrocytomas commonly found?

A

Cerebellum

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23
Q

What brain tumor is associated with neurofibromatosis?

A

Brain stem glioma

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24
Q

Uniform enlargement of the testicle?

A

Seminoma

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25
Q

Painless mass in the right hypochondrium leading to weight loss, anorexia, nausea and vomiting

A

Hepatoblastoma

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26
Q

What is the treatment for Pertussis?

A

Macrolide like azithromycin, erythromycin, and clarithromycin

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27
Q

How do you treat lyme disease?

A

If 8 doxyclycline

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28
Q

What kind of hearing loss do you get with ear infections?

A

Conductive hearing loss

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29
Q

What kind of hearing loss do you get with congenital rubella infection?

A

Sensorinueural hearing loss

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30
Q

What is post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies?

A

Rabies immunoglobulin and vaccine

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31
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis?

A

Enteroviruses like echovirus and coxsacjie virus

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32
Q

What are the causes of neonatal bacterial meningitis?

A
  1. Group B strep
  2. E.coli
  3. Listeria
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33
Q

What are the causes of bacterial meningitis >1month

A
  1. Strep Pneumo
  2. Nisseria meningitidis
  3. H. Flu
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34
Q

How would you treat bacterial meningtis in a neonate?

A

Ampicillin and Gentamicin

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35
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis in childen

A

Ceftriaxone

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36
Q

What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease?

A

Salmonella and staph aureus

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37
Q

What is the treatment for pinworms?

A

Albendazole

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38
Q

What are the symptoms for congenital syphilis?

A

Jaundice, anemoa, lesions on palms and soles, hepatosplenomegaly, rhinnorhea

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39
Q

How do you treat unilateral cervical lymphadenitis?

A

Clindamycin

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40
Q

What is the most common complication of mumps?

A

Orchitis

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41
Q

What is the treatment for minor cat bite wounds?

A

Amoxicillin/Clavulanate

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42
Q

What organisms are a big concern for sickle cell patients?

A
  1. Strep pneumo
  2. H. Flu
  3. N. meningitis
  4. Salmonella
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43
Q

What organisms cause bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A

Strep pneumo, h.flu(nontypeable), moraxella catarrhalis

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44
Q

What is the treatment for rhinosinusitis?

A

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

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45
Q

What is the treatment of choice for impetigo?

A

Topical mupirocin

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46
Q

When should you start to supplement iron in a baby?

A

After 4months if baby is breastfed

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47
Q

What is the iron requirment in breast fed babies after 4months? After 6months? After 1yr

A

4 months= 1mg/kg/day
6-12months= 11mg/day
1yr-3yr= 7mg/day

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48
Q

What is the iron requirement for premies and why do they need this?

A

Premies need supplemental iron from the start because most maternal iron is transferred via placenta in the 3rd trimester. They need 2mg/kg/day until weaned from breastmilk

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49
Q

When do you start to supplement fluoride in babies?

A

At 6 months

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50
Q

How long is breastmilk the best source of nutrition for a baby?

A

First 6 months of life

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51
Q

What is wrong with goat milk?

A

It lacks iron and folic acid which can cause a megaloblastic anemia. It may also contain toxoplasma gondii

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52
Q

How do you determine how much formula per oz is needed in a baby?

A

age in months + 3= oz of formula per feed

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53
Q

When is it appropriate to start giving table foods?

A

1yr

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54
Q

What is the sequence of introducing juice and foods in a baby?

A

At 6months you can start introducing fruit juice, cereal, and boiled eggs. After that then vegetables one at a time, then fruit one at a time, then meats

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55
Q

What is physiologic carotenemia?

A

Its a condition where babies have yellow skin without icterus due to eating vegetables that has carotene in them. Usually occurs around 6-18months. Benign condition

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56
Q

What are some things you should not give the baby to eat in the first year of life?

A

Cow milk, goat milk, formula without iron, honey, corn syrup, egg whites

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57
Q

When should infants regain their birthweight?

A

10days of life

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58
Q

When does a baby Coos. socially smiles

A

6weeks

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59
Q

When does a baby Follows an object at 180 degrees on ventral suspension

A

8weeks

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60
Q

When does a baby Moro reflex disappears. Reaches out and misses object

A

12weeks

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61
Q

When does a baby Reaches out and grasps object and puts in mouth. No head lag, pushes down with feet, good truncal support, head held at 90 degrees to body in prone position.

A

16weeks

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62
Q

When does a baby Rolls over prone to supine. transfers objects from one hand to another. Babbles and bounces

A

28weeks

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63
Q

When does a baby Sits up unaided. Pulls to standing position. assisted pincer movement. mama and dada

A

40wks

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64
Q

When does a baby Cruise. know two words other than mama and dada. unassisted pincer movement

A

52weeks

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65
Q

When does a baby Whines when diaper wet and done eating. walks upstairs assisted. speaks 10words.

A

18months

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66
Q

When does a baby Walks up and down stairs. gets in trouble. puts words together

A

24months

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67
Q

When does a baby Goes upstairs alternating feet. Jumps. Knows full name. Uses “I”

A

30months

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68
Q

When does a baby Rides tricycle. copies a circle. counts 3 objects. builds a bridge of 3 cubes

A

36months

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69
Q

When does a baby Hops. cuts picture with scissors. plays with other children. throws a ball overhand. tells a story. goes to toilet.

A

48months

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70
Q

When does a baby SKips, name colors, ask lots of questions. dresses and undresses

A

60months

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71
Q

When is the first dental visit recommended?

A

1yr

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72
Q

When should a kid begin potty training and brushing teeth?

A

2yrs

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73
Q

What is thin white odorless muciod vaginal discharge preceeding menarche by 3-6months?

A

Physiologic leukorrhea

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74
Q

What is the treatment for central precocious puberty?

A

GnRH agonist like leuprolide acetate

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75
Q

What age should you be worried about delayed puberty in girls?

A

13yrs

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76
Q

What age should you be worried about delayed puberty in boys?

A

14yrs

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77
Q

What is the signal for pubertal GnRH release?

A

Kisspeptin

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78
Q

What does FSH do?

A

Stimulates ovarian follicle and seminiferous tubules

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79
Q

What does LH do?

A

Stimulates leydig cells and theca cells

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80
Q

What are the sign of a craniophyriangioma?

A

Growth failure, diabetes insipidus, bitemporal hemianopsia

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81
Q

What are the signs of mild dehydration?

A

Tachycardia

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82
Q

What are the signs of moderate dehydration?

A

sunken eyes, sunken fontanelle, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, oliguria, transient tenting

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83
Q

What are the signs of severe dehydration?

A

deeply sunken eyes, deeply sunken fontanelles, parches mucous membranes, hypotension, thready pulse, persistent tenting, anuria

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84
Q

What is oliguria?

A

dcrease urine output= 0.5mL/kg/hr

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85
Q

What is the normal urine output for a child?

A

1-2mL/kg/hr

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86
Q

What is the sequence of events for neonatal resuscitation in a baby who is not breathing/crying or have good tone?

A
  1. Stimulate baby
  2. Positive pressure ventilation
  3. Correct positive pressure ventilation
  4. Intubate, chest compression, positive pressure ventilation
  5. IV epinephrine
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87
Q

What is the sequence of asphyxia?

A

apnea–>bradycardia–>cardiac arrest

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88
Q

What condition would you use therapeutic hypothermia for?

A

Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

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89
Q

What kind of problems should you be worried about post resuscitation?

A
  1. Hypothermia
  2. Hypoglycemia
  3. Hypoxia and Acidosis
  4. Hypotension/Hypovolemia
  5. Sepsis
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90
Q

What does symptomatic hypoglycemia in a baby look like?

A

Jitterness, apnea, lethargy, poor feeding, tachypnea, cyanosis, seizures

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91
Q

What could happen if you give sodium bicarbonate to a premature baby to rapidly?

A

Intraventricular hemorrhage

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92
Q

What is considered hypotension in a neonate?

A

Blood pressure

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93
Q

What is a choledochus cyst?

A

Its a condition in older children where there is impaired excretion of bilirubin and presents with sudden abdominal pain, RUQ mass, and jaundice

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94
Q

What is the picture for ABO incompatibility?

A

Mom is O and baby is either A or B

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95
Q

What level of bilirubin should you start worrying about kernicterus?

A

> 20mg/dL

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96
Q

What gives you familial intrahepatic cholestasis, long nose w/bulbous tip, short stature, heart disease?

A

Alagille Syndrome

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97
Q

What is the contraindication for phototherapy?

A

Porphyria

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98
Q

How many hrs qualify you for prolonged rupture of membranes?

A

> 18hrs

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99
Q

What is the best test to diagnose esophageal atresia?

A

Chest x-ray

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100
Q

What is the best test to diagnose choanal atresia?

A
  1. NG tube

2. CT scan

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101
Q

What is the best test to diagnose duodenal atresia?

A

Abdominal x-ray

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102
Q

What is the best test for pyloric stenosis?

A

Abdominal ultrasound

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103
Q

What is the best test for hirschsprung disease?

A
  1. Abdominal x-ray

2. Rectal suction biopsy

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104
Q

What age determines precocious puberty for african american girl?

A
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105
Q

What age determines precocious puberty for boys?

A
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106
Q

What age determines precocious puberty for caucasian girls?

A
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107
Q

What would the WBC count show for neonatal sepsis?

A
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108
Q

What age in weeks determines premature preterm rupture of membranes?

A
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109
Q

What are the signs of respiratory distress in a neonate?

A

Tachpnea, grunting, nasal flaring, retracting, and cyanosis

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110
Q

What are risk factors for RDS?

A
  1. Prematurity
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111
Q

What can decrease the risk of RDS?

A

Prolonged rupture of membranes

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112
Q

What does the blood gas profile show for RDS?

A

Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis

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113
Q

How would you give surfactant to a baby in RDS?

A

Through endotracheal tube

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114
Q

What can you give the mother to try and prevent RDS in a premature baby and when would you give it?

A

Give betamethasone or dexamethasone 24-48hrs before delivery

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115
Q

What are risk factors for meconium aspiration?

A
  1. Fetal distress
  2. Post-term
  3. Breech deliveries
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116
Q

What is the chest x-ray finding in meconium aspiration?

A

Honeycomb lung and later the white out effect

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117
Q

What is a complication of chronic in-utero meconium aspiration?

A

Persistent pulmonary HTN

118
Q

What are two risk factors for a baby to get a pneumothorax?

A
  1. RDS

2. Meconium aspiration

119
Q

If you have a vigourous infant with meconium present, do you suction the baby?

120
Q

What part of the intestines is involved in necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

Terminal ileum and colon

121
Q

Who do you see necrotizing enterocolitis most often present in?

A

Premature babies who are formula fed

122
Q

What are the x-ray findings in necrotizing enterocolitis?

A
  1. Dilated loops of bowel
  2. Pneumotosis intestinalis
  3. Ascites
  4. Pneumoperitoneum
123
Q

What is the treatment for necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

NPO, NG tube, IV fluids, antibiotics

124
Q

What is the best inital test for volvulus?

A

Abdominal x-ray

125
Q

What is the best initial test for duodenal atresia?

A

Abdominal x-ray

126
Q

What is the best initial test for intersucception?

A

Ultrasound

127
Q

What is the double bubble sign associated with?

A

Duodenal atresia

128
Q

What is the donut sign associated with?

A

Intersucception

129
Q

What kind of atopic tissue is found in meckels diverticulum?

A

Gastric and pancreatic tissue

130
Q

What is the pathopneumonic sign for meckels diverticulum?

A

Painless rectal bleeding

131
Q

What is the best test for meckels diverticulum?

A

Technitium 99 scan

132
Q

What would you suspect with a kid who comes in that has been playing in a stream of water with profuse foul smelling diarrhea?

A

Giardia infection

133
Q

How do you treat Giardia infectious diarrhea?

A

Metronidazole

134
Q

When should you suspect cryptosporidia?

A

Immunocompromised patient with diarrhea

135
Q

What are the causes of infectious diarrhea?

A

Yersinia, e.coli, salmonella, shigella, campylobacter, c.diff

136
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children under age 2?

137
Q

What gives you a fever, vomiting, watery non bloody diarrhea?

138
Q

Where does HSV-1 lie dormant?

A

Trigeminal ganglion

139
Q

Where does HSV-2 lie dormant?

A

Sacral ganglion

140
Q

What is the treatment for Herpetic gingivo stomatitis?

141
Q

Where does the varicella zoster virus lie dormant?

A

Dorsal root ganglia

142
Q

What causes a rash in patient with infectious mono?

A

Giving ampicillin or amoxicillin

143
Q

What gives you a fever, sore throat, cervical lymph nodes, pruritic sandpaper rash?

A

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

144
Q

What is the treatment for arcanobacterium haemolyticum?

A

Erythromycin

145
Q

What is the cause of rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Rickettisia rickettsii

146
Q

What is the rash characteristic of rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

rash on wrists ankles hands and feet

147
Q

What is the quick way to diagose rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Immunoflourescent of skin lesions

148
Q

What is the treatment for rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Doxycycline and rocephin

149
Q

What causes lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi tick

150
Q

What are the symptoms of lyme disease?

A
  1. Erythema migrans
  2. Neurologic symptoms like facial weakness and pseudotumor cerebri
  3. arthritis
151
Q

What is the treatment for lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline or amoxicillin

152
Q

How do you treat babesiosis?

A

Clindamycin

153
Q

What is herpangina and what causes it?

A

Condition that leads to vesicles on the tonsilar pillars and fever. Caused by coxsackie A virus

154
Q

What other condition does coxsackie A cause?

A

Hand foot and mouth disease

155
Q

What condition gives you a lacy rash and slapped cheeks? What causes it?

A

Erythema infectiosum. Caused by parvovirus B19

156
Q

What condition gives you a christmas tree rash on the trunk and is preceded by a herald patch?

A

Pityriasis rosea

157
Q

What causes pityriasis rosea?

158
Q

What is the treatment for meningococcal disease?

A

IV penicillin

159
Q

What is the treatment for kawasaki disease?

A

Aspirin and gamma globin

160
Q

What bug causes otitis externa?

A
  1. Pseudomonas

2. Staph aureus

161
Q

What is acute myringitis?

A

Inflammation of the ear drum

162
Q

What is Lemierres disease?

A

This is a condition that is usually preceded by an oropharyngeal infection and causes suppurative thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein

163
Q

What causes Lemierres disease?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

164
Q

What is the best test for Lemierres disease?

A

CT/ultrasound

165
Q

What is constitutional growth delay?

166
Q

What is familial short stature?

A

Bone age=real age. Kid and parents all short

167
Q

In what condition is the bone age> real age?

168
Q

When is urinary continence obtained by?

169
Q

When is fecal continence obtained by?

170
Q

What is the pharmacologic treatment for urinary incontinence?

A

Desmopressin or imipramine

171
Q

What immunizations are due at birth?

172
Q

What immunizations are due at 2mo,4mo,6mo?

A
  1. IPV
  2. Rotavirus
  3. H.flu
  4. Hep B
  5. DTAP
  6. PCV
173
Q

What immunization starts at 6mo and is given yearly?

174
Q

What immunizations are given at 12mo?

A

MMR, Varicella, Hep A

175
Q

What immunization is given at 12yrs?

A

TDAP booster, HPV, meningococcal vaccine

176
Q

What immunization is given at 2yrs?

A

DTAP and HepA

177
Q

What immunizations are due before kindergarden?

A

Last IPV and DTAP, MMR and varicella

178
Q

What is a contraindication to flu vaccine?

A

Egg allergy

179
Q

What is a contraindication to MMR vaccine?

A

Allergy to neomycin or streptomycin which is a component of MMR vaccine

180
Q

Why cant you give MMR and varicella before 12months?

A

Because they are live vaccines and kids under 12months cant have live vaccines

181
Q

What arrhythmia is associated with ebstein anomaly heart defect?

A

Wolf parkinson white

182
Q

What is the heart defect associated with digeorge syndrome?

A

Truncus arteriosus

183
Q

What is the most common congenital heart lesion?

184
Q

What is the most common heart defect in down syndrome?

A

endocardial cushion defect

185
Q

What is the treatment for measles?

A

Vitamin A and supportive care

186
Q

Kid has multiple excoriations on his arms and is itchy at night, what is this?

187
Q

How do you treat scabies?

A

Permetrin for whole family

188
Q

What is the treatment for otitis externa?

A

Topical ciprofloxacin

189
Q

What is the treatment for strep pharyngitis?

A

Penicillin

190
Q

Kid comes in with a hot potatoe voice and uvula is deviated, what is this?

A

Peritonsillar abscess

191
Q

What is the treatment for croup?

A

Racemic epinephrine

192
Q

What is staccato cough associated with?

A

Chlamydia pneumonia

193
Q

What is the treatment for pertussis?

A

erythromycin

194
Q

What vaccinations does a sickle cell patient need?

A

23 valent pneumococcus, H. Flu, neisseria meningitis

195
Q

What kind of prophylactic measures does a patient with sickle cell need?

A

Penicillin from 2mo-6yrs

196
Q

What syndrome has low platelets, low WBCs, profound anemia, cafe-au-lait spots, microcephaly, and absent thumbs

A

Fanconi anemia

197
Q

What is the problem in PKU?

A

Deficient in phenyalanine hydroxylase so you get a build up of phenyalanine which can affect the brain

198
Q

What are the symptoms of homocystinuria?

A

mental retardation, thromboembolic events, marfan like features, seizures, lens malposition

199
Q

What is the treatment for homocystinuria?

A

B6 and folic acid

200
Q

What is the problem in maple syrup disease?

A

Failure of decarboxylation of leucine, isoleuicine, and valine so they accumulate in the blood and cause FTT, vomiting, lethargy, seizures and hypoglycemia

201
Q

How do you treat maple syrup disease?

A

IV fluids and diet low in branched amino acids

202
Q

What is alcaptonuria?

A

When you have a deficiency in HGA oxidase and HGA is excreted in the urine and you get a black stained diaper

203
Q

What can give you poor feeding, vomiting, seizures and hyperammonia and elevated ALT and AST?

A

Urea cycle defect

204
Q

What is the value for a normal anion gap?

205
Q

What are some conditions that can cause elavated ammonia levels in the blood?

A

Reye syndrome, urea cycle defects, fatty acid oxidation defects, organic acidemias

206
Q

What is Von Gierkes disease?

A

This is a glycogen storage disease that causes hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly through a deficiency in glucose 6 phosphatase

207
Q

What is Pompe disease?

A

This is a glycogen storage disease that causes hypotonia and hepatomegaly through a deficiency in alpha 1, 4 glucosidase

208
Q

What condition gives you prolonged jaundice, poor feeding, weight loss, vomiting, hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly and cataracts?

A

Galactosemia

209
Q

What can cause a gray/white membrane in the pharynx and bull neck?

A

Diphtheria

210
Q

What is the treatment for Diphtheria?

A

Antitoxin and penicillin

211
Q

What causes epiglottis?

A

H. Flu type B

212
Q

What causes viral croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

213
Q

What causes bacterial tracheitis?

A

Staph aureus

214
Q

What is the diagnosis if a patient has stridor with an absent thymus?

A

DiGeorge syndrome

215
Q

What are the three most common causes of congenital stridor?

A

Laryngomalacia, vocal cord paralysis, congenital subglottic stenosis

216
Q

What causes laryngeal papillomatosis?

A

HPV 6 and 11

217
Q

What is the most common complication/cause of death for pertussis?

A

Pneumonia due to staph or strep pneumo

218
Q

What kind of asthma gives you daily symptoms and atleast 1x per week night time awakenings?

A

Moderate persistent asthma

219
Q

What kind of asthma gives you symptoms

A

Intermittent asthma

220
Q

What kind of asthma gives you symptoms throughout the day and often night time awakenings?

A

Severe persistent asthma

221
Q

What kind of asthma gives you symptoms >2 days per week and 3-4 times per month?

A

Mild persistent asthma

222
Q

Wheezing child with nasal polyps what do you think of?

A

Cystic fibrosis

223
Q

What is the inheritance of Bruton agammaglobinemia?

224
Q

What is unique about Bruton agammaglobinemia?

A

Absent B cells, absent tonsils,

225
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Wiskott Aldrich syndrome?

A

X-linked recessive

226
Q

What is the pneumonic for Wiskott Aldrich syndrome and what does it stand for?

A

A big guy with a big TOE

Thrombocytopenia, otits media, eczema

227
Q

What causes hereditary angioedema?

A

C1 esterase deficency

228
Q

What is the CATCH 22 syndrome associated with and what does it stand for?

A

Associated with DiGeorge syndrome

Cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic hypoplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcemia

229
Q

What abdominal problem is rotavirus vaccine associated with?

A

Interssucception

230
Q

What is unique about CVID disease?

A

Frequent GI and respiratory

Low IgG and IgA

231
Q

What can give you an EEG pattern of hypsarrhythmia?

A

Infantile spasms

232
Q

What is the treatment for infantile spasms?

233
Q

What is the imaging test of choice in patients with seizures?

234
Q

What is a akinetic seizure?

A

Brief loss of muscle tone causing a patient to fall to the ground

235
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive

236
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for myotonic muscular dystrophy?

A

Autsomal dominant

237
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Becker muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive

238
Q

What signs would you get with a anterior fossa basilar fracture?

A

CSF rhinorrhea and periorbital ecchymoses

239
Q

What signs would you get with a middle fossa fracture?

A

hemotympanum, CSF otorrhea, mastoid ecchymoses

240
Q

What signs would you get with a posterior fossa fracture?

A

brainstem compression

241
Q

Which bug can cause a pseudoappendicitis?

242
Q

What bacteria is associated with guillian barre syndrome?

A

Campylobacter

243
Q

Bag of worms is associated with?

A

varicocele

244
Q

What inflammatory bowel disease gives you pseudopolyps?

A

Ulcerative colitis

245
Q

What would you see on colonoscopy in ulcerative colitis?

A

Air filled colon with loss of haustral striations

246
Q

Which inflammatory bowl disease can give you granulomas?

A

Crohns disease

247
Q

What is the diagmostic test for crohns disease?

A

Upper GI series and SBFT

248
Q

What is the diagnostic test for ulcerative colitis?

A

Colonoscopy with biopsy

249
Q

What is the treatment for IBS?

A

Antispasmodics, increased fiber, probiotics

250
Q

What disease is associated wit dermatitis herpatiformis?

A

Celiac disease

251
Q

String sign on barium enema is associated with what condition?

A

Pyloric stenosis

252
Q

Bilious vomiting without abdominal distention occurring after birth is what?

A

Duodenal atresia

253
Q

Bilious vomiting with abdominal distension in a baby can alert you to what?

254
Q

What condition presents with bilious vomiting, abdominal distension, absent stools, and Multiple air fluid levels(multiple bubbles) on abdominal x-ray?

A

Atresia of jejunum and ileum

255
Q

What is the treatment of meconium ileus?

A

Gastrograffin enema

256
Q

Whats the diagnostic test for hirschsprund disease?

A

Barium enema

257
Q

What condition gives you dilated loops of bowel of abdominal x-ray, abdominal distension, bilious vomiting, and failure to pass meconium for 48hrs?

A

Neonatal hypoplastic left colon syndrome

258
Q

What should you think of with painless rectal bleeding in a toddler?

A

Meckels diverticulum

259
Q

What cardiac defect gives you the most severe cyanosis at birth and what is the chest x-ray finding?

A

Transposition of the great vessels and egg on side appearance

260
Q

What cardiac defect can give you all weak or absent pulses and what would the chest x-ray show?

A

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome and cardiomegaly on x-ray

261
Q

What cardiac condition is exactly like an ASD? What differentiates these two conditions?

A

Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage. Cyanosis differentiates the two conditions.

262
Q

What is the chest x-ray finding in total anomalous pulmonary venous return?

A

Snow man appearance

263
Q

What are the features of tetrology of fallot?

A
  1. Pulmonic stenosis
  2. Overriding aorta
  3. VSD
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
264
Q

What is the chest x-ray finding in tetrology of fallot?

A

Boot shaped heart

265
Q

What is ebstein anomaly and what causes it?

A

Ebstein anomaly is a cardiac defect due to lithium exposure in the first trimester that causes a downward shift of the tricuspid valve into the right venticle causes a bigger right atrium and smaller right venrticle. In this defect a patent foramen ovale is present to shunt blood

266
Q

What is a complication of having an ebstein anomaly other than cyanosis?

A

Paraoxysmal supraventricular tachycardias

267
Q

What are the symptoms for acute myocarditis and what causes it?

A 
(2 tachys and 2 megalies)
1. Tachycardia
2. Tachypnea
3. Cardiomegaly
4. Hepatomegaly
5. Chest pain, grunting, retractions
Caused by coxsackie B, adenovirus, chagas
268
Q

What are some treatment for SVT?

A

carotid massage, valsalva, ice on face. adenosine

269
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for HOCM?

A

autosomal dominant

270
Q

What is the treatment for HOCM?

A

beta blockers

271
Q

What coagulation factors does liver disease affect?

272
Q

What coagulation factors does vitamin K deficiency affect?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

273
Q

What chromosome defect is associated with retinoblastoma?

A

Chromosome 13

274
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for retinoblastoma?

A

Autosomal dominant

275
Q

What is the diagnostic test for retinoblastoma?

A

Slit lamp exam

276
Q

What would these values look like foe central diabetes insipidus? urine specific gravity, serum Na, serum osmolality, urine osmolality

A
  1. Specific gravity low
  2. Serum Na elevated (hypernatremia)
  3. Serum osmolality high >300
  4. Urine osmolality low
277
Q

What is the key diagmostic principle for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

No response to desmopressin

278
Q

If a baby presents with a large posterior fontanel, lethargy, poor feeding, large tongue, hoarse cry, dry skin, and prolonged jaundice what is causing this?

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

279
Q

What condition are these antibodies associated with? Thyroid antiperoxidase antibodies and antithyroglobin antibodies

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

280
Q

What is the treatment of thyroid storm?

A

Propanolol

281
Q

What is the treatment for hyperthyroidism?

A

Methimazole

282
Q

What is the treatment for hypothyroidism?

A

levothyroxine

283
Q

What is the treatment for subacute thyroiditis?

A

Beta blockers and steroids

284
Q

What are the lab values for hypoparathyroidism?

A
  1. Low PTH
  2. Low calcium
  3. High phosphorus
285
Q

What are the lab values for psuedohypoparathyroidism?

A
  1. High PTH
  2. Low calcium
  3. High phosphorus
286
Q

What are the lab values for hyperparathyroidism?

A
  1. High PTH
  2. High calcium
  3. Low phosphorus
287
Q

What are the 3 zones of the adrenal gland and what do they produce?

A

Zone 1–>zona glomerulosa–>aldosterone
Zone 2–>zona fasciculata–>cortisol
Zone 3–>zona reticularis–> androgens

288
Q

What is the pathway to epinephrine? and where is it made?

A

Made in the adrenal medulla

tyrosine–>DOPA–>Dopamine–>norepinephrine–> epinephrine

289
Q

What is the treatment for raynaud disease?

A

calcium channel blockers

290
Q

What is the treatment for acute rheumatic fever?

A

oral penicillin or erythromycin

291
Q

What is the mnemonic for acute rheumatic fever?

A

JONES FAAP

Pediatrics (3 decks)

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