Pediatirc Shelf Flashcards

1
Q

What causes Acute cerebellar ataxia, opsoclonus, myoclonic encephalopathy?

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does Neuroblastoma’s arise from?

A

Neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In a kid what can give you an abdominal mass, fever, anemia and weight loss?

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is “dancing eyes and dancing feet” associated with?

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the diagnostic test for Neuroblastoma?

A

CT scan or ultrasound of the abdomen. Urine VMA, HVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What gives you a poor outcome in Neuroblastoma?

A

High MYCN gene expression456

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What childhood tumor is associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

Wilms tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is associated with aniridia (absent iris), macroglossia, visceromegally and hemihypertrophy?

A

Wilms Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Wilms tumor?

A

CBC, BUN, Cr, UA and abdominal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In a 5 yr old kid what can give you fever, HTN, nontender abdominal mass, abdominal pain and hematuria

A

Wilms Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What tumor in a kid presents with flank pain, hematuria and a mass?

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common soft tissue malignancy in childhood?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common malignant bone tumor in children?

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What translocation is associated with Ewing Sarcoma?

A

11:22 translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What bone tumor gives you cancer in the midshaft of long bones, leukocytosis, elevated sedimentation rate, and lytic bone lesions with onion skin periosteal reaction on x-ray?

A

Ewing Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which bone tumor in kids give you cancer in the metaphyses, elevated alkaline phosphatase and sunburst lytic bone lesions?

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tennis-racquet shaped birbeck granules are seen? And where are these granules found?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis. These granules are found in the histiocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What condition can mimic retinoblastoma?

A

Ocular toxocariasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What would the CBC show in toxocariasis?

A

Eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How would you diagnose retinoblastoma?

A

Slit lamp exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where do you fine juvenile polyps and what symptom do they cause?

A

Found in the colon and they cause painless rectal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where are astrocytomas commonly found?

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What brain tumor is associated with neurofibromatosis?

A

Brain stem glioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Uniform enlargement of the testicle?

A

Seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Painless mass in the right hypochondrium leading to weight loss, anorexia, nausea and vomiting
Hepatoblastoma
26
What is the treatment for Pertussis?
Macrolide like azithromycin, erythromycin, and clarithromycin
27
How do you treat lyme disease?
If 8 doxyclycline
28
What kind of hearing loss do you get with ear infections?
Conductive hearing loss
29
What kind of hearing loss do you get with congenital rubella infection?
Sensorinueural hearing loss
30
What is post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies?
Rabies immunoglobulin and vaccine
31
What is the most common cause of viral meningitis?
Enteroviruses like echovirus and coxsacjie virus
32
What are the causes of neonatal bacterial meningitis?
1. Group B strep 2. E.coli 3. Listeria
33
What are the causes of bacterial meningitis >1month
1. Strep Pneumo 2. Nisseria meningitidis 3. H. Flu
34
How would you treat bacterial meningtis in a neonate?
Ampicillin and Gentamicin
35
What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis in childen
Ceftriaxone
36
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease?
Salmonella and staph aureus
37
What is the treatment for pinworms?
Albendazole
38
What are the symptoms for congenital syphilis?
Jaundice, anemoa, lesions on palms and soles, hepatosplenomegaly, rhinnorhea
39
How do you treat unilateral cervical lymphadenitis?
Clindamycin
40
What is the most common complication of mumps?
Orchitis
41
What is the treatment for minor cat bite wounds?
Amoxicillin/Clavulanate
42
What organisms are a big concern for sickle cell patients?
1. Strep pneumo 2. H. Flu 3. N. meningitis 4. Salmonella
43
What organisms cause bacterial rhinosinusitis?
Strep pneumo, h.flu(nontypeable), moraxella catarrhalis
44
What is the treatment for rhinosinusitis?
Amoxicillin/clavulanate
45
What is the treatment of choice for impetigo?
Topical mupirocin
46
When should you start to supplement iron in a baby?
After 4months if baby is breastfed
47
What is the iron requirment in breast fed babies after 4months? After 6months? After 1yr
4 months= 1mg/kg/day 6-12months= 11mg/day 1yr-3yr= 7mg/day
48
What is the iron requirement for premies and why do they need this?
Premies need supplemental iron from the start because most maternal iron is transferred via placenta in the 3rd trimester. They need 2mg/kg/day until weaned from breastmilk
49
When do you start to supplement fluoride in babies?
At 6 months
50
How long is breastmilk the best source of nutrition for a baby?
First 6 months of life
51
What is wrong with goat milk?
It lacks iron and folic acid which can cause a megaloblastic anemia. It may also contain toxoplasma gondii
52
How do you determine how much formula per oz is needed in a baby?
age in months + 3= oz of formula per feed
53
When is it appropriate to start giving table foods?
1yr
54
What is the sequence of introducing juice and foods in a baby?
At 6months you can start introducing fruit juice, cereal, and boiled eggs. After that then vegetables one at a time, then fruit one at a time, then meats
55
What is physiologic carotenemia?
Its a condition where babies have yellow skin without icterus due to eating vegetables that has carotene in them. Usually occurs around 6-18months. Benign condition
56
What are some things you should not give the baby to eat in the first year of life?
Cow milk, goat milk, formula without iron, honey, corn syrup, egg whites
57
When should infants regain their birthweight?
10days of life
58
When does a baby Coos. socially smiles
6weeks
59
When does a baby Follows an object at 180 degrees on ventral suspension
8weeks
60
When does a baby Moro reflex disappears. Reaches out and misses object
12weeks
61
When does a baby Reaches out and grasps object and puts in mouth. No head lag, pushes down with feet, good truncal support, head held at 90 degrees to body in prone position.
16weeks
62
When does a baby Rolls over prone to supine. transfers objects from one hand to another. Babbles and bounces
28weeks
63
When does a baby Sits up unaided. Pulls to standing position. assisted pincer movement. mama and dada
40wks
64
When does a baby Cruise. know two words other than mama and dada. unassisted pincer movement
52weeks
65
When does a baby Whines when diaper wet and done eating. walks upstairs assisted. speaks 10words.
18months
66
When does a baby Walks up and down stairs. gets in trouble. puts words together
24months
67
When does a baby Goes upstairs alternating feet. Jumps. Knows full name. Uses "I"
30months
68
When does a baby Rides tricycle. copies a circle. counts 3 objects. builds a bridge of 3 cubes
36months
69
When does a baby Hops. cuts picture with scissors. plays with other children. throws a ball overhand. tells a story. goes to toilet.
48months
70
When does a baby SKips, name colors, ask lots of questions. dresses and undresses
60months
71
When is the first dental visit recommended?
1yr
72
When should a kid begin potty training and brushing teeth?
2yrs
73
What is thin white odorless muciod vaginal discharge preceeding menarche by 3-6months?
Physiologic leukorrhea
74
What is the treatment for central precocious puberty?
GnRH agonist like leuprolide acetate
75
What age should you be worried about delayed puberty in girls?
13yrs
76
What age should you be worried about delayed puberty in boys?
14yrs
77
What is the signal for pubertal GnRH release?
Kisspeptin
78
What does FSH do?
Stimulates ovarian follicle and seminiferous tubules
79
What does LH do?
Stimulates leydig cells and theca cells
80
What are the sign of a craniophyriangioma?
Growth failure, diabetes insipidus, bitemporal hemianopsia
81
What are the signs of mild dehydration?
Tachycardia
82
What are the signs of moderate dehydration?
sunken eyes, sunken fontanelle, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, oliguria, transient tenting
83
What are the signs of severe dehydration?
deeply sunken eyes, deeply sunken fontanelles, parches mucous membranes, hypotension, thready pulse, persistent tenting, anuria
84
What is oliguria?
dcrease urine output= 0.5mL/kg/hr
85
What is the normal urine output for a child?
1-2mL/kg/hr
86
What is the sequence of events for neonatal resuscitation in a baby who is not breathing/crying or have good tone?
1. Stimulate baby 2. Positive pressure ventilation 3. Correct positive pressure ventilation 4. Intubate, chest compression, positive pressure ventilation 5. IV epinephrine
87
What is the sequence of asphyxia?
apnea-->bradycardia-->cardiac arrest
88
What condition would you use therapeutic hypothermia for?
Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
89
What kind of problems should you be worried about post resuscitation?
1. Hypothermia 2. Hypoglycemia 3. Hypoxia and Acidosis 4. Hypotension/Hypovolemia 5. Sepsis
90
What does symptomatic hypoglycemia in a baby look like?
Jitterness, apnea, lethargy, poor feeding, tachypnea, cyanosis, seizures
91
What could happen if you give sodium bicarbonate to a premature baby to rapidly?
Intraventricular hemorrhage
92
What is considered hypotension in a neonate?
Blood pressure
93
What is a choledochus cyst?
Its a condition in older children where there is impaired excretion of bilirubin and presents with sudden abdominal pain, RUQ mass, and jaundice
94
What is the picture for ABO incompatibility?
Mom is O and baby is either A or B
95
What level of bilirubin should you start worrying about kernicterus?
>20mg/dL
96
What gives you familial intrahepatic cholestasis, long nose w/bulbous tip, short stature, heart disease?
Alagille Syndrome
97
What is the contraindication for phototherapy?
Porphyria
98
How many hrs qualify you for prolonged rupture of membranes?
>18hrs
99
What is the best test to diagnose esophageal atresia?
Chest x-ray
100
What is the best test to diagnose choanal atresia?
1. NG tube | 2. CT scan
101
What is the best test to diagnose duodenal atresia?
Abdominal x-ray
102
What is the best test for pyloric stenosis?
Abdominal ultrasound
103
What is the best test for hirschsprung disease?
1. Abdominal x-ray | 2. Rectal suction biopsy
104
What age determines precocious puberty for african american girl?
105
What age determines precocious puberty for boys?
106
What age determines precocious puberty for caucasian girls?
107
What would the WBC count show for neonatal sepsis?
108
What age in weeks determines premature preterm rupture of membranes?
109
What are the signs of respiratory distress in a neonate?
Tachpnea, grunting, nasal flaring, retracting, and cyanosis
110
What are risk factors for RDS?
1. Prematurity
111
What can decrease the risk of RDS?
Prolonged rupture of membranes
112
What does the blood gas profile show for RDS?
Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis
113
How would you give surfactant to a baby in RDS?
Through endotracheal tube
114
What can you give the mother to try and prevent RDS in a premature baby and when would you give it?
Give betamethasone or dexamethasone 24-48hrs before delivery
115
What are risk factors for meconium aspiration?
1. Fetal distress 2. Post-term 3. Breech deliveries
116
What is the chest x-ray finding in meconium aspiration?
Honeycomb lung and later the white out effect
117
What is a complication of chronic in-utero meconium aspiration?
Persistent pulmonary HTN
118
What are two risk factors for a baby to get a pneumothorax?
1. RDS | 2. Meconium aspiration
119
If you have a vigourous infant with meconium present, do you suction the baby?
NO!!!
120
What part of the intestines is involved in necrotizing enterocolitis?
Terminal ileum and colon
121
Who do you see necrotizing enterocolitis most often present in?
Premature babies who are formula fed
122
What are the x-ray findings in necrotizing enterocolitis?
1. Dilated loops of bowel 2. Pneumotosis intestinalis 3. Ascites 4. Pneumoperitoneum
123
What is the treatment for necrotizing enterocolitis?
NPO, NG tube, IV fluids, antibiotics
124
What is the best inital test for volvulus?
Abdominal x-ray
125
What is the best initial test for duodenal atresia?
Abdominal x-ray
126
What is the best initial test for intersucception?
Ultrasound
127
What is the double bubble sign associated with?
Duodenal atresia
128
What is the donut sign associated with?
Intersucception
129
What kind of atopic tissue is found in meckels diverticulum?
Gastric and pancreatic tissue
130
What is the pathopneumonic sign for meckels diverticulum?
Painless rectal bleeding
131
What is the best test for meckels diverticulum?
Technitium 99 scan
132
What would you suspect with a kid who comes in that has been playing in a stream of water with profuse foul smelling diarrhea?
Giardia infection
133
How do you treat Giardia infectious diarrhea?
Metronidazole
134
When should you suspect cryptosporidia?
Immunocompromised patient with diarrhea
135
What are the causes of infectious diarrhea?
Yersinia, e.coli, salmonella, shigella, campylobacter, c.diff
136
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children under age 2?
Rotavirus
137
What gives you a fever, vomiting, watery non bloody diarrhea?
Rotavirus
138
Where does HSV-1 lie dormant?
Trigeminal ganglion
139
Where does HSV-2 lie dormant?
Sacral ganglion
140
What is the treatment for Herpetic gingivo stomatitis?
Ice cream
141
Where does the varicella zoster virus lie dormant?
Dorsal root ganglia
142
What causes a rash in patient with infectious mono?
Giving ampicillin or amoxicillin
143
What gives you a fever, sore throat, cervical lymph nodes, pruritic sandpaper rash?
Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
144
What is the treatment for arcanobacterium haemolyticum?
Erythromycin
145
What is the cause of rocky mountain spotted fever?
Rickettisia rickettsii
146
What is the rash characteristic of rocky mountain spotted fever?
rash on wrists ankles hands and feet
147
What is the quick way to diagose rocky mountain spotted fever?
Immunoflourescent of skin lesions
148
What is the treatment for rocky mountain spotted fever?
Doxycycline and rocephin
149
What causes lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi tick
150
What are the symptoms of lyme disease?
1. Erythema migrans 2. Neurologic symptoms like facial weakness and pseudotumor cerebri 3. arthritis
151
What is the treatment for lyme disease?
Doxycycline or amoxicillin
152
How do you treat babesiosis?
Clindamycin
153
What is herpangina and what causes it?
Condition that leads to vesicles on the tonsilar pillars and fever. Caused by coxsackie A virus
154
What other condition does coxsackie A cause?
Hand foot and mouth disease
155
What condition gives you a lacy rash and slapped cheeks? What causes it?
Erythema infectiosum. Caused by parvovirus B19
156
What condition gives you a christmas tree rash on the trunk and is preceded by a herald patch?
Pityriasis rosea
157
What causes pityriasis rosea?
HHV-7
158
What is the treatment for meningococcal disease?
IV penicillin
159
What is the treatment for kawasaki disease?
Aspirin and gamma globin
160
What bug causes otitis externa?
1. Pseudomonas | 2. Staph aureus
161
What is acute myringitis?
Inflammation of the ear drum
162
What is Lemierres disease?
This is a condition that is usually preceded by an oropharyngeal infection and causes suppurative thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein
163
What causes Lemierres disease?
Fusobacterium necrophorum
164
What is the best test for Lemierres disease?
CT/ultrasound
165
What is constitutional growth delay?
Bone age
166
What is familial short stature?
Bone age=real age. Kid and parents all short
167
In what condition is the bone age> real age?
obesity
168
When is urinary continence obtained by?
5yrs
169
When is fecal continence obtained by?
4yrs
170
What is the pharmacologic treatment for urinary incontinence?
Desmopressin or imipramine
171
What immunizations are due at birth?
Hep B
172
What immunizations are due at 2mo,4mo,6mo?
1. IPV 2. Rotavirus 3. H.flu 4. Hep B 5. DTAP 6. PCV
173
What immunization starts at 6mo and is given yearly?
Influenza
174
What immunizations are given at 12mo?
MMR, Varicella, Hep A
175
What immunization is given at 12yrs?
TDAP booster, HPV, meningococcal vaccine
176
What immunization is given at 2yrs?
DTAP and HepA
177
What immunizations are due before kindergarden?
Last IPV and DTAP, MMR and varicella
178
What is a contraindication to flu vaccine?
Egg allergy
179
What is a contraindication to MMR vaccine?
Allergy to neomycin or streptomycin which is a component of MMR vaccine
180
Why cant you give MMR and varicella before 12months?
Because they are live vaccines and kids under 12months cant have live vaccines
181
What arrhythmia is associated with ebstein anomaly heart defect?
Wolf parkinson white
182
What is the heart defect associated with digeorge syndrome?
Truncus arteriosus
183
What is the most common congenital heart lesion?
VSD
184
What is the most common heart defect in down syndrome?
endocardial cushion defect
185
What is the treatment for measles?
Vitamin A and supportive care
186
Kid has multiple excoriations on his arms and is itchy at night, what is this?
Scabies
187
How do you treat scabies?
Permetrin for whole family
188
What is the treatment for otitis externa?
Topical ciprofloxacin
189
What is the treatment for strep pharyngitis?
Penicillin
190
Kid comes in with a hot potatoe voice and uvula is deviated, what is this?
Peritonsillar abscess
191
What is the treatment for croup?
Racemic epinephrine
192
What is staccato cough associated with?
Chlamydia pneumonia
193
What is the treatment for pertussis?
erythromycin
194
What vaccinations does a sickle cell patient need?
23 valent pneumococcus, H. Flu, neisseria meningitis
195
What kind of prophylactic measures does a patient with sickle cell need?
Penicillin from 2mo-6yrs
196
What syndrome has low platelets, low WBCs, profound anemia, cafe-au-lait spots, microcephaly, and absent thumbs
Fanconi anemia
197
What is the problem in PKU?
Deficient in phenyalanine hydroxylase so you get a build up of phenyalanine which can affect the brain
198
What are the symptoms of homocystinuria?
mental retardation, thromboembolic events, marfan like features, seizures, lens malposition
199
What is the treatment for homocystinuria?
B6 and folic acid
200
What is the problem in maple syrup disease?
Failure of decarboxylation of leucine, isoleuicine, and valine so they accumulate in the blood and cause FTT, vomiting, lethargy, seizures and hypoglycemia
201
How do you treat maple syrup disease?
IV fluids and diet low in branched amino acids
202
What is alcaptonuria?
When you have a deficiency in HGA oxidase and HGA is excreted in the urine and you get a black stained diaper
203
What can give you poor feeding, vomiting, seizures and hyperammonia and elevated ALT and AST?
Urea cycle defect
204
What is the value for a normal anion gap?
8-16
205
What are some conditions that can cause elavated ammonia levels in the blood?
Reye syndrome, urea cycle defects, fatty acid oxidation defects, organic acidemias
206
What is Von Gierkes disease?
This is a glycogen storage disease that causes hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly through a deficiency in glucose 6 phosphatase
207
What is Pompe disease?
This is a glycogen storage disease that causes hypotonia and hepatomegaly through a deficiency in alpha 1, 4 glucosidase
208
What condition gives you prolonged jaundice, poor feeding, weight loss, vomiting, hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly and cataracts?
Galactosemia
209
What can cause a gray/white membrane in the pharynx and bull neck?
Diphtheria
210
What is the treatment for Diphtheria?
Antitoxin and penicillin
211
What causes epiglottis?
H. Flu type B
212
What causes viral croup?
Parainfluenza virus
213
What causes bacterial tracheitis?
Staph aureus
214
What is the diagnosis if a patient has stridor with an absent thymus?
DiGeorge syndrome
215
What are the three most common causes of congenital stridor?
Laryngomalacia, vocal cord paralysis, congenital subglottic stenosis
216
What causes laryngeal papillomatosis?
HPV 6 and 11
217
What is the most common complication/cause of death for pertussis?
Pneumonia due to staph or strep pneumo
218
What kind of asthma gives you daily symptoms and atleast 1x per week night time awakenings?
Moderate persistent asthma
219
What kind of asthma gives you symptoms
Intermittent asthma
220
What kind of asthma gives you symptoms throughout the day and often night time awakenings?
Severe persistent asthma
221
What kind of asthma gives you symptoms >2 days per week and 3-4 times per month?
Mild persistent asthma
222
Wheezing child with nasal polyps what do you think of?
Cystic fibrosis
223
What is the inheritance of Bruton agammaglobinemia?
X-linked
224
What is unique about Bruton agammaglobinemia?
Absent B cells, absent tonsils,
225
What is the inheritance pattern of Wiskott Aldrich syndrome?
X-linked recessive
226
What is the pneumonic for Wiskott Aldrich syndrome and what does it stand for?
A big guy with a big TOE | Thrombocytopenia, otits media, eczema
227
What causes hereditary angioedema?
C1 esterase deficency
228
What is the CATCH 22 syndrome associated with and what does it stand for?
Associated with DiGeorge syndrome | Cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic hypoplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcemia
229
What abdominal problem is rotavirus vaccine associated with?
Interssucception
230
What is unique about CVID disease?
Frequent GI and respiratory | Low IgG and IgA
231
What can give you an EEG pattern of hypsarrhythmia?
Infantile spasms
232
What is the treatment for infantile spasms?
ACTH 20
233
What is the imaging test of choice in patients with seizures?
MRI
234
What is a akinetic seizure?
Brief loss of muscle tone causing a patient to fall to the ground
235
What is the inheritance pattern for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
X-linked recessive
236
What is the inheritance pattern for myotonic muscular dystrophy?
Autsomal dominant
237
What is the inheritance pattern for Becker muscular dystrophy?
X-linked recessive
238
What signs would you get with a anterior fossa basilar fracture?
CSF rhinorrhea and periorbital ecchymoses
239
What signs would you get with a middle fossa fracture?
hemotympanum, CSF otorrhea, mastoid ecchymoses
240
What signs would you get with a posterior fossa fracture?
brainstem compression
241
Which bug can cause a pseudoappendicitis?
Yersinia
242
What bacteria is associated with guillian barre syndrome?
Campylobacter
243
Bag of worms is associated with?
varicocele
244
What inflammatory bowel disease gives you pseudopolyps?
Ulcerative colitis
245
What would you see on colonoscopy in ulcerative colitis?
Air filled colon with loss of haustral striations
246
Which inflammatory bowl disease can give you granulomas?
Crohns disease
247
What is the diagmostic test for crohns disease?
Upper GI series and SBFT
248
What is the diagnostic test for ulcerative colitis?
Colonoscopy with biopsy
249
What is the treatment for IBS?
Antispasmodics, increased fiber, probiotics
250
What disease is associated wit dermatitis herpatiformis?
Celiac disease
251
String sign on barium enema is associated with what condition?
Pyloric stenosis
252
Bilious vomiting without abdominal distention occurring after birth is what?
Duodenal atresia
253
Bilious vomiting with abdominal distension in a baby can alert you to what?
Volvulus
254
What condition presents with bilious vomiting, abdominal distension, absent stools, and Multiple air fluid levels(multiple bubbles) on abdominal x-ray?
Atresia of jejunum and ileum
255
What is the treatment of meconium ileus?
Gastrograffin enema
256
Whats the diagnostic test for hirschsprund disease?
Barium enema
257
What condition gives you dilated loops of bowel of abdominal x-ray, abdominal distension, bilious vomiting, and failure to pass meconium for 48hrs?
Neonatal hypoplastic left colon syndrome
258
What should you think of with painless rectal bleeding in a toddler?
Meckels diverticulum
259
What cardiac defect gives you the most severe cyanosis at birth and what is the chest x-ray finding?
Transposition of the great vessels and egg on side appearance
260
What cardiac defect can give you all weak or absent pulses and what would the chest x-ray show?
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome and cardiomegaly on x-ray
261
What cardiac condition is exactly like an ASD? What differentiates these two conditions?
Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage. Cyanosis differentiates the two conditions.
262
What is the chest x-ray finding in total anomalous pulmonary venous return?
Snow man appearance
263
What are the features of tetrology of fallot?
1. Pulmonic stenosis 2. Overriding aorta 3. VSD 4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
264
What is the chest x-ray finding in tetrology of fallot?
Boot shaped heart
265
What is ebstein anomaly and what causes it?
Ebstein anomaly is a cardiac defect due to lithium exposure in the first trimester that causes a downward shift of the tricuspid valve into the right venticle causes a bigger right atrium and smaller right venrticle. In this defect a patent foramen ovale is present to shunt blood
266
What is a complication of having an ebstein anomaly other than cyanosis?
Paraoxysmal supraventricular tachycardias
267
What are the symptoms for acute myocarditis and what causes it?
``` (2 tachys and 2 megalies) 1. Tachycardia 2. Tachypnea 3. Cardiomegaly 4. Hepatomegaly 5. Chest pain, grunting, retractions Caused by coxsackie B, adenovirus, chagas ```
268
What are some treatment for SVT?
carotid massage, valsalva, ice on face. adenosine
269
What is the inheritance pattern for HOCM?
autosomal dominant
270
What is the treatment for HOCM?
beta blockers
271
What coagulation factors does liver disease affect?
2,5,7,10
272
What coagulation factors does vitamin K deficiency affect?
2, 7, 9, 10
273
What chromosome defect is associated with retinoblastoma?
Chromosome 13
274
What is the inheritance pattern for retinoblastoma?
Autosomal dominant
275
What is the diagnostic test for retinoblastoma?
Slit lamp exam
276
What would these values look like foe central diabetes insipidus? urine specific gravity, serum Na, serum osmolality, urine osmolality
1. Specific gravity low 2. Serum Na elevated (hypernatremia) 3. Serum osmolality high >300 4. Urine osmolality low
277
What is the key diagmostic principle for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
No response to desmopressin
278
If a baby presents with a large posterior fontanel, lethargy, poor feeding, large tongue, hoarse cry, dry skin, and prolonged jaundice what is causing this?
Congenital hypothyroidism
279
What condition are these antibodies associated with? Thyroid antiperoxidase antibodies and antithyroglobin antibodies
Hashimoto thyroiditis
280
What is the treatment of thyroid storm?
Propanolol
281
What is the treatment for hyperthyroidism?
Methimazole
282
What is the treatment for hypothyroidism?
levothyroxine
283
What is the treatment for subacute thyroiditis?
Beta blockers and steroids
284
What are the lab values for hypoparathyroidism?
1. Low PTH 2. Low calcium 3. High phosphorus
285
What are the lab values for psuedohypoparathyroidism?
1. High PTH 2. Low calcium 3. High phosphorus
286
What are the lab values for hyperparathyroidism?
1. High PTH 2. High calcium 3. Low phosphorus
287
What are the 3 zones of the adrenal gland and what do they produce?
Zone 1-->zona glomerulosa-->aldosterone Zone 2-->zona fasciculata-->cortisol Zone 3-->zona reticularis--> androgens
288
What is the pathway to epinephrine? and where is it made?
Made in the adrenal medulla | tyrosine-->DOPA-->Dopamine-->norepinephrine--> epinephrine
289
What is the treatment for raynaud disease?
calcium channel blockers
290
What is the treatment for acute rheumatic fever?
oral penicillin or erythromycin
291
What is the mnemonic for acute rheumatic fever?
JONES FAAP