clipp cases 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is transient synovitis?

A

Inflammation of the synovial lining of the hip usually occuring during or after a URI. Self limiting

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2
Q

What is the treatment for transient synovitis?

A

Rest and ibuprofen

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3
Q

What heart defects can present with a murmur and CHF in infancy?

A

VSD, PDA, aortic stenosis and coarctation of aorta

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4
Q

How do infants with CHF present?

A
  1. Tachypnea
  2. feeding difficulty
  3. Sweatin while feeding
  4. Longer feeding time
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5
Q

What is the treatment of CHF in infants?

A

Furosemide and digoxin

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6
Q

What kind of seizure has a postictal state?

A

Complex partial seizure

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7
Q

What kind of seizure can you induce and how?

A

Absence seizure and by hyperventilation

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8
Q

What is the EEG finding for a complex partial seizure?

A

Normal

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9
Q

What is the EEG finding for absence seizure?

A

spike and wave 3HZ

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10
Q

What kind of symptoms do you get with infratentorial tumors?

A

Cerebellar signs and increased intracranial pressure

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11
Q

What kind of symptoms do you get with cerebellar hemispheric tumors?

A

Hypotonia and hyporeflexia

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12
Q

What kind of symptoms do you get with supratentorial tumors?

A

Focal motor deficits and sensory deficits contralateral to the lesion

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13
Q

What kind of symptoms do you get with brain stem lesions?

A

Cranial nerve and gaze palsies

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14
Q

What is the most common pediatric brain tumor?

A

Medulloblastoma

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15
Q

What is the best pediatric brain tumor to get?

A

Astrocytoma

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16
Q

What is cushing triad?

A

Hypertension bradycardia and irregular respirations

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17
Q

What would a brain tumor in the cerebellar vermis cause?

A

Dysarthria, truncal ataxia, and gait abnormalities

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18
Q

What would a brain tumor in the cerebellar hemispheres cause?

A

Hypotonia, hyporeflexia, ipsilateral limb abnormalities, nystagmus, tremor/dysmetria

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19
Q

What would a brain tumor deep in cerebellar nuclei cause?

A

Resting tremor, myoclonus and opsoclonus

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20
Q

What are dennie’s lines?

A

These are transverse creases under the infraorbital that is a sign of chronic conjunctival inflammation

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21
Q

What is Henoch-Schnlein Purpura?

A

This is a IgA mediated vasculitis that affects skin, joints, GI, and kidneys

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22
Q

What are the typical signs and symptoms of HSP?

A

petechiae and purpura, arthritis of kness and ankles, hematuria and colicky abdominal pain

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23
Q

What is a common complication of HSP?

A

Intersucception (ileoileal)

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24
Q

What are some complications of PID?

A

Fits-Hugh-Curtis syndrome, tubo-ovarian abscess, infertility

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25
Q

What is the treatment for meningococcemia?

A

Penicillin G

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26
Q

What is the prophylactic treatment for meningococcemia?

A

Adults- Ciprofloxacin

Children- Rifampin

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27
Q

When would you use urinary alkalinization?

A

Salicylate intoxication

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28
Q

What kind of cardiac effects does TCA toxcitity have?

A

Hypotension, dysrhythmias, conduction delays

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29
Q

What is the treatment for TCA toxicity?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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30
Q

What are retinal hemorrhages pathognomonic for?

A

shaken baby syndrome

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31
Q

When should you be worried about failure to thrive?

A

Weight

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32
Q

What is the difference between organic FTT and non organic FTT?

A

Organic FTT is based upon an underlying disease while non organic FTT is social factors

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33
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive

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34
Q

Are crypt abscessess common in ulcerative colitis or crohns disease?

A

Ulcerative colitis

35
Q

Which inflammatory bowel disease involves mucosa, submucosa,muscularis and serosa?

A

Crohns disease

36
Q

Which inflammatory bowel disease has fistula formation?

A

Crohns disease

37
Q

What are the treatment options for crohns disease?

A
  1. mesalamine
  2. steroids
  3. antibiotics
  4. methotrexate
  5. Remicade
38
Q

What rash is associated with crohns disease?

A

Erythema nodosum

39
Q

What are some conditions you worry about with prematurity?

A
  1. RDS
  2. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
  3. Periventricular leukomalacia
  4. Hyperbilirubinemia
  5. Retinopathy of prematurity
40
Q

What brain finding is highly correlated with cerebral palsy?

A

Periventricular leukomalacia and cysts

41
Q

Increased muscle tone and hyperreflexia in a premature baby should alert you to what condition?

A

Cerebral palsy

42
Q

When is it recommended for physcians to use a screening tool to assess development in a child?

A

9,18,30 months

43
Q

What are the clinical features of down syndrome?

A

Mental retardation, epicanthal folds, flat facial profile, single palmar crease, hypothyroidism, hypotonia, intestinal obstructions, cardiac defects, redundant neck skin, umbilical hernia, short stature, predisposition to leukemia

44
Q

What is the abnormality of fragile X syndrome?

A

Inheritance of anormal number of trinucleotide repeats (CGG)

45
Q

What is the labatory test for down syndrome?

A

Lymphocyte karyotype

46
Q

Whats the pathophys for sickle cell disease?

A

There is a substitution of valine for glutamic acid at the 6th position of hemoglobin which leads to polymerization when deoxygenated

47
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for sickle cell disease?

A

autosomal recessive

48
Q

What organisms are sickle cell patient at increased risk for?

A

Strep pneumoniae, H. Flu, and N. meningitidis

49
Q

What is the predominant hemoglobin at birth?

A

Hemoglobin F

50
Q

What is the normal hemoglobin for adults?

A

Hemoglobin A

51
Q

What are the vaccines given to kids with sickle cell disease?

A
  • H. flu and pneumococcus 13 at 2,4,6 months
  • pneumococcus 23 and meningococcus at 2,5yrs
  • influenza annually
52
Q

What is the management for acute chest syndrome?

A

Narcotics, hydration and incentive spirometry

53
Q

What is the most common surgeries in sickle cell patients?

A

Tonsillectomy and cholecystectomy

54
Q

What are some things that can cause nephrotic syndrome?

A

minimal change disease, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, lupus, post step glomerulonephritis, hepatitis B, HIV, HSP

55
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrom in children?

A

Minimal change disease

56
Q

What is the treatment for minimal change disease?

A

steroids, albumin infusion followed by furosemide and sodium restriction

57
Q

What is pediculosis capitis?

A

Lice

58
Q

Intense itching at night on the wrists, elbows, fingers and toes. What is this?

A

scabies

59
Q

What is tinea corporis?

A

ring worm

60
Q

What causes warts?

A

HPV

61
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity do you get with acute uticaria?

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity

62
Q

What causes a erythematous plaque with fine to thick greasy yellow scale typically seen on the scalp?

A

seborrheic dermatitis

63
Q

What type of hypersensitivity causes contact dermatitis?

A

delayed type 4 hypersensitvity

64
Q

What causes impetigo?

A

Staph aureus and strep pyogenes

65
Q

What is the treatment for impetigo?

A

topical mupirocin

66
Q

Patches of hypopigmentation on the face, neck, upper trunk and extremeties?

A

Pityriasis alba

67
Q

Christmas tree distribution and herald patch is associated with what?

A

Pityriasis rosea

68
Q

How would you treat mild acne?

A

BPO, retinoid, and topical antibiotics like erythromycin and clindamycin

69
Q

How would you treat moderate acne?

A

Add oral antibiotic like tetracycline

70
Q

How would you treat severe acne?

A

oral isotretinoin

71
Q

What is the treatment for tinea capitis?

A

Griseofulvin

72
Q

When do you need hepatitis B?

A

Birth, 2mo, 6mo

73
Q

When do you need rotavirus?

A

2,4,6 months

74
Q

When do you need DTap?

A

2, 4, 6, 15months, 4-6yrs

75
Q

When do you need Tdap?

A

11-12yrs and then every 10yrs

76
Q

When do you need H. flu?

A

2,4,6

77
Q

When do you need pneumococcus vaccine?

A

2,4,6,12mo

78
Q

When do you need inactivated polio vaccine?

A

2,4,6mo, 4-6yrs

79
Q

When do you need MMR vaccine?

A

12months and 4-6yrs

80
Q

When do you need hepatitis A vaccine?

A

12months and 6months after

81
Q

When do you need varicella vaccine?

A

12months and 4-6yrs

82
Q

When do you need HPV vaccine?

A

11-12yrs

83
Q

When do you need meningococcal vaccine?

A

11-12yrs and then 16yrs

84
Q

What vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

MMR, Polio, Varicella and HPV