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P3 > PEDIA Reviewer > Flashcards

PEDIA Reviewer Flashcards

1
Q

treated systemically with a 3rd generation cephalosporin and topical erythromycin ointment

A

Gonococcal Conjunctivitis

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2
Q

treated with oral erythromycin for 2 weeks & erythromycin ointment

A

Chlamydial Infection

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3
Q

this should always be considered a systemic condition

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

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4
Q

this is a conjunctival inflammation on that occur within the first month of life

A

Neonatal Conjunctivitis

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5
Q

treated with a high dose intravenous acyclovir under pediatric care

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

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6
Q

it is associated with sneezing & nasal discharge

A

Allergic Conjunctivitis

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7
Q

highly contagious infection

A

Viral Conjunctivitis

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8
Q

in this type of conjunctivitis, difficulty in opening the eyelids upon waking up is often a representation

A

Bacterial Conjunctivitis

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9
Q

often involves systemic condition such as sore throat or common cold

A

Viral Conjunctivitis

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10
Q

this is usually unilateral

A

Viral Conjunctivitis

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11
Q

often results from abnormal binocular interactions

A

Strabismic Amblyopia

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12
Q

caused by difference in refractive error between the eyes

A

Anisometropic Amblyopia

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13
Q

it results from image blur in one meridian

A

Meridional Amblyopia

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14
Q

caused by uncorrected astigmatism

A

Meridional Amblyopia

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15
Q

a decrease in best corrected visual acuity in one or both eyes despite having the best corrective glasses

A

ALL (Anisometropic, Meridional, Strabismic Amblyopia)

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16
Q

in this type of accommodative esotropia, the AC/A ratio is normal

A

Refractive Accommodative Esotropia

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17
Q

Esotropia is a physiological response to excessive hypermetropia

A

Refractive Accommodative Esotropia

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18
Q

in this type of accommodative esotropia, the AC/A ratio is high

A

Non-Refractive Accommodative Esotropia

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19
Q

the deviation is limited and BSV is present at all distances of a optical correction of hypermetropia

A

Fully Accommodative Esotropia

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20
Q

esotropia is reduced but not eliminated by full correction of hypermetropia

A

Partial Accommodative Esotropia

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21
Q

part of the treatment is pressure patching

A

Corneal Abrasion

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22
Q

autosomal dominant is the most common etiological factor

A

Congenital Cataract

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23
Q

Proliferative retinopathy affecting premature infants of very low birth weight who have been exposed to high O2 concentration

A

Retinopathy of Prematurity

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24
Q

associated metabolic disorders: Galactosaemia, Lowe syndrome, and Fabry disease

A

Congenital Cataract

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25
Q

it is not a variation of Dynamic Retinoscopy

A

Near Retinoscopy

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26
Q

at distance closer than resting point amount of accommodation is less than required by stimulus

A

Lead of Accommodation

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27
Q

basically a substitute for Static Retinoscopy used in infants

A

Near Retinoscopy

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28
Q

at distance beyond resting point amount of accommodation exceeds than that of required

A

Lag of Accommodation

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29
Q

objective test to measure the refractive status of the eye with active accommodation

A

Cyclopegic Refraction

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30
Q

used to measure the lead & lag of accommodation

A

Dynamic Retinoscopy

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31
Q

objective test to measure the refractive status of the eye with accommodation relax

A

Static Retinoscopy

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32
Q

In Bell Retinoscopy, the distance between the px & examiner is

A

50cm

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33
Q

objective assessment ocular alignment using a penlight

A

Corneal Light Reflex Test

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34
Q

a condition where objects located in a distance appear blurry or out of focus

A

Myopia

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35
Q

the most common type of refractive error found in children

A

Myopia

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36
Q

the most common symptoms of this condition in children are eye tiredness, eyestrain, and headaches

A

Hyperopia

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37
Q

can occur when the eyes refractive power is too strong

A

Myopia

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38
Q

often occurs due to abnormal curvature of the cornea

A

Astigmatism

39
Q

Viral Conjunctivitis is commonly caused by this virus

A

Adenovirus

40
Q

red, swollen and tender bump near the eyelid margin

A

Stye

41
Q

it affects the Zeiss or Meibomian Glands

A

Chalazion

42
Q

a medical term used in which vision of the normal eye is blurred with atropine

A

Penalization

43
Q

it is the most effective in treatment in amblyopia which we cover the good eye to encourage the amblyopic eye

A

Occlusion/Patching

44
Q

a medical term for a large eye as a result of stretching due to elevated IOP

A

Buphthalmos

45
Q

it is due to diffuse oedema secondary to raised IOP or localized oedema due to breaks in Descemet’s membrane

A

Corneal haze

46
Q

it is characterized by its posterior location, prominence of plus disease and ill-defined nature of the retinopathy

A

Rush Disease

47
Q

characterized by dilation & tortuosity of blood vessels involving at least 2 quadrants of the posterior fundus

A

Plus Disease

48
Q

other name for Rush Disease

A

Aggressive Posterior Disease

49
Q

Hand regard

A

4 months

50
Q

VA may be in the 20/200 to 20/300 range

A

4 months

51
Q

Hand movements are monitored visually

A

6 months

52
Q

Tears begin to form

A

1 month

53
Q

The infant begin to associate visual stimuli & an event

A

3 months

54
Q

Eye hand coordination (reaching) is usually achieved

A

5 months

55
Q

able to stare at objects held 8-10 inches away

A

At birth

56
Q

Acuity improves rapidly to near normal

A

Between 6 & 9 months

57
Q

The infant is capable of glancing at smaller targets

A

3 months

58
Q

The infant is aware of the environment and can shift gaze form near to far easily

A

5 months

59
Q

Search for hidden objects

A

Between 9 & 12 months

60
Q

These layer contribute to the development of the eye

A

Neural Tube, Surface Ectoderm, Neural Crest, Mesoderm

61
Q

_______ derived from the ectoderm and lie close to the neural tube

A

Neural Crest

62
Q

Mesoderm contributes to the ff structures

A

-Extraocular muscles
-Endothelial lining of the blood vessels of the eye
-Sclera
-Choroid

63
Q

These structures are derived from the neural crest

A

Sclera
Corneal Endothelium
Connective tissue & bony structures of the orbit

64
Q

Surface ectoderm produces the ff

A

Lens
Corneal epithelium

65
Q

4 types of VA

A

Recognition
Detection
Resolution
Localization

66
Q

Enumerate Recognition Acuity

A

-Snellen’s letter chart
-Sheridan’s letter
-Flook’s symbol
-Allen’s picture card test
-Stycar letters
-Kay’s test
-LogMar chart
-Lea symbols
-Sonksen-Silver test

67
Q

Enumerate Detection tests

A

-Catford drum test
-100s to 1000s test

68
Q

Enumerate Resolution (POGV)

A

-Optokinetic nystagmus test
-Preferential looking test
-Visually evoked response
-Grating test

69
Q

Enumerate Localization

A

-Snellen’s E chart
-Landolt’s C Chart

70
Q

VA suitable for 0-6/12 months (POFFVOCC)

A

-Observation
-Fixation
-Pursuit
-Visually directed reaching
-Objection to occlusion
-Cover test
-Catfrod drum
-Forced choice preferential looking

71
Q

VA for 6/12 months - 2 years (VSFC-100s&1000s)

A

-100s & 1000s
-Visually directed reaching
-Stycar balls
-Forced choice preferential looking
-Cardiff acuity cards

72
Q

VA for 2-3 years (SFLIKS)

A

-Kay’s pictures
-Stycar toys
-Illiterate symbols
-Flook’s symbols
-Sjogrens hand test
-LogMar

73
Q

VA suitable for 3 years old (C-2L-4S)

A

-Sheridan Gardiner test
-Cambridge crowding test
-Sonksten-Silver test
-Landolt C test
-Stycar letters
-Snellen test
-LogMar

74
Q

an objective method to evaluate the objective visual acuity by inducing optokinetic nystagmus

A

Catford drum

75
Q

individuals with this syndrome & who survive the initial neonatal & infantile period merit vigorous rehabilitation of the sensory function to enable proper psychomotor development

A

CHARGE Association Syndrome

76
Q

this results from transplacental spread of the virus by an infected mother

A

Congenital Varicella

77
Q

spread by airborne droplets & direct contact with infected lesions

A

Varicella Zoster

78
Q

double stranded DNA virus

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

79
Q

found in lesion on the genitalia & the skin of the thighs

A

Herpes Simplex Virus 2

80
Q

these are problems that affect the brain’s ability to receive, process, analyze, or store info

A

Learning Disabilities

81
Q

refers to group of disorders that affect a broad range of academic & functional skills

A

Learning Disability

82
Q

difficulty in writing, reading, & spelling

A

Dyslexia

83
Q

difficulty with writing, spelling, and composition

A

Dysgraphia

84
Q

problems with manual dexterity & coordination

A

Dyspraxia

85
Q

collective term for speech inability to produce speech & understand language

A

Dysphasia

86
Q

difficulty perceiving or understanding what other people say

A

Receptive disorder

87
Q

difficulty producing speech sounds

A

Articulation disorder

88
Q

difficulty putting ideas into spoken form

A

Expressive disorder

89
Q

systemic features of Alport’s syndrome

A

-Thrombocytopenia
-Macro thrombocytopathia
-Hypoparathyroidism
-Polyneuropathy
-Ichthyosis
-Thyroid abnormalities

90
Q

ocular clinical features of Marfan’s syndrome

A
  • Subluxation of crystalline lens
  • Myopia, microcornea, keratoconus, occasionally retinal detachment & glaucoma
  • Stretched zonular fibers can be seen through the dilated pupil
  • Coloboma of the lens
  • Microspherophakia
  • Iridodonesis results from lens subluxation
  • Strabismus
91
Q

systemic features of Down syndrome

A
  • Mental handicap
  • Upward slanting palpebral fissure
  • Epicanthic folds
  • Broad short hands & a protuding tongue
92
Q

clinical ocular features of Cat Scratch disease

A
  • VA is impaired to a degree
  • Papillitis associated with peripapillary & macular edema
  • Macular star composed of hard exudates
  • After several months, VA improve
  • Fellow eye occasionally become involved but recurrences in same eye is uncommon
  • Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome
  • Focal choroiditis
  • Intermediate uveitis
  • Exudative maculopathy
  • Retinal vascular occlusion
  • Panuevitis
93
Q

Spell out acronym for CHARGE syndrome

A
  • Coloboma
  • Heart defects
  • Atresia choanae
  • Retardation of Growth
  • Genital Abnormalities
  • Ear Abnomalities
94
Q

This term refers to complete inability to produce speech & understand language

A

Aphasia

P3 (11 decks)

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