PCO Flashcards
Slot numbers should be between:
1 and 39 (10, 20, and 30 not used)
The priority of FCI signals is:
Altitude
Heading
Airspeed
When executing a SKE overrun as a wingman, all of the following are true except:
Turn in the safest direction and set 800 XTRK
Which component is used to enter SKE formation data into the system?
Secondary control panel
Which SKE components display intrack and cross track information?
Range indicator and ADI
Select the component which allows TWS data to be displayed on the ADI
ADI mode selector switches
How many minutes must the SKE battery circuit breaker be in to allow the station keeper electronic clock to stabilize?
15
In order to perform the SKE parameters checklist, which AC bus must be powered?
Main
When must the SKE parameters checklist be re-accomplished?
If power to the equipment is interrupted during ground or flight operation
The ESA provides terrain clearance within which of the following distances from the intended route centerline?
22 NM
The first priority when route planning in a combat situation is which of the following?
Avoiding any known or possible threats
Once the PF and navigator confirm the release point location and track required, who is responsible for maintaining the desired track over the DZ?
PF
After a CDS drop, when may the pilot call for the flaps to be reset to 50%?
When the loadmasters calls “load clear”
Who has the most significant effect on operations?
The user
According to AFTTP 3-3, which of the following is the most effective method of terrain masking?
Direct
For personnel airdrops:
The ramp and door and the paratroop doors cannot be used simultaneously
The right hand dual rail latches are unique in that they:
Have 11 latches providing a forward restraint of 20,000 lbs. and variable up to 4000 lbs. aft
Do not descend from the last IFR enroute altitude until the following conditions are met:
Lead’s position is positively known, the entire formation is within 3 NMs of DZ run-in course centerline, and the last aircraft is at or past the DZ entry point
Which publication contains guidelines for in flight briefings?
Either b. or c.
3-3 CMG) (-1
When operating from locations without a C2 agency, you pass your movement information:
By the most expeditious means available prior to crew rest
A towed parachutist will indicate ready to cut by:
Maintaining a tight body position and placing both hands on his or her reserve parachute
When notified of a CDS malfunction, the PF should first:
Extend additional flaps and lower the nose
All of the following are advantages of a two-ship element formation except for:
Inability to transition between VFR and IFR
Flights are composed of how many aircraft?
4
Standard fluid trail maneuvering is from ______ to _______ feet behind lead up to the 3/9 line:
2000-6000
When executing inadvertent weather penetration without SKE, in a four element formation, at what altitude will the first element level off?
Base + 1500 feet
Which of the following is a technique for altitude/MSA sectoring for air land arrivals?
Concentric circles
Minimizing the use of high bank angles, increased “G” loading, and rapid airspeed changes during NVG tactical VFR approaches will:
Reduce the potential for spatial disorientation
What is the minimum taxi interval when two engines are shutdown?
Two aircraft lengths
Below 10,000 MSL, what is the formation assembly airspeed?
180 KIAS
The first consideration while planning an airland combat mission should be:
The threat
What should be your primary planning consideration affecting an NVG approach?
Terrain and obstacles
Which of the following is a technique for altitude/MSA sectoring for airland arrivals?
Concentric circles
If utilizing the Arrival and Departure Corridors (iron cross) method to determine NVG altitude sectoring, the arrival corridor should be how wide?
6 NM
If landing after another C-130 on a dusty LZ, landing intervals may need to be as long as ___ minutes in low wind conditions due to dust clouds
5
When performing and objective area analysis prior to an NVG airland operation, which of the following would be helpful?
All the above
FLIP, ASRR, JEPPESON publications
(One-meter and five-meter imagery)
(PFPS, FALCONVIEW, SKYVIEW)
To asses the security of specific airfields, the aircrew can use the BEST acronym, BEST stands for:
Boundary
Enemy
Security forces
Topography
Minimizing the use of high bank angles, increased “G” loading, and rapid airspeed changes during NVG tactical VFR approaches will:
Reduce the potential for spatial disorientation
Which of the following is a disadvantage for a low-level arrival?
All of the above are true
(Places aircraft in the WEZ of all low altitude threats)
(Flown in close proximity to the ground)
(Navigation and LZ acquisition is more difficult)
Day low level arrivals are normally flown at what altitude range above the ground?
300-500 feet
Low altitude arrivals are normally flown at what minimum altitude above field elevation for NVG visual approaches?
500-1000’ AGL
What colors are the day landing zone marking panels?
Orange and cerise
Which of the following is NOT considered a major factor in determining a slowdown point for a straight-in arrival to an LZ?
Airfield Lighting
Which type arrival does NOT permit the crew to dissipate energy through bank angle and “G” loading?
Straight-in
Which tactical VFR arrival is easily adaptable to landing on either runway?
Beam
Which of the following high altitude descents involves flying at L/D max airspeeds until 20,000 feet and then 250 KIAS?
Penetration descent
When performing an NVG max effort landing, crews must avoid factor obstacles and may descend from the NVG enroute altitude when:
Aircraft position is positively known and terrain clearance is assured along the approach
When flying an NVG assault landing the pilot should:
Avoid a very steep “two-step” approach
Which of these options is NOT a good recommendation if threat considerations are the primary factor?
Accelerate to 250 KIAS before then fence line then execute a zoom maneuver to clear the small arms WEZ
While flying as PF on short final to an NVG assault landing, you experience and NVG failure. You should consider:
Both 1+2
Performing a go-around
(Transitioning to overt lighting)
As the AC on an NVG airland mission in IMC, you have briefed that the copilot will fly the IAP and you will accomplish the landing. Transfer of aircraft control will be no lower than:
300 AGL
On an NVG final approach, the PM should verbalized airspeed and VVI beginning at _____ AGL
300
As PF, you are accomplishing an NVG takeoff with a takeoff/refusal speed of 105 KIAS. AT 90 KIAS, you experience an NVG failure. You should:
Consider continuing the takeoff as it may be safer than performing a high-speed abort
Max effort operations must fall into what area of the crosswind charts?
Recommended
What is the minimum MFLMETO (non-peacetime)
Charted
Peacetime restrictions to maximum effort operations prohibit the use of runways less than how many feet in length?
3,000
What is the minimum runway width (in feet) for tactical assault operations?
60 feet
What is the minimum runway length required for a maximum effort landing (non-peacetime)
Ground roll + 500’
At aircraft gross weights less than 130,000 lbs. what is the maximum allowable rate-of-sink?
540 fpm
What engine/braking configuration is used to compute landing performance during peacetime?
Two in reverse/two in ground idle/full brakes
An assault landing with the anti-skid inoperative is:
Not authorized
When using the landing charts, what percentage of a tailwind component is applied?
150%
Which of the following is used to determine minimum field length for an assault landing?
Ground roll
Slowdown during personnel drops (non JM directed) should be planned to allow jump master access to paratroop doors no later than:
One minute prior to TOT
Which crew members requirement determine when the preslowdown checklist will be initiated?
Loadmaster
Once the PF and navigator confirm the release point location and track required, who is responsible FO maintaining the desired track over the DZ?
PF
When executing an airdrop slowdown maneuver, retard all throttles to 1000 in lbs. or prebriefed power setting, lower the flaps to 50% on speed or as briefed and slow to:
140 KIAS
After a CDS drop, when may the PF call for the flaps to be reset to 50%?
At “load clear”
A towed parachutist will indicate ready to cut by:
Maintaining a tight body position and placing both hands on his or her reserve parachute
If a non-EPJS HE load fails to extract with multiple 28’ extraction parachutes outside the aircraft, the loadmaster will do which of the following?
Ensure the right rail control handle is in emergency
When notified of a CDS malfunction, the PF should first:
Extend additional flaps and lower the nose
If an SATB exits the aircraft and fails to separate, what action should be taken?
The LM should cut it loose
Which block letters are authorized for non-circular drop zones?
A and S
Which of the following is the proper signal for a “no drop” condition?
Red flare/Smoke
Who WILL acknowledge a “no drop” call?
PM and LM
In a visual formation, you will find the timeline of events on:
The 280
Formation taxi interval with two engines at normal ground idle and two engines at LSGI is:
One aircraft length
A push call requires a formation check-in on the new frequency T or F?
False
During a formation takeoff:
All of the above
For wingmen, correct altitude references during day visual formation are:
Terrain, radar altimeter, and position relative to lead
