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C-130H > PCO > Flashcards

PCO Flashcards

1
Q

Slot numbers should be between:

A

1 and 39 (10, 20, and 30 not used)

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2
Q

The priority of FCI signals is:

A

Altitude

Heading

Airspeed

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3
Q

When executing a SKE overrun as a wingman, all of the following are true except:

A

Turn in the safest direction and set 800 XTRK

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4
Q

Which component is used to enter SKE formation data into the system?

A

Secondary control panel

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5
Q

Which SKE components display intrack and cross track information?

A

Range indicator and ADI

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6
Q

Select the component which allows TWS data to be displayed on the ADI

A

ADI mode selector switches

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7
Q

How many minutes must the SKE battery circuit breaker be in to allow the station keeper electronic clock to stabilize?

A

15

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8
Q

In order to perform the SKE parameters checklist, which AC bus must be powered?

A

Main

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9
Q

When must the SKE parameters checklist be re-accomplished?

A

If power to the equipment is interrupted during ground or flight operation

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10
Q

The ESA provides terrain clearance within which of the following distances from the intended route centerline?

A

22 NM

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11
Q

The first priority when route planning in a combat situation is which of the following?

A

Avoiding any known or possible threats

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12
Q

Once the PF and navigator confirm the release point location and track required, who is responsible for maintaining the desired track over the DZ?

A

PF

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13
Q

After a CDS drop, when may the pilot call for the flaps to be reset to 50%?

A

When the loadmasters calls “load clear”

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14
Q

Who has the most significant effect on operations?

A

The user

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15
Q

According to AFTTP 3-3, which of the following is the most effective method of terrain masking?

A

Direct

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16
Q

For personnel airdrops:

A

The ramp and door and the paratroop doors cannot be used simultaneously

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17
Q

The right hand dual rail latches are unique in that they:

A

Have 11 latches providing a forward restraint of 20,000 lbs. and variable up to 4000 lbs. aft

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18
Q

Do not descend from the last IFR enroute altitude until the following conditions are met:

A

Lead’s position is positively known, the entire formation is within 3 NMs of DZ run-in course centerline, and the last aircraft is at or past the DZ entry point

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19
Q

Which publication contains guidelines for in flight briefings?

A

Either b. or c.

3-3 CMG) (-1

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20
Q

When operating from locations without a C2 agency, you pass your movement information:

A

By the most expeditious means available prior to crew rest

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21
Q

A towed parachutist will indicate ready to cut by:

A

Maintaining a tight body position and placing both hands on his or her reserve parachute

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22
Q

When notified of a CDS malfunction, the PF should first:

A

Extend additional flaps and lower the nose

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23
Q

All of the following are advantages of a two-ship element formation except for:

A

Inability to transition between VFR and IFR

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24
Q

Flights are composed of how many aircraft?

A

4

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25
Q

Standard fluid trail maneuvering is from ______ to _______ feet behind lead up to the 3/9 line:

A

2000-6000

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26
Q

When executing inadvertent weather penetration without SKE, in a four element formation, at what altitude will the first element level off?

A

Base + 1500 feet

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27
Q

Which of the following is a technique for altitude/MSA sectoring for air land arrivals?

A

Concentric circles

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28
Q

Minimizing the use of high bank angles, increased “G” loading, and rapid airspeed changes during NVG tactical VFR approaches will:

A

Reduce the potential for spatial disorientation

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29
Q

What is the minimum taxi interval when two engines are shutdown?

A

Two aircraft lengths

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30
Q

Below 10,000 MSL, what is the formation assembly airspeed?

A

180 KIAS

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31
Q

The first consideration while planning an airland combat mission should be:

A

The threat

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32
Q

What should be your primary planning consideration affecting an NVG approach?

A

Terrain and obstacles

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33
Q

Which of the following is a technique for altitude/MSA sectoring for airland arrivals?

A

Concentric circles

34
Q

If utilizing the Arrival and Departure Corridors (iron cross) method to determine NVG altitude sectoring, the arrival corridor should be how wide?

A

6 NM

35
Q

If landing after another C-130 on a dusty LZ, landing intervals may need to be as long as ___ minutes in low wind conditions due to dust clouds

A

5

36
Q

When performing and objective area analysis prior to an NVG airland operation, which of the following would be helpful?

A

All the above

FLIP, ASRR, JEPPESON publications
(One-meter and five-meter imagery)
(PFPS, FALCONVIEW, SKYVIEW)

37
Q

To asses the security of specific airfields, the aircrew can use the BEST acronym, BEST stands for:

A

Boundary
Enemy
Security forces
Topography

38
Q

Minimizing the use of high bank angles, increased “G” loading, and rapid airspeed changes during NVG tactical VFR approaches will:

A

Reduce the potential for spatial disorientation

39
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage for a low-level arrival?

A

All of the above are true

(Places aircraft in the WEZ of all low altitude threats)
(Flown in close proximity to the ground)
(Navigation and LZ acquisition is more difficult)

40
Q

Day low level arrivals are normally flown at what altitude range above the ground?

A

300-500 feet

41
Q

Low altitude arrivals are normally flown at what minimum altitude above field elevation for NVG visual approaches?

A

500-1000’ AGL

42
Q

What colors are the day landing zone marking panels?

A

Orange and cerise

43
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a major factor in determining a slowdown point for a straight-in arrival to an LZ?

A

Airfield Lighting

44
Q

Which type arrival does NOT permit the crew to dissipate energy through bank angle and “G” loading?

A

Straight-in

45
Q

Which tactical VFR arrival is easily adaptable to landing on either runway?

A

Beam

46
Q

Which of the following high altitude descents involves flying at L/D max airspeeds until 20,000 feet and then 250 KIAS?

A

Penetration descent

47
Q

When performing an NVG max effort landing, crews must avoid factor obstacles and may descend from the NVG enroute altitude when:

A

Aircraft position is positively known and terrain clearance is assured along the approach

48
Q

When flying an NVG assault landing the pilot should:

A

Avoid a very steep “two-step” approach

49
Q

Which of these options is NOT a good recommendation if threat considerations are the primary factor?

A

Accelerate to 250 KIAS before then fence line then execute a zoom maneuver to clear the small arms WEZ

50
Q

While flying as PF on short final to an NVG assault landing, you experience and NVG failure. You should consider:

A

Both 1+2

Performing a go-around
(Transitioning to overt lighting)

51
Q

As the AC on an NVG airland mission in IMC, you have briefed that the copilot will fly the IAP and you will accomplish the landing. Transfer of aircraft control will be no lower than:

A

300 AGL

52
Q

On an NVG final approach, the PM should verbalized airspeed and VVI beginning at _____ AGL

A

300

53
Q

As PF, you are accomplishing an NVG takeoff with a takeoff/refusal speed of 105 KIAS. AT 90 KIAS, you experience an NVG failure. You should:

A

Consider continuing the takeoff as it may be safer than performing a high-speed abort

54
Q

Max effort operations must fall into what area of the crosswind charts?

A

Recommended

55
Q

What is the minimum MFLMETO (non-peacetime)

A

Charted

56
Q

Peacetime restrictions to maximum effort operations prohibit the use of runways less than how many feet in length?

A

3,000

57
Q

What is the minimum runway width (in feet) for tactical assault operations?

A

60 feet

58
Q

What is the minimum runway length required for a maximum effort landing (non-peacetime)

A

Ground roll + 500’

59
Q

At aircraft gross weights less than 130,000 lbs. what is the maximum allowable rate-of-sink?

A

540 fpm

60
Q

What engine/braking configuration is used to compute landing performance during peacetime?

A

Two in reverse/two in ground idle/full brakes

61
Q

An assault landing with the anti-skid inoperative is:

A

Not authorized

62
Q

When using the landing charts, what percentage of a tailwind component is applied?

A

150%

63
Q

Which of the following is used to determine minimum field length for an assault landing?

A

Ground roll

64
Q

Slowdown during personnel drops (non JM directed) should be planned to allow jump master access to paratroop doors no later than:

A

One minute prior to TOT

65
Q

Which crew members requirement determine when the preslowdown checklist will be initiated?

A

Loadmaster

66
Q

Once the PF and navigator confirm the release point location and track required, who is responsible FO maintaining the desired track over the DZ?

A

PF

67
Q

When executing an airdrop slowdown maneuver, retard all throttles to 1000 in lbs. or prebriefed power setting, lower the flaps to 50% on speed or as briefed and slow to:

A

140 KIAS

68
Q

After a CDS drop, when may the PF call for the flaps to be reset to 50%?

A

At “load clear”

69
Q

A towed parachutist will indicate ready to cut by:

A

Maintaining a tight body position and placing both hands on his or her reserve parachute

70
Q

If a non-EPJS HE load fails to extract with multiple 28’ extraction parachutes outside the aircraft, the loadmaster will do which of the following?

A

Ensure the right rail control handle is in emergency

71
Q

When notified of a CDS malfunction, the PF should first:

A

Extend additional flaps and lower the nose

72
Q

If an SATB exits the aircraft and fails to separate, what action should be taken?

A

The LM should cut it loose

73
Q

Which block letters are authorized for non-circular drop zones?

A

A and S

74
Q

Which of the following is the proper signal for a “no drop” condition?

A

Red flare/Smoke

75
Q

Who WILL acknowledge a “no drop” call?

A

PM and LM

76
Q

In a visual formation, you will find the timeline of events on:

A

The 280

77
Q

Formation taxi interval with two engines at normal ground idle and two engines at LSGI is:

A

One aircraft length

78
Q

A push call requires a formation check-in on the new frequency T or F?

A

False

79
Q

During a formation takeoff:

A

All of the above

80
Q

For wingmen, correct altitude references during day visual formation are:

A

Terrain, radar altimeter, and position relative to lead

C-130H (6 decks)

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