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C-130H > 11-2C-130 Vol3 > Flashcards

11-2C-130 Vol3 Flashcards

1
Q

When is a mission commander required?

A

When more than two aircraft are assembled to perform missions away from home station.

(Should) For special, high visibility missions

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2
Q

When is a deputy lead crew required?

A

For formations greater than four aircraft

IMC airdrops consisting of three or more aircraft

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3
Q

Single element formations in IMC require?

A

Element lead crew or one IP (any position)

IMC airdrops require AWADS lead

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4
Q

Multi-element formations in IMC require?

A

A flight lead crew or IP in the lead or deputy lead (if required) positions, and in each flight lead position

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5
Q

Who may fly with passengers on board?

A

Current and qualified pilots

A non-current but qualified pilot under IP supervision

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6
Q

What is Flight Duty Period (FDP)?

A

The period of time starting at mission report time and ending immediately after the final engine shutdown of the day

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7
Q

Maximum FDP? (Basic crew)

A

16 hours

12 hours with inoperative autopilot

All tactical events accomplished within the first 12 hours

PIC may seek MAJCOM approval for 2 hour extension

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8
Q

What is Crew Duty Time (CDT)?

A

Period of time an aircrew may perform combined ground/flight duties

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9
Q

Maximum CDT? (Basic crew)

A

18 hours

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10
Q

Maximum FDP? (Augmented crew)

A

18 hours

16 hours with inoperative autopilot

All transition or tactical events in first 12 hours

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11
Q

Maximum CDT? (Augmented crew)

A

20 hours

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12
Q

When does CDT/FDP begin?

A

1 hour after aircrew alert notification

When the first aircrew member reports for assigned duties

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13
Q

May aircrews self alert?

A

Yes, with C2 concurrence prior to entering crew rest

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14
Q

Alcohol consumption: 12 hours is based on?

A

Scheduled takeoff

ALFA legal for alert

Earliest showtime from BRAVO alert

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15
Q

How long is pre-departure crew rest for off station missions greater than 16 hours?

A

24 hours before legal for alert time

May perform non-flying duties during first 12 hours

OG may waive any portion of first 12 hours

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16
Q

How long is off-station/enroute crew rest?

A

Minimum of 12 hours before legal for alert time or scheduled report time for self alerts

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17
Q

How long is off-station/enroute ground time?

A

At least 16 hours between engine shutdown and subsequent takeoff

May be modified by mission planners, PICs, or C2 to no less than 12 hours from the time aircrew entered crew rest

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18
Q

Post Mission Crew Rest

A

Only for missions off-station 16 hours or more

1 hour (up to 96) for each 3 hours off station

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19
Q

Crew Chief Work/Rest Plan

A

8 hours of uninterrupted rest in each 24 hour period

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20
Q

Aircrew alert time is normally __+__ __ hours before scheduled takeoff time

A

3+15 (1 hour for reporting, 2+15 for mission preparation)

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21
Q

How long after the expected alert time may C2 alert an aircrew?

A

6 hours

PIC may extend to 8 hours for crew or 12 hours for MEP status

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22
Q

If the mission cannot depart within __+__ __ hours of scheduled takeoff, coordinate with C2 to continue the mission or re-enter crew rest

A

4+00

The PIC may continue the mission after thorough re-evaluation of all ORM factors

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23
Q

ALFA alert launch time

A

1 hour

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24
Q

BRAVO alert launch time

A

3 hours

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25
Q

CHARLIE alert

A

Enter crew rest within 2 hours

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26
Q

Wing Standby Force

A

Legal for alert for 12 hours, able to launch within 3+15 hours

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27
Q

Is formation interfly authorized?

A

Yes, provided a thorough mission brief is conducted between all participants and local/command procedures are discussed

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28
Q

MEL Column A

A

Home Station

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29
Q

MEL Column B

A

Enroute

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30
Q

Minimum Equipment for NVG Operations

A

Pilot’s radar altimeter

SCNS with one GPS or INS for low-level NVG altitudes

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31
Q

AC or IP will make all takeoffs and landings during:

A

Aircraft emergencies (MPD may)

Airlift of nuclear weapons

Max effort on unimproved airfields

When marginal conditions exist

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32
Q

PIC with less than 100 hours will make all takeoffs and landings when:

A

Ceiling/vis less than 300 and/or RVR 4000 (3/4 sm)

RCR less than 12

Crosswind component greater than 15 knots

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33
Q

Deviations observed by PM

A

Heading

Airspeed

Altitude deviations greater than 100 feet

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34
Q

Deviations observed by any crew member

A

200 feet

10 knots

Terrain/obstructions

Approach procedure deviations

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35
Q

Stabilized approach criteria

A

> 1000 fpm unless required and briefed

+10/-5 knots from target

+/- 15 degrees bank from target

+/- 300 fpm from target

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36
Q

Sterile cockpit below:

A

18,000 except cruise flight

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37
Q

Minimum runway length (peace-time)

A

3000 feet

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38
Q

Minimum runway width

A

80 feet

60 for max effort

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39
Q

Minimum taxiway width

A

30 feet

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40
Q

Minimum runway length for normal takeoff

A

CFL or MFLMETO

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41
Q

Minimum runway length for normal landing

A

Landing distance

Ground roll + 500’ for max efforts

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42
Q

For peacetime, compute landing performance with:

A

Two engines in reverse and two in ground idle

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43
Q

Max depth of slush or water covered runways

A

1 inch

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44
Q

Vmeto climb out speed

A

Max effort OCS

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45
Q

Vmca climb out speed

A

Vmca+10

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46
Q

In unable to clear obstacles using Vmeto and max effort OCS:

A

Reduced gross weight or delay mission for more favorable conditions

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47
Q

For peacetime, use the _________ of Vmeto or Vmca, unless obstacles are a factor

A

Higher

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48
Q

Ideal AGL altitude for fuel jettison

A

20,000

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49
Q

BWC low restrictions

A

None

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50
Q

BWC moderate restrictions

A

Initial takeoffs and landings authorized only when departure and arrival routes will avoid bird activity

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51
Q

BWC severe operating restrictions

A

All takeoffs and landings are prohibited

OG/CC or equivalent may waive

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52
Q

Bird strike procedures

A

Land as soon as conditions permit, or as practicable, have aircraft inspected by MX

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53
Q

Any crew member detecting the radar altimeter low altitude warning light will notify the __

A

PF

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54
Q

Before departure, set the radar altimeter for ____________ _____________

A

Emergency return

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55
Q

The __________ and the __________ will use the same radar altimeter setting, unless briefed otherwise

A

Pilot and navigator

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56
Q

Set the radar altimeter to _______ during instrument approaches

A

HAT/HAA

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57
Q

Reduced power takeoffs will use ___ TIT not to exceed _____ in/lbs of torque

A

900

19,600

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58
Q

Reduced power cruise operations

A

970/300 KTAS

<10,000 MSL, 210 KIAS or less

Consider 900 TIT

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59
Q

Are reduced power (970 TIT) max effort takeoffs authorized?

A

Nope

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60
Q

How long to file an ASAP?

A

24 hours

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61
Q

When will an ASAP not protect the submitter?

A

Willful disregard of regulations and procedures

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62
Q

When are helmets required?

A

When parachutes are required per the addenda A

NVGs

ACDT

Unpressurized flight

When mobile in cargo compartment during airdrop

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63
Q

Order of priority for departure planning (obstacle clearance)

A

Published climb restrictions OEI

Current SDP for “operational” missions

Subtract 48’/NM from published, OEI

VFR departure

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64
Q

Weather minimums for takeoff

A

Operational: 1000 RVR with dual RVR and Runway centerline lines

All Others: 1600 RVR for all read outs

1/2 SM if no RVR

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65
Q

Departure alternate minimums, within 30 minutes flying time:

A

Published approach minimums for one hour after takeoff

In no case lower than 200-1/2 (2400 RVR)

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66
Q

Departure alternate minimums, within 2 hours flying time:

A

500-1 above the lowest compatible

Not less than 600-2 for a precision or 800-2 for a non-precision

Forecast to remain so for one hour after ETA

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67
Q

File two alternates when:

A

Forecast vis is below mins for a precision

Forecast ceiling OR vis is below mine for all other approaches

Forecast surface winds out of limits

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68
Q

Flight into areas of forecast or reported ______ icing is prohibited

A

Severe

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69
Q

Freezing drizzle is equivalent to:

A

Moderate icing

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70
Q

Freezing rain is equivalent to:

A

Severe icing

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71
Q

Can you take off in freezing rain?

A

Nope

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72
Q

Can you take off in freezing drizzle?

A

Yes, if de-iced

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73
Q

When de-iced, PIC will ensure a visual inspection is completed within __ minutes of departure

A

Five

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74
Q

If unable to vertically clear thunderstorms by at least 2,000 feet, avoid them horizontally by:

A

20 NM at or above FL230

10 NM below FL230

5 NM for tactical low-level (at or above 0 degrees C)

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75
Q

Highest lightning potential occurs within ____ feet or plus/minus __ degrees C of the freezing level

A

5,000 feet

8 degrees

76
Q

Dash one preflight is good for:

A

12 hours

72 if sealed

Until MX performs dash six preflight

77
Q

Minimum LOX required:

A

5 liters

78
Q

How many EPOS or PBEs for flight deck?

A

3

79
Q

Loadmasters will wear a harness below ___ or above _____

A

800 AGL

25,000 MSL

80
Q

On time departures are within -__ or +__ minutes

A

-20

+14

81
Q

NVG departure weather minimums:

A

Same as normal departures (1000, 1600, 1/2)

1500/3 if non-current and/or unqualified

82
Q

SCNS waypoints, another pilot or navigator will verify the __________ and __________ against the flight plan

A

Coordinates and distances

83
Q

Weather minimums for an approach must be at or above the required ____________ for straight-in/side step or __________ and __________ for circling approaches

A

Visibility

Ceiling and visibility

84
Q

If ALS is into and no notes on NOTAMS, ATIS, or the approach plate, increase the published vis by:

A

1/2 SM

85
Q

Partial panel approach minimums:

A

300’

4000 RVR or 3/4 SM with no RVR

86
Q

What may not be accomplished on training missions with PAX?

A

Initial qualification/re-qualification

Multiple approaches/landings

NVG training

Airdrops

Simulated EPs

87
Q

Minimum runway length for touch and go 50% flap landings:

A

5,000 feet

88
Q

Minimum runway length for other than 50% flap touch and go landings:

A

6,000 feet

89
Q

Minimum ceiling/vis for touch and go landings:

A

300’ and RVR 4000 (3/4 SM) with an IP

600-2 for certified ACs

90
Q

Can you do touch and goes on a slush covered runway?

A

Nope

91
Q

Can you perform 0% flap, ground idle touch and goes?

A

Nope

92
Q

Can you perform touch and goes with hazardous cargo on board?

A

Nope

93
Q

Simulated engine shutdowns require an __ or and __ in one of the pilot seats

A

IP or EP

94
Q

7 simulated engine failure limitations:

A

Do not simulate more than one engine

IP required, unless IP candidate (EP required)

FLIGHT IDLE authorized on one engine, at not less than Vmca, and not less than 300 AGL

AC upgrade and above for OEI no flap

No planned go arounds from OEI no flap

OEI no flap go arounds, if required, will be 4 engines 50% flap

No additional EPs during OEI circles

95
Q

8 prohibited flight maneuvers:

A

Full stalls

Unusual attitudes

Simulated engine driven hydraulic system loss

Bank angles greater than 60 degrees

Rudder reversal/spins

Simulated runaway trim

Simulated two engine approaches/landings

Simulated OEI takeoffs

96
Q

Approach to stalls minimum altitude:

A

10,000 AGL or 5,000’ above the cloud deck

97
Q

Instrument steep turns minimum altitude and maximum bank angle:

A

5,000 AGL if greater than 45 degrees of bank

60 degrees max

98
Q

Slow flight minimum altitude and maximum bank angle:

A

5,000 AGL

15 degrees of bank

99
Q

Initiate a planned missed approach no lower than ____ AGL for simulated emergency procedures during visual approach

A

200

100
Q

9 no flap landing limitations:

A

IP required

No copilots with less than 500 PAA

No circling approaches for copilots

No OEI for copilots

No additional EPs during circles

Max 120,000 lbs.

Crosswinds in recommended zone

Day IMC if above circling minimums

Night with greater of 1000-2 or circling mins

Must be 50% flap go around

101
Q

7 stop and go landing limitations:

A

Only authorized on training, eval, or currency missions

Must be C-130 qualified pilot

Greater than or equal to CFL

Crosswinds in recommended zone

300-3/4 (RVR 4000)

Not in conjunction with no flaps

Wake turbulence criterion must be met

102
Q

Max effort brake cooling <35 degrees C (115,000-130,000 lbs.)

A

No more than three consecutive without 15 minute airborne cooling

103
Q

Max effort brake cooling >35 degrees C (115,000-130,000 lbs.)

A

No more than two consecutive without a 15 minute airborne cooling

104
Q

Max effort brake cooling (<115,000 lbs.)

A

No more than three consecutive without a 15 minute airborne cooling

105
Q

Actual engine shutdown and air start limitations:

A

IP required

No lower than 2,500 AGL or MSA, whichever is higher

Day VMC

106
Q

Does a FIR reflect international borders or sovereign airspace?

A

Nope

107
Q

Can ATC grant diplomatic clearances of sovereign airspace?

A

Nope

108
Q

RVSM required equipment

A

Both pilots altimeters

One autopilot

Altitude alerter

Transponder

109
Q

VFR ARA ceiling and vis mins

A

1500-3

110
Q

IFR ARA ceiling and vis mins

A

500-1

300-1 with AWADS certified crews

111
Q

Standard width for a tactical corridor:

A

3 NM

112
Q

Minimum day VMC enroute altitude:

A

500 AGL modified contour using visual references or the radar altimeter

113
Q

Minimum night VMC enroute altitude:

A

500’ above the highest obstruction to flight, or 400’ plus one contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within the tactical corridor to include the aircraft turn radius over each turn point

114
Q

Minimum NVG enroute altitude:

A

500’ above the highest spot terrain elevation, or 400’ plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is higher, within the tactical corridor

115
Q

If factor obstacles are not identified within the tactical corridor, the aircrew will:

A

Climb to 500’ above the obstacle or avoid it laterally by 2 NM

116
Q

Minimum Safe Altitude

A

Indicated altitude of 500’ above the highest obstruction to flight, or 400’ plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within 5 NM of route centerline to include the aircraft turn radius

117
Q

Minimum IFR enroute altitude

A

1000’ (2000’ in mountainous terrain) above the highest obstruction to flight, within 5 NM of route centerline

118
Q

Emergency Safe Altitude

A

1000’ (2000’ in mountainous terrain) above the highest obstruction to flight within 22 NM of planned route centerline

119
Q

Day VMC drop altitude

A

IAW with AFI 11-231

120
Q

Night VMC drop altitude (non-NVG)

A

If not on NVGs, fly minimum night VMC run-in altitudes through slowdown, at an indicated altitude of 500’ above the highest obstruction to flight, or 400’ plus one contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is higher, within 3 NM of run-in centerline

121
Q

Night VMC drop altitude (NVGs)

A

Fly NVG enroute altitudes through slowdown

122
Q

When may you descend from run-in altitude to drop altitude during night VMC drops (both with/without NVGs)

A

After slowdown, when the drop zone is in sight and will remain in sight, or when a positive position is identified and adequate terrain clearance is assured

123
Q

IMC drop altitude

A

500’ above the highest obstruction to flight, or 400’ plus one contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within 3 NM either side of the run-in centerline from DZ entry to DZ exit, or as specified in AFI 11-231, whichever is higher

124
Q

Formation will not descend until the last aircraft is at or past the:

A

DZ entry point

125
Q

Minimum LCLA drop altitude:

A

Dependent upon the type of parachute, but no lower than 300’ AGL

126
Q

Plan to roll out on final from low altitude approaches at ________ airspeed no lower than ______ AGL

A

Final approach airspeed

150’ AGL

127
Q

With the exception of ______ ______ ______, do not ERO _______ _______ unless authorized in the JA/ATT, exercise operation or contingency ATO

A

Small arms ammunition

Explosive cargo

128
Q

Do not combat offload explosives and munitions (with the exception of small arms ammunition) unless:

A

Rigged for airdrop

129
Q

For combat offloads, a minimum of ____ feet is required, but ____ is desired

A

500’ required

1000’ desired

130
Q

Single or double/triple married pallets may be combat offloaded, without ballast, provided their total weight does not exceed:

A

12,000 pounds

131
Q

CDS bundles may be combat offloaded, provided:

A

The static line retriever is used manually (manual gate cut if inop)

CVR loads are done one stick at a time

12,000 lbs. ballast limit is observed

132
Q

Maximum weight for combat offload method “B”

A

15,000 lbs.

133
Q

NVG approaches/landings. The navigator will program a backup ___ in SCNS, and configure the ______ to monitor the approach course

A

ARA

Radar

134
Q

For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed __ degrees, and the aircraft will jot descend below ___’ AGL until rolled out on final

A

45 degrees

150’ AGL

135
Q

Formation takeoff/landings minimums:

A

Are the minimums for the airport navigation aid used, but no lower than 200/1

Adhere to both ceiling and vis requirements

136
Q

Lead will announce airspeed changes of __ knots or greater at night

A

15

137
Q

Basic visual spacing between element leads:

A

8000 feet

138
Q

SKE must be operational for night, unaided visual formations or the formation is restricted to ____’ in trail

A

2000

139
Q

____ are required for night threat reactions

A

NVGs

140
Q

Rejoining aircraft will maintain ____ ‘ above or below the formation until the formation is in sight and clearance to rejoin is granted

A

500’

141
Q

Rejoining aircraft must be in position at formation altitude by _____ _____ to accomplish the drop

A

Green light

142
Q

Minimum CDS spacing:

A

6000 feet

143
Q

The desired landing interval is __ seconds, __ seconds minimum

A

20 seconds desired

15 seconds minimum

144
Q

During SKE climbs/descents, lead announces the altitude passing each ____ feet

A

2000

145
Q

Priority of FCI signals

A

Altitude

Heading

Airspeed

146
Q

Minimum SKE spacing:

A

4000 feet

147
Q

SKE lead will signal turns of __ degrees or more and airspeed changes of __ knots or more

A

10 degrees

10 knots

148
Q

For formation check turns, all aircraft will use __ degrees of bank unless otherwise briefed

A

30

149
Q

VMC loss of SKE

A

If only the DVST/PPI is inop, aircraft may elect to stay in position with leads occurrence

150
Q

IMC loss of SKE

A

Breakout via:

Straight and level: climb 500’, turn 30 degrees in the safest direction for 30 seconds

In a turn: roll out and climb 500’

151
Q

For SKE rejoins:

A

Set SKE range x1000 switch at max range

Approach from 1000 above or below

Establish radio contact and leader/slot number

Ensure master lost extinguished

Complete FCI checks

Remain 1000’ above or below until stabilized in position and the last aircraft in formation is identified

152
Q

SKE rejoining aircraft must be stabilized in position at formation altitude by the __ (IMC) or the ___ (VMC) to accomplish the drop

A

IP

One minute

153
Q

Formation lead will not pass back revised drift/ballistic winds until:

A

After level at drop altitude

154
Q

After slowdown, element leads are restricted to __ degrees of bank

A

10

155
Q

Upon reaching ___ KIAS, the formation may descend to drop altitude using ____ FPM

A

140 KIAS

1000 FPM

156
Q

Do not initiate formation descent until:

A

Lead position is positively identified

The entire formation is within 3 NM of DZ run-in centerline

The last aircraft is at or past the DZ entry point

157
Q

Each element will stack __ feet above the preceding element’s drop altitude

A

50

158
Q

Element leaders will maintain formation position with TWS until they are established on drop altitude and airspeed, at which point they are cleared their own:

A

Independent run-in to their own CARP

159
Q

The minimum SKE landing interval is ____ required, ____ desired

A

5000 required

6000 desired

160
Q

AWADS lead will verify at least _____ OAPs during the run-in

A

Two

161
Q

AWADS leads will have an OAP active on the run-in at from the __________ through the __________

A

One minute advisory through the escape point

162
Q

AWADS, GRADS, PADS, or a radar beacon drop will be made for CDS or equipment drops above:

A

3000 AGL

163
Q

May a SKE wingman execute a SKE timing drop off a lead that used AWADS, GRADS, or a radar beacon drop?

A

Yep

164
Q

Overwater airdrops may be conducted up to _____ AGL using standard methods

A

5000’ AGL

165
Q

Personnel required to be mobile in the cargo compartment will wear protective headgear from the ___________ to the ____________ if an actual threat is briefed

A

Combat entry to combat exit

166
Q

During airdrops, loadmasters will be on interphone from completion of ____________ until ___________

A

Pre-slowdown checks to completion of drop checklist

167
Q

Which time advisories are required for personnel airdrops?

A

20, 10, 1 minute, and 5 second

168
Q

Which time advisories are required for CDS and equipment drops?

A

1 minute and 5 second

169
Q

During personnel airdrops, the aircraft must be at or above drop altitude and stable not later than _________

A

One minute out (two minutes for jump master directed)

170
Q

Who will acknowledge a no drop call?

A

PM and Loadmaster

171
Q

Jump master directed drops are limited to how many aircraft?

A

Single ship only

172
Q

For I-CDS/JPADS, both pilots will review preflight _____ and _____ for each respective airdrop

A

CARP and ADE

173
Q

During dropsonde release, what is the aircraft configuration and airspeed?

A

Flaps up

170-180 KIAS

174
Q

For I-CDS operations, a FOM of ______ or verification of waypoints by ___________ is required

A

FOM of 3

AWADS OAPs

175
Q

For JPADS operations, a FOM of ________ is required

A

3

176
Q

What are JPADS wind limits for 2K/10K?

A

18 knots

177
Q

Use pre-breathing procedures when dropping from _________ MSL or higher

A

20,000’

178
Q

For which airdrop operations are two loadmasters required?

A

Actual equipment drops from ramp and door

Other than single CDS with manual gate cut

Airdrops at and above 14,000’ MSL

179
Q

Max tailgate jumpers per pass:

A

20

180
Q

During CDS drops, when should the flaps be reset to 50%?

A

When the loadmaster calls “load clear”

181
Q

LCLA configuration and airspeed:

A

50% flaps

130 KIAS

182
Q

Minimum bailout altitude for static line jumpers:

A

400’ AGL

183
Q

Minimum bailout altitude for free fall jumpers:

A

2000’ AGL

184
Q

What is the recommended aircraft configuration for a towed parachutist from the troop door?

A

Gear down

Flaps 100%

185
Q

For towed multiple 28’ extraction parachutes, do not allow the aircraft to slow below:

A

Vmeto

186
Q

When notified of a CDS malfunction, pilots will:

A

Extend additional flaps

Maintain a slight nose down attitude until the ramp and door are closed and the load secured

Maintain drop altitude and airspeed

Avoid flying over or upwind of water/built up areas

187
Q

If patients are onboard, how many AE crew members must remain on board during aircraft servicing?

A

Two

C-130H (6 decks)

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