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PCM REVIEW > PCM 2ND BIMEX > Flashcards

PCM 2ND BIMEX Flashcards

1
Q

What do you call a person or animal that harbours a specific communicable agent
in the absence of discernable clinical disease and is a potential source of infection to
others?

A. Carrier
B. Zoonosis
C. Reservoir
D. Acanthoponosis

A

A. Carrier

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2
Q

What is an epidemic disease?

A. Is one that occurs only occasionally within the population of a particular geographic
area
B. Are diseases that are always present within the population of a particular geographic
area
C. Is defined as greater than usual number of cases of a disease in a particular geographic area
D. An outbreak of a disease over a wider geographic area such as from one country to
other countries

A

C. Is defined as greater than usual number of cases of a disease in a particular geographic area

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3
Q

Which is not identified to promote disease transmission in the communicable
disease model?

A. Biological agents like microorganisms
B. Vectors like mosquitos
C. Carriers
D. Genetic endowment

A

D. Genetic endowment

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4
Q

Which disease is not transmitted by flies as insect vectors?

A. African sleeping sickness
B. Leshmaniasis
C. Onchocerciasis
D. Malaria

A

D. Malaria

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5
Q

Which one is not included in the violence and injury prevention programs of the
DOH?

A. Zero fireworks related injuries
B. Stop bullying in schools promotion
C. End mental health stigma and discrimination

A

C. End mental health stigma and discrimination

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6
Q

Which Of the following micronutrients is given to a child at 9 months of age,
pre-schoolers and newly delivered others?

A. Iron
B. Fluoride
C. Iodine
D. Vitamin A

A

D. Vitamin A

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7
Q

What is the leading cause of cancer deaths and the most preventable type for both
men and women?

A. Colorectal cancer
B. Lung cancer
C. Breast cancer
D. Prostate cancer

A

B. Lung cancer

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8
Q

During the postnatal care a counseling for breastfeeding shall be done focusing on
its advantage. Which among the statements below is false?

A. Breast feeding protects the newborn from developing hypertension in adult
B. Breast feeding is associated with lower risk of developing atopic dermatitis
C. Breast feeding is associated with lower risk of food allergy
D. Breast feeding protects the newborn from developing dyslipidemia in adult

A

D. Breast feeding protects the newborn from developing dyslipidemia in adult

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9
Q

When the pregnant mother has this history an adverse outcome of pre-mature
delivery is associated?

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. History of STD
C. Hypertensive disease
D. Asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

A. Iron deficiency anemia

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10
Q

The single best predictor of neonatal survival is

A. Low birth weight/prematurity
B. Pregnant mother has Hepatitis b infection
C. Pregnant mother has an asymptomatic bacteriuria
D. Pregnant mother has a history of hypertensive disease

A

A. Low birth weight/prematurity

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11
Q

Which one is not an effect when progesterone alone is used as an ORAL CONTRACEPTIVE PILL?

A. Suppression of luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. Thickening of the cervical mucus
C. Suppression of the Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
D. Inhibit activities of an enzyme that facilitates sperm penetration of the ovum

A

C. Suppression of the Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

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12
Q

Which one is not a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives pills?

A. History of thromboembolic disease
B. Hypertension in women with vascular disease
C. Cigarette smoking regardless of age during pregnancy
D. Coronary artery disease

A

C. Cigarette smoking regardless of age during pregnancy

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13
Q

Which do you think is not a Natural Family Planning Method?

A. Calendar method
B. Basal Body Temperature method
C. Cervical secretion method
D. Lactation amenorrhea

A

D. Lactation amenorrhea

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14
Q

What vaccination should be avoided during pregnancy because of its serious consequences

A. Measles vaccine
B. Pneumococcal vaccine
C. Influenza vaccine
D. Rubella vaccine

A

D. Rubella vaccine

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15
Q

Why is folic Acid should be encouraged to be taken by the pregnant mother

A. To prevent neural tube defect in the child
B. To premature delivery
C. To prevent respiratory disease syndrome
D. To prevent pre-eclampsia

A

A. To prevent neural tube defect in the child

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16
Q

What do you think when the pregnant mother iron deficiency anemia is associated
with when the child reaches adulthood?

A. Hypertensive disease
B. Proteinuria in routine urinalysis
C. Associated with adverse outcome like premature delivery
D. Associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

C. Associated with adverse outcome like premature delivery

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17
Q

What’s the non-contraceptive health benefit of oral contraceptives?

A. Regulates menstruation
B. Used in the treatment of fertility problems
C. Used in the treatment of dysmenorrhea
D. All of the above are correct

A

A. Regulates menstruation

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18
Q

Which one should not be done during the first pre-natal visit?

A. History taking of the previous obstetrical history and previous complications
B. Complete physical examination is undertaken. Detailed abdominal and pelvic
examination must be performed
C. CBC, Urinalysis for urinary tract infection, glucose and protein spillage
D. Ultrasound to determine the sex of the foetus

A

D. Ultrasound to determine the sex of the foetus

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19
Q

Which are considered as micronutrients?

A. Protein
B. Vitamin and minerals
C. Fats
D. Carbohydrates

A

B. Vitamin and minerals

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20
Q

What do you call the medical provided to a pregnant woman from the time of
conception until birth process occurs?

A. Preconception health care
B. Prenatal health care
C. Natal health care
D. Pre-marital health care

A

B. Prenatal health care

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21
Q

What is the third most common form of disability a reported by the National
Statistics Office (NSO) in the year 2000?

A. Mental Illness
B. Visual Disability
C. Hearing Impairment
D. Oral Disability

A

A. Mental Illness

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22
Q

What is the goal of secondary prevention to meet the needs of people with mental
illness in the United States today?

A. To reduce the incidence (rate of new case) of mental illness
B. A program called “Moving to opportunity”
C. To reduce the prevalence by shortening the duration of episodes through prompt
intervention
D. Treatment and rehabilitation to ameliorate the symptoms of illness

A

C. To reduce the prevalence by shortening the duration of episodes through prompt intervention

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23
Q

The prevalence rate of mental illness in the philippines was 99/100,000 population.
What is the number 1 most prevalent diagnosis?

A. Phobias
B. Alcohol abuse
C. Depression
D. Suicide

A

A. Phobias

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24
Q

Which is not associated as a factor in the mental health problem in the Philippines
based on the DOH study?

A. Big families
B. Low educational attainment
C. Ages 20-29 years old
D. Ages 30-39 years old

A

D. Ages 30-39 years old

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25
Q

In the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) model by Salye what do you call the
stage characterized by continued challenge by the stressors that lead to resistance
where the body tries to adapt to the stressor?

A. Stage of exhaustion
B. Stage of resistance
C. Stage of alarm
D. All are correct

A

B. Stage of resistance

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26
Q

The National institute of Mental Health was established in 1946 after the passage
of the National Mental Health Act with the following purposes except

A. To provide training and award fellowships and grants for work in mental health
B. To process the discharging of patients from state mental hospitals to community settings
C. To aid the states in the prevention, diagnosis and treatment of neuropsychiatric
disorders
D. To foster and aid research to the cause, diagnosis and treatment of neuropsychiatric
disorders

A

B. To process the discharging of patients from state mental hospitals to community settings

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27
Q

What is the only disease that has a higher percentage among females than among
males among the 10 leading causes of mortality?

A. Goiter
B. HIV/AIDS
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Poisoning

A

A. Goiter

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28
Q

What is the most common malignancies with preponderance among females aged
25-55 years old in the Philippines?

A. Malignant neoplasms of the breast
B. Malignant neoplasms of the uterus
C. Malignant neoplasms of the cervix
D. Malignant neoplasms of the ovaries

A

A. Malignant neoplasms of the breast

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29
Q

What Is the type of cancer that has the highest survival rate due to community
awareness and the availability of diagnostic screening tests?

A. Breast cancer
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Lung cancer
D. Prostate cancer

A

A. Breast cancer

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30
Q

During psychiatric rehabilitation the primary objective is RECOVERY. Recovery
includes all of the following except

A. Increased independence
B. Community participation
C. Gainful employment
D. Stays in the mental hospital institution for the rest of their lives

A

D. Stays in the mental hospital institution for the rest of their lives

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31
Q

An affective disorder characterized by dysphoric mood and /or loss of pleasure in
almost all normal activities or pastimes

A. Mental Health
B. Mental disorder
C. Mental depression
D. Mental illness

A

C. Mental depression

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32
Q

Delirium and Alzheimer’s disease are examples of

A. Neurocognitive disorders
B. Personality disorders
C. Neurodevelopmental disorders
D. Dissociative disorders

A

A. Neurocognitive disorders

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33
Q

Which do you think is not a risk reduction strategies employed in psychotherapy?

A. Involves treatment with medication
B. Involves treatment thru verbal communication
C. Involves cognitive behavioural therapy focus on maladaptive feeling and behaviour
D. Use exercise, role playing and other structured procedures to promote new thought
patterns

A

A. Involves treatment with medication

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34
Q

Which is not an A to Z program of the Department of Health?

A. Climate Change Program
B. Occupational Health program
C. Government Procurement Program
D. Women and Children Protection Program

A

C. Government Procurement Program

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35
Q

The most important indicator of the state of the world’s children since it reflects
maternal health, level of immunization, ORT use, availability of maternal and child
health services, income and food availability in the family, availability of clean water
and safe sanitation and the overall safety of the child’s environment

A. Maternal Mortality Rate
B. Child Mortality rate.
C. Specific Mortality rate
D. Under Five Mortality rate

A

D. Under Five Mortality rate

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36
Q

man who has undergone vasectomy at a local family planning clinic Is considered sterile

A. After 25 ejaculations
B. One week after the procedure
C. Immediately after the procedure
D. After zero sperm count

A

D. After zero sperm count

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37
Q

Which is not included in the violence and injury prevention programs of the DOH

A. Zero fireworks related injuries
B. End bullying in schools promotion
C. End mental health stigma and discrimination
D. Suicide prevention hotline

A

C. End mental health stigma and discrimination

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38
Q

Which is the secondary prevention for HIV/AIDS infection?

A. Condoms for every act of sexual intercourse if you chooses to have multiple sexual partners
B. Testing donated blood for HIV antibodies and discarding units that are infected
C. Treating HIV positive pregnant women with antiretroviral drugs
D. Monogamous faithful relationships

A

B. Testing donated blood for HIV antibodies and discarding units that are infected

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39
Q

One of these is not considered a preventive effort in the public health control of
disease when the goal is to improve the resistance of the host?

A. Post exposure prophylaxis
B. Water and food safety
C. Vaccination
D. Nutrition

A

B. Water and food safety

40
Q

One of these prevention and control program is not covered through the global
Fund

A. Rabies
B. HIV/AIDS
C. Malaria
D. Tuberculosis

A

A. Rabies

41
Q

Which of these infectious diseases is not responsible for the global disease
burden?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Diarrheal diseases
C. Lower respiratory tract infections
D. Rabies

A

D. Rabies

42
Q

Which is not a spread of the HIV virus through vertical transmission?

A. Parents to child in utero
B. Heterosexual contact
C. Through breast feeding
D. Transfusion of blood and blood products

A

B. Heterosexual contact

43
Q

Case fatality rate of AIDS has been very high without specific therapy. Majority of
the patients have died

A. Within 3-5 years after the diagnosis of AIDS
B. Within a year after the diagnosis of AIDS
C. More than 10 years after the diagnosis of AIDS
D. They will die anyway anytime

A

A. Within 3-5 years after the diagnosis of AIDS

44
Q

When do most persons infected with the HIV virus develop detectable antibodies?

A. Within 1 to 3 months
B. Within 4 to 6 months
C. More than a year
D. More than a decade

A

A. Within 1 to 3 months

45
Q

Most common opportunistic infections of AIDS among homosexual or bisexual
men is

A. Pneumocystis carini pneumonia
B. Kafosi’s sarcoma
C. Pulmonary tuberculosis
D. Diarrhea

A

B. Kaposi’s sarcoma

46
Q

All of these are the preventive methods for HIV/AIDS prevention and control
program except

A. Avoid sexual intercourse with an infected person
B. Avoid having multiple sexual partners
C. Avoid having sex with someone you knew
D. Avoid transfusion of blood unless screen for HIV

A

C. Avoid having sex with someone you knew

47
Q

IN HIV positive individuals, the first sign of AIDS and the most common
opportunistic infection in the Philippines is

A. Kafosi’s sarcoma
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Pneumocystis carini pneumonia
D. Loss of weight

A

B. Pulmonary tuberculosis

48
Q

In the USA among men, the most frequent routes of transmission of HIV/AIDS is

A. IVDU
B. Heterosexual
C. Homosexual intercourse
D. Bisexual intercourse

A

C. Homosexual intercourse

49
Q

When the rate of new HIV infections are approximately equal among men and
women the most important route of spread is

A. Heterosexual
B. IVDU
C. Homosexual
D. Vertical transmission like breast feeding

A

A. Heterosexual

50
Q

The situation of HIV/AIDS is very serious and the prevalence is very high in the
following regions of the world except

A. Southeast Asia
B. Europe
C. South America
D. Central Africa

A

B. Europe

51
Q

In Central Africa and Southeast Asia, the spread of HIV infection is principally the
result of

A. A contaminated blood supply
B. Arthropod vectors
C. Heterosexual intercourse
D. Homosexual intercourse

A

C. Heterosexual intercourse

52
Q

The infected person may be exposed to a new tuberculosis that results in active
disease. WE call this as

A. Re-infection tuberculosis
B. Re-activation tuberculosis
C. Primary tuberculosis
D. Inactive tuberculosis

A

A. Re-infection tuberculosis

53
Q

All of these are methods of primary prevention of tuberculosis except

A. Vaccination with BCG
B. Avoidance of overcrowding
C. Introduction of UV radiation which kills bacteria in the air
D. Doing chest x-rays

A

D. Doing chest x-rays

54
Q

Patients with tuberculosis should be given prompt treatment. Regimens commonly accepted in the DOTS program are the following except

A. Ethambutol|
B. Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid
D. Pyrazinamide
E. Rifampicin

A

B. Streptomycin

55
Q

The most effective method of case finding for tuberculosis and the test priority in
developing countries

A. Direct sputum microscopy
B. Chest X-ray
C. Culture and sensitivity
D. Tuberculin testing with PPD

A

A. Direct sputum microscopy

56
Q

On chest X-rays the finding of Ghon’s complexes is evidence of

A. Active tuberculosis
B. Immunodeficiency
C. Latent tuberculosis
D. Reactivation of primary tuberculosis

A

C. Latent tuberculosis

57
Q

In the presence of BCG vaccination, tuberculin skin testing with PPD may produce
a

A. False negative result
B. False positive result
C. A rash with pruritus
D. Reactivation with latent tuberculosis

A

B. False positive result

58
Q

What do you think is the false statement?

A. Tuberculosis is higher among the poor than the rich
B. Tuberculosis is higher in cities than in rural areas
C. Children with primary tuberculosis are generally non-infectious
D. In older persons tuberculosis is higher among females than males

A

D. In older persons tuberculosis is higher among females than males

59
Q

In the U.S.A. the incidence of tuberculosis has shown which of the following
patterns

A. A decline from the end of the 19th century until 1980, then a resurgence and rise until
1985 and incidence decline again since 1993
B. A steady decline since the end of the 19 century
C. A rise from the middle of the 19 century until 1940’s and then decline
D. A steady rise since the middle of the 19 century

A

A. A decline from the end of the 19th century until 1980, then a resurgence and rise until
1985 and incidence decline again since 1993

60
Q

Pulmonary Primary tuberculosis disease is

A. Communicable disease
B. A contagious disease
C. A hereditary disease
D. Is exclusive to persons who are HIV/AIDS infected

A

A. Communicable disease

61
Q

clinically diagnosed pulmonary tuberculosis is one where

A. Patients with two sputum specimen are negative for ACID FAST BACILLI(AFB)
B. Sputum culture is negative for mycobacterium TB bacilli
C. Smear not done due to a specified condition
D. Radiographic abnormalities consistent with active PTB

A

D. Radiographic abnormalities consistent with active PTB

62
Q

Pott’s disease is a form of tuberculosis involving the

A. Spinal Cord
B. Lungs
C. Skin
D. Meninges

A

A. Spinal Cord

63
Q

This is a method of tertiary prevention of tuberculosis

A. Directly Observed Treatment Short Course Therapy (DOTS)
B. BCG vaccination
C. Ultraviolet radiation which kills mycobacterium TB bacilli in the air
D. Tuberculin skin testing

A

A. Directly Observed Treatment Short Course Therapy (DOTS)

64
Q

Which one is not a risk reduction objective of the National TB Prevention and
Control program?

A. To put all new cases under DOTS treatment protocol
B. It must be 95 to 100% compliance to treatment
C. Cure rate must be greater than 85% (sputum conversion)
D. To reduce the prevalence rate of tuberculosis

A

D. To reduce the prevalence rate of tuberculosis

65
Q

What do you call the specie that causes the malignant type of malaria and therefore is considered as the most deadly specie?

A. Plasmodium malaria
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Plasmodium falciparum

A

D. Plasmodium falciparum

66
Q

The stage in the life cycle of malaria characterized by the presence of the signs
and symptoms of the disease

A. Exoerythrocytic stage
B. Merozoite stage
C. Erythrocytic stage
D. Gametocytic stage

A

C. Erythrocytic stage

67
Q

The infective stage of malaria from mosquito to human in its life cycle is

A. Sporozoite stage
B. Merozoite stage
C. Schizoid stage
D. Gametocyte stage

A

A. Sporozoite stage

68
Q

Type of malaria seen mainly in Sub-Saharan Africa

A. Ovale malaria
B. Falciparum malaria
C. Malaria malaria
D. Vivax malaria

A

A. Ovale malaria

69
Q

The time between the mosquito bite and the appearance of the clinical signs and
symptoms of malaria is shorter in

A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium malaria

A

A. Plasmodium falciparum

70
Q

The following are the preventive measures in the prevention and control of malaria
except

A. Filling and draining of areas of impound water
B. Larvicides and biologic control with larvivoros fish
C. Nightly spraying of screened living and sleeping quarters
D. Use of mosquito nets

A

D. Use of mosquito nets

71
Q

The specific treatment of malaria due to infections of any of the 4 types is the use
of

A. Primaquine
B. Quinine
C. Tetracycline
D. Chloroquine (Aralen)

A

D. Chloroquine (Aralen)

72
Q

Malaria is transmitted by a bite of a mosquito called

A. Male anopheles mosquito
B. Aedes egypti
C. Aedes albopictus
D. Female anopheles mosquito

A

D. Female anopheles mosquito

73
Q

All of the following statements are true when bitten by a dog except

A. Wash the wound immediately with soap and water for about 10 - 15 minutes
B. Wound should then be cleansed thoroughly with 70% alcohol
C. Rabies immune globulin (RIG) and/or vaccine (ARV) as indicated
D. Cover the wound with dressing and bandages

A

D. Cover the wound with dressing and bandages

74
Q

All of these are considered as category III dog bites except

A. All exposures in the head and neck
B. Handling of infected carcass
C. Nibbling of uncovered skin
D. Transdermal bites like lacerations or avulsions

A

C. Nibbling of uncovered skin

75
Q

The pathognomonic sign and symptom of rabies is

A. Fear of impending death
B. Sense of apprehension
C. Fear of water
D. Intolerance to noise and bright light

A

C. Fear of water

76
Q

The principal reservoirs of rabies in developing countries are

A. Dogs
B. Cats
C. Cattle
D. Racoon

A

A. Dogs

77
Q

If the dog bite is category III in per the physician’s diagnosis you then will
recommend the giving of

A. Anti - rabies vaccine only (ARV)
B. Human Rabies Immunoglobulin only (RIG)
C. You give both the Anti-rabies vaccine and the Human Rabies Immunoglobulin
vaccine
D. You will not give anything but observed the dog for two weeks from the day of biting

A

C. You give both the Anti-rabies vaccine and the Human Rabies Immunoglobulin
vaccine

78
Q

All of these are primary preventions except

A. Food fortification
B. Vector control
C. Breast feeding of the infant
D. Control of hypertension

A

D. Control of hypertension

79
Q

Hepatitis B virus I implicated in

A. Cervical cancer
B. Hepatocellular cancer
C. Liver cirrhosis
D. Penile cancer

A

B. Hepatocellular cancer

80
Q

Human papilloma virus is the etiologic agent of

A. Ovarian CA
B. Cervical cancer
C. Vaginal Cancer
D. All of them are correct

A

B. Cervical cancer

81
Q

In the communicable disease model the following are identified to promote
disease transmission except

A. Biological agents like micro organisms
B. Vectors like mosquitos
C. Carriers
D. Genetic endowment

A

D. Genetic endowment

82
Q

RA 10354 is all about

A. Responsible Pet Ownership Act
B. Responsible Parenthood Act
C. Family Planning Act
D. Universal Health Insurance Act
83.

A

B. Responsible Parenthood Act

83
Q

The maternal body composition at pregnancy plays an important role in the outcome of the offspring. When during pregnancy the pregnant mother has low birth
weight

A. It is associated with the development of coronary heart disease
B. Associated with polycystic ovary disease in the offspring during adulthood
C. Predicts elevated blood pressure of future adult
D. All of the above are correct

A

C. Predicts elevated blood pressure of future adult

84
Q

Which in the list of statements is false?

A. Breast feeding protects the new born from obesity in childhood
B. Breast reeding is associated with lower risk of developing atopic dermatitis, allergic
rhinitis and asthma
C. Breast feeding protects new born from developing hypertension in childhood
D. Breast feeding protects the child from cancer during adulthood

A

D. Breast feeding protects the child from cancer during adulthood

85
Q

Which is not an effect of progesterone as a contraceptive pill?

A. Suppression of the luteinizing hormone
B. Prevent ovulation
C. Inhibits sperm transport
D. Suppression of the Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

D. Suppression of the Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)

86
Q

YUZPE regimen is used as an

A. Emergency contraceptives
B. Is a form of tubal ligation
C. Is actually a vasectomy
D. Used as a regular contraceptive

A

A. Emergency contraceptives

87
Q

The vitamin that function as an anti-oxidant which improves spermatogenesis

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E

A

D. Vitamin E

88
Q

Deficiency of calcium will result to

A. Osteomalacia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Osteoarthritis

A

B. Osteoporosis

89
Q

Used in the treatment of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A. Fluoride
B. Selenium
C. lodine
D. Cooper

A

B. Selenium

90
Q

This disease is the leading cause of years potential life lost

A. Heart disease
B. Malignancy
C. Accidents
D. Lower respiratory tract infections

A

B. Malignancy

91
Q

Secondary preventions are

A. Preventive measures that led to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment of a
disease
B. Preventive measures that forestall the illness or injury
C. Measures aimed at rehabilitation following significant pathogenesis
D. Observation of traffic rules when driving

A

A. Preventive measures that led to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment of a
disease

92
Q

Which one is not an acute communicable disease?

A. Pneumonia
B. Measles
C. Tuberculosis
D. Typhoid fever

A

C. Tuberculosis

93
Q

Which one is not a chronic non- communicable disease?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Lead poisoning
C. Coronary heart disease
D. Degenerative osteoarthritis

A

B. Lead poisoning

94
Q

What do you think is the precursor of a stroke?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypertension
C. Dyslipidemia
D. Hyperuricemia

A

A. Hyperglycemia

95
Q

Which one is not identified to promote disease transmission in the communicable
disease model?

A. Biologic agents
B. Vectors
C. Carriers
D. Body mass index

A

D. Body mass index

96
Q

The capability of a communicable disease agent to cause a disease in a
susceptible host

A. Infectivity
B. Pathogenicity
C. Virulence
D. Presence of toxins in the microbes

A

B. Pathogenicity

PCM REVIEW (5 decks)

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