PBL Flashcards

1
Q

what initiates the excitement of the heart

A

sino-atrial node

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2
Q

what does stroke volume respond to changes in

A

pre-load and after load (frank-starling curve)

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3
Q

what heart conditions can inherited

A

cardiomyopathies, inherited arrhythmias (LQTS, brugada), very high cholesterol levels

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4
Q

what should waist circumference be for men and women

A

men less than 94cm

women less than 80 cm

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5
Q

what should BMI be

A

18.5-24-9 healthy

more than 30 = obese

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6
Q

what are the three layers of the pericardium and which one is in contact with the heart

A

outermost- fibrous, parietal serous, visceral serous- innermost in contact with the heart

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7
Q

what is between the serous layers of the pericardium

A

pericardial space filled with pericardial fluid

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8
Q

where are the semilunar valves of the heart

A

at the base of the great vessels

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9
Q

where do most of the coronary veins drain into

A

the coronary sinus which drains into the right atrium

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10
Q

where are baroreceptors located and what are they sensitive to

A

located in the walls of the large arteries and are stretch receptors which are sensitive to changes in pressure

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11
Q

how do baroreceptors respond to changes in blood pressure

A

cause reflex changes to bring blood pressure back to normal

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12
Q

how does an increased arterial BP affect the medulla

A

an increased arterial BP causes an increase in action potential frequency to the cardio-regulatory centres in the medulla, causing an increase in parasympathetic activity to the heart, decreasing HR and force of contraction

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13
Q

how do chemoreceptors maintain BP

A

by monitoring blood oxygen, CO2 and pH. if decreased O2 or pH or increased CO2 or pH the chemo-receptors will cause a decrease in para symp stim

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14
Q

what are the natural mechanisms for long term BP maintenance

A

pressure natriuresis, RAA mechanism, ADH mechanism and natriuretic peptide hormone

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15
Q

what is pressure diuresis

A

increased urine output due to high arterial pressure- decreases blood volume

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16
Q

what is pressure natriuresis

A

increased sodium output due to high BP- decreases blood volume

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17
Q

what is the RAA mechanism and how does it control BP

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone

regulates kidney function which affects peripheral resistance, blood volume and blood pressure

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18
Q

when is renin secreted and from where

A

released from kidney when BP is reduced

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19
Q

what is the role of renin

A

cleaves protein angiotensin to angiotensin 1 which is later cleaved to angiotensin 2

also acts on adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone which acts on kidney tubules to increase reabsorbtion of sodium- increasing blood volume

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20
Q

what does angiotensin 2 do

A

constricts arterioles and veins to increase venous return to the heart and increase arterial BP

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21
Q

what is ADH and when is it released

A

anti-diuretic hormone

when baroreceptors detect decrease in arterial blood pressure

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22
Q

what does ADH do

A

acts directly on blood vessels causing vasoconstriction and increases water absorption by the kidneys - increasing BP

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23
Q

what releases natriuretic peptides and when

A

synthesised by the heart, brain and other organs

released in response to cardiac distension or neurohormonal stimuli

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24
Q

what do natriuretic hormones do

A

cause excretion of salt and water in the kidneys - reducing blood volume

also decrease renin release and act as vasodilators

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25
what are 'gallop' heart sounds
low frequency sounds associated with diastolic filling
26
where do you measure waist circumference and what does it show
between lower rib and iliac spine distribution of fat
27
what are the normal ranges for cholesterol
LDL below 5 | HDL above 1
28
what are the clinical signs of hypertension
loud aortic second sound, prominent left ventricular impulse, fourth heart sound, hypertensive retinopathy
29
describe the grading of hypertensive retinopathy
grade 1 slight narrowing grade 3 exudates or flame haemorrhages grade 4 optic nerve oedema
30
why is being female important in CV history
menopause, combined oral contraceptive pill
31
what drugs are used to treat hypertension
ace inhibitor, ARB, calcium channel blocker, thiazide like diuretic,
32
when should fibrates be given
patients with very high triglyceride levels
33
what does a loud second aortic sound suggest
systemic hypertension with a dilated proximal aorta (loud pulmonary sound would show pulmonary hypertension)
34
what trophic features are associated with limb ischaemia
``` cold feet hair loss shiny pale skin poor or absent pulses ulcers gangrene of toes amputations ```
35
are ARBs and ACEis safe in pregnancy
no
36
what is the ventricular rate in atrial flutter
17/150
37
what are the common causes of peripheral vascular disease
smoking, hypercholesteraemia, hypertension, diabetes
38
what drug treatment is used for hyperlipidaemia
statins or fibrates
39
how does diabetes affect NO levels
reduces them = bad
40
why does high levels of glucose in the blood accelerate the atherosclerotic process
as if a pro inflammatory mediator
41
how do beta blockers work
completely inhibit the binding of noradrenaline to B1 adrenoceptors in the sympathetic system, resulting in less forceful contractions
42
when is ivabradine used and what does it do
alongside beta blockers in angina blocks HCN channels, delaying pacemaker potential and slowing HR
43
what drugs should never be given together
beta blocker and calcium channel antagonist
44
what are the types of necrosis
coagulative, caseous, fat, fibroid, gangrenous
45
what is the difference between athero and arterio sclerosis
athero lifestyle, lipid build up arterio purely BP
46
what are the causes of acute severe chest pain
``` acute coronary syndromes including myocardial infarction pulmonary embolism aortic dissection pneumothorax herpes Zoster pericarditis ```
47
what are the mechanical complications of an MI
``` acute left ventricular failure cardiogenic shock cardiac rupture pericardial tamponade ventricular aneurysm ventricular septal defect mitral regurgitation ```
48
what is the treatment for an acute MI
Morphine + anti emetic Oxygen Nitroglycerin Aspirin tricagrelor thrombolysis if PCI if more that 120 mins from hospital
49
why is CK levels not completely trustworthy
can be raised in lots of conditions
50
how is pulmonary oedema seen on a CXR
ABCDE of pulmonary oedema on CXR: A - Alveolar oedema (Bat's wings), B - Kerley B lines (interstitial oedema), C - Cardiomegaly, D - Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels, E - Pleural effusion
51
what is acyanotic heart disease
class of congenital heart disease where blood is shunted from the left to the right - atrial septal defect - ventricular septal defect
52
name 4 ventricular septal defects
Patent ductus arteriosus Aortic stenosis Coarctation of the aorta Pulmonary stenosis
53
give examples of cyanotic congenital heart disease
Fallots and etology Transposition Ebstein’s Anomaly (with ASD) Hypoplastic left heart Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage Tricuspid or pulmonary artesia
54
how are cardiomyopathies classified
Hypertrophic Idiopathic dilated Restrictive Alcohol associated
55
what are cardiac causes of shortness of breath
``` Cardiac failure Valvular heart disease Obstructive airways disease Restrictive lung disease Pulmonary hypertension Pulmonary embolism Anaemia ```
56
what can cause cardiac valve disease
``` Congenital Rheumatic Ischaemic Degenerative Infective Miscellaneous ```
57
what conditions predispose to infective endocarditis
Valvular heart disease Prosthetic heart valves Congenital heart disease
58
what can cause atrial fibrillation
``` Rheumatic heart disease Ischaemic heart disease Thyrotoxicosis Alcohol Hypertension Lone atrial fibrillation ```
59
what is rheumatic heart disease
Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disorder caused by Group A strep throat infection. This may progress to rheumatic heart disease, wherein one or more heart valves are damaged or scarred in the process.
60
what are the clinical signs of rheumatic heart disease
tapping apex beat- mitral stenosis AF
61
how does rheumatic heart disease cause AF
Increased preload due to mitral stenosis, thus the atria are stretched. This causes erratic electrical activity.
62
name this murmur: | Crescendo-decrescendo, ejection systolic murmur, radiating to the carotids
aortic stenosis
63
name this murmur: | Decrescendo early-diastolic murmur.
aortic regurgitation
64
name this murmur: | Low-pitch, mid-diastolic murmur with opening snap.
mitral stenosis
65
name this murmur: | Harsh, pansystolic murmur radiating to axilla
mitral regurgitation
66
name this murmur: | High-pitched, holosystolic radiating to right lower sternal border
tricuspid regurgitation
67
what do loop diuretics do
leads to the excretion of water from the body
68
what do thiazide diuretics do
promote potassium excretion but inhibit calcium excretion
69
what drugs are used to treat heart failure
diuretics, beta blockers (reduces HR and BP), ace inhibitors (reduced BP), spironolactone (Aldosterone receptor antagonist), ivabradine (HCN blocker)
70
what is a transthoracic echo
shows heart motion and structure as sound waves directed at heart across chest
71
what is a transesophageal echo
closer look at valves as scanner down oesophagus
72
what are C-reactive protein and plasma viscosity tests for
inflammation, higher the levels the more active the disease
73
what is tetralogy of fallot
congenital heart disease = made up of ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, RVH and a displaced aorta. This causes mixing of oxygenated and non-oxygenated blood leading to cyanosis
74
what is pericarditis
inflammation of the pericarditis
75
what can cause pericarditis
- Myocardial infarction (Dressler's syndrome) - Systemic inflammatory disorders e.g. lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. - Trauma to your heart or chest - Kidney failure - AIDS - Tuberculosis - Cancer - Medications although this is unusual