PBL 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different shapes of bacteria?

A

Spherical - cocci
Cylindrical - bacilli or rods
Helical - spirochaetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the arrangement of bacteria depend on?

A

The plane of successive cell divisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are examples of bacteria arrangements?

A

Chains, Clusters, pairs, angled pairs or palisades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does gram stain divide bacteria into?

A

Gram positive and gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In which type of bacteria does the peptidoglycan form a thick layer external to the cell membrane?

A

Gram-positive bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In which type of bacteria does the peptidoglycan form a thin layer with an overlying outer membrane?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the principal molecules of the outer membrane?

A

Lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes the peptidoglycan to be highly polar?

A

The polysaccharides and the charged amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a function of the highly polar peptidoglycan membrane?

A

to form a thick hydrophilic surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the property of hydrophilia allow?

A

It allows gram - positive organisms to resist the bile in the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Are gram negative bacteria hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

The outer membrane is hydrophilic but the lipid components give hydrophobic properties as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the three main types of bacteria?

A

Bacillus (rod), Coccus (sphere), and spirallus (spiral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are pili?

A

Another form of bacterial surface protection. pili are more rigid than flagella`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the function of pilli?

A

Attachment either to other bacteria (sex pili) orto host cells (common pili)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does bacterial growth rate depend on?

A

The environment they are in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the lag phase?

A

The initial period of adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the log/exponential phase?

A

The period where the population doubles at a constant rate (generation time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the death phase?

A

As nutrients are depleted and toxic products accumulate cell growth slows to a stop and cells eventually begin to die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the structure of the bacterial genome?

A

Circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the origin of replication (OriC)?

A

The singular point on the circular bacterial genome where replication begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which enzymes are used to unwind and separate the two DNA strands?

A

helicases and topoisomerases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do the separated DNA strands serve as?

A

Templates for DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do the two copies of the genome consist of?

A

One parent strand and one daughter strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the process of cell division involve?

A
  • segregation of replicated genomes
  • formation of a septum in the middle of the cell
  • separation of the two cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is the septum formed?

A

An invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane and ingrowth of the cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is quorum sensing?

A

The mechanism by which specific gene transcription is activated in response to bacterial concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens when quorum sensing bacteria reach appropriate numbers?

A

The signalling compounds they produce are at a sufficient concentration to activate the transcription of specific genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are endospores?

A

Highly resistant spores within bacterial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the functions of endospores?

A

To enable the bacteria to survive adverse conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When are endospores formed?

A

When the cells are unable to grow e.g. when the environment changes or when nutrients are exhausted but never by actively growing cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the structure of the bacterial spore?

A

A complex multi-layered coat surrounding a new bacterial cell

32
Q

What gives the bacteria their extreme resistance to heat and chemicals?

A

The presence of Dipicolinic acid and high calcium content

33
Q

How long do endospores remain dormant?

A

many years

34
Q

When do endospores return to a normal bacterial state?

A

When the conditions improve a new bacterial cell emerges and resumes normal life

35
Q

Why are viruses not considered to be alive?

A

They require a host cell to reproduce

36
Q

How much smaller than bacteria are viruses roughly?

A

10x

37
Q

What does the general structure of viruses include?

A

Nucleic acid, protein subunits, cell membrane and a vural envelope

38
Q

What is most viral genetic material made of?

A

RNA but some do have DNA

39
Q

What genetic material do retroviruses have?

A

Genetic material that swaps between RNA and DNA

40
Q

What is the virus envelope?

A

A liquid bilayer that surrounds the virus.

41
Q

What does the virus envelope contain?

A

virus proteins that are important for infecting other cells

42
Q

How is the virus envelope formed?

A

When the virus buds from the surface of cells they acquire this extra layer.

43
Q

What extra enzyme do viruses with RNA have?

A

They always have their own replicase as humans dont have enzymes to replicate RNA

44
Q

What do viruses need in order to replicate?

A

A host cell to make copies of its genetic material and the proteins and enzymes it requires to replicate

45
Q

What is the cellular process that all viral cells require?

A

Protein translation on the ribosomes

46
Q

Where does replication of DNA/RNA take place?

A

In most cases the nucleus but for some viruses in the cytoplasm

47
Q

What is the final stage of viral replication?

A

the assembly and release of the new virus

48
Q

Where is the nucleocapsid formed?

A

Either the nucleus or cytoplasm of the host cell

49
Q

How are viruses released?

A
  • Budding through the cell membrane
  • Cell lysis
  • Cell death
50
Q

What is cell lysis?

A

When a cell bursts

51
Q

Why do viruses with RNA have a lot of mutations?

A

RNA polymerase makes a lot of mistakes

52
Q

What is a lytic infection?

A

When the virus causes the host cells to burst when the virus replicates

53
Q

What is a persistent infection?

A

When the virus is released slowly and consistently by the cell.
In these infections people can be symptomless for a long time but still carry and spread the virus

54
Q

What is a latent infection?

A

The virus’ genetic material may be dormant in the host cells cytoplasm or even incorporated in its genome until it is triggered

55
Q

What is malignant transformation?

A

When viruses cause ‘normal’ host cells to turn into tumour or cancer cells

56
Q

Do cancer inducing viruses have DNA or RNA?

A

They can have either DNA or RNA

57
Q

What is Hepatitis A?

A

A virus that can impair liver function. It is most common in countries with poor sanitation

58
Q

How can Hep A be prevented?

A

Travellers are advised to be vaccinated. Generally the illness doesn’t present severe symptoms

59
Q

What is Cholera?

A

Caused by a bacteria that leads to an acute gastrointestinal infection.
It is spread through un-sanitary water and food due to poor sanitation

60
Q

How can Cholera be prevented?

A

Travellers are advised to be vaccinated as cholera can be very severe and sometimes even be fatal

61
Q

What is Typhoid?

A

Can be caused by some strains of salmonella and is prevalent in india,S/SE Asia, some parts of Africa and Central America

62
Q

How can typhoid be prevented?

A

Travellers should be vaccinated

63
Q

What is Shigellosis?

A

Caused by a bacteria this causes symptoms like nausea,diarrheoa and abdominal cramps.
This is mostly in countries with poor sanitation but has been know to occur in the UK

64
Q

How can illnesses that are caused by poor sanitation be avoided?

A
  • Using bottled water
  • Don’t have ice in your drink
  • Only eat salad/fruit if you prepared it yourself
  • Avoid eating unpasteurised dairy products
65
Q

What is Zika virus?

A

An infection transmitted by an infected female mosquito. It is common in Brazil and other American countries.
The symptoms are not severe unless pregnant, it can then have a severe effect on the baby

66
Q

What is Malaria?

A

Transmitted through the bite of a parasite. Mainly found in Africa, some parts of Asia and South America. The effects of malaria are more severe in pregnant women, children, and the elderly

67
Q

How can Malaria be prevented?

A

Anti-malarial medication should be taken

68
Q

What is Dengue fever?

A

Caused by a viral infection that is spread by mosquitos. It is mainly found in S/SE Asia, Africa and the Carribean. It causes flu-like symptoms.

69
Q

How can mosquito transmitted illnesses be prevented?

A
  • Stay indoors between dusk and dawn
  • Use products containing DEET as a repellent
  • Wear loose fitting clothes
  • sleep under a net
  • try not to go to highly infested areas
70
Q

What are neutrophils?

A

The most common WBC, they make up 50-60% of WBCs

71
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

They phagocytose pathogens and infected cells and play a big part in inflammation

72
Q

What is the function of Lymphocytes?

A

Lymphocytes are divided into T&B lymphocytes. They produce antibodies which play a big part in the bodies defence against infection. They can also recognise antigens and destroy them

73
Q

What are monocytes?

A

When the monocytes are in tissue they are known as macrophages.
They are formed in the bone marrow and then are released into the blood and tissue

74
Q

What is the function of monocytes?

A

Phagocytose pathogens

75
Q

What are eosinophils?

A

They are usually found in tissue.

76
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

Combat parasitic infection and to phagocytose antibody-antigen complexes