Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

X-RAY STUDENTS > Patient care > Flashcards

Patient care Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Tech indicates to patient : “You better do as I say and if you don’t I will use all my weight just to hold you down whether you want to or not. So hold still”. What type of tort would this be?
A

ASSAULT - the threat of touching in an injurious way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. If a patient is forced to have an exam after they have refused, a technologist could be involved in litigation for :
    a) assault and battery
    b) malpractice
    c) negligence
    d) delinquency
A

a) assualt and battery

SEE MERRILL’S
Green binder digestive system
Question 51

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. According to the CAMRT Code of Ethics who is responsible for carrying out the standards as written in the Code?
    a) hospitals where CAMRT members are employed
    b) student’s training facilities
    c) each individual member of the association
    d) the federal government
A

c) each individual member of the association

SEE MERRILL’S
Green binder digestive system
Question 53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. A patient who is agitated and confused refuses to have their radiology procedure done after the technologist has thoroughly explained the procedure, the technologist should then:
    a) re-explain the procedure in a louder tone of voice
    b) ask the patient to cooperate for just one more minute
    c) place the patient in restraints and complete the procedure quickly
    d) allow the patient to be returned to his/her room
A

d) all the patient to be resturned to his/her room

Green binder digestive system
Question 54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What info is a technologist allowed to provide to the patient?
    a) any information that is requested
    b) identifying themselves to the patient
    c) possible treatments
    d) possible diagnosis
A

b) identifying themselves to the patient

Green binder digestive system
Question 55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. A patient place in the Fowler’s position would most likely be having:
    a) trouble breathing
    b) a pelvic exam
    c) an xray for examination of hiatal hernia
    d) an enema tip insertion
A

a) trouble breathing

Green binder digestive system
Question 56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. The patient is placed in which position for insertion of a speculum?
A

Lithotomy

Green binder digestive system
Question 57

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following accompany fever?
    a) anoxia
    b) elevated pulse
    c) decreased respiratory rate
    d) cold clammy skin
A

b) elevated pulse

Green binder digestive system
Question 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following vital signs are within normal limits for an adult?
    a) temperature of 36-38 degrees C
    b) 20-30 breaths/minute
    c) blood pressure of 110/60
    d) pulse of 30-60
A

a) temp of 36-38 degrees Celcius
c) blood pressure of 110/60

Green binder digestive system
Question 61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Micro-organisms being eliminated through the use of soaps, water friction and various chemical disinfectants is the description for
    a) chemical sterilization
    b) the principle of autoclave
    c) surgical asepsis
    d) medical asepsis
A

d) medical asepsis

Green binder digestive system
Question 64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What would be a safe IV infusion rate for most solutions?
    a) 5-10 drops/min
    b) 15-20 drops/min
    c) 25-30 drops/min
    d) 35-40 drops/min
A

b) 15-20 drops/min

Question 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What should the oxygen minimum flow rate be when using a face mask?
    a) 2 liters/min
    b) 5 liters/min
    c) 7 liters/min
    d) 10 liters/min
A

b) 5 liters/min

Green binder digestive system
Question 66

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Where is the central venous pressure line place and what is it used to measure?
A

vein, atrial pressure

Green binder digestive system
Question 73

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. A patient placed on reverse isolation would be one with
    a) diarrhea
    b) tuberculosis
    c) acute respiratory infections
    d) high risk for infection themselves
A

d) high risk for infection themselves

Green binder digestive system
Question 74

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. If a patient experienced urticaria and dyspnea following a contrast injection, this would likely be symptoms of :
    a) anaphylactic shock
    b) hypovolemic shock
    c) septic shock
    d) cardiogenic shock
A

a) anaphylatic shock

Green binder digestive system
Question 77

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What personnel are permitted in the “sterile corridor” in the OR during a cholangiogram?
    a. surgeon
    b. radiographer
    c. anesthetist
    d. instrument nurse
A

a) surgeon
d) instrument nurse

Green binder digestive system
Question 79

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A patient who is experiencing dyspnea should be positioned in what position?
    a) semi-prone
    b) trendelenberg
    c) fowler’s
    d) sim’s
A

c) fowler’s
Green binder digestive system
Question 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

18.What are the 3 principal methods used to protect x-ray equipment operators from unecessary radiation exposure?

A

time - amount of exposure directly proportional to the time spent in a scatter radiation field
distance - increase distance = decrease dose
shielding - obvious reasons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. What is the difference between contact and shadow shields?
A

Patient Care Book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Where should gonadal shielding be placed for male/female patients?
A

Male : top of shield is placed 0-1” superior to pubis symphysis

Female : lower edge of the shield is placed 0-1” superior to pubis symphysis
p. 36 patient care book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

21.The greatest risk for spontaneous abortion, fetal death and significant birth defects exist when significant levels of exposure occur during which semester?

A

First 3 months of gestation - embryo is most vulnerable to radiation injury while tissues are in the process of differentiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. What is the whole body radiation dose to a pregnant woman?
A

SC35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE
    The lady is most likely to be pregnant during the first 10 days of the menstrual cycle - with onset of menstruation considered to be day 1
A

FALSE - is least likely p. 38 - Patient Care book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. What are the 6 moral principles, ethic principles that help to guide to right action and should be respected unless there is a compelling moral reason not to do so?
A

Beneficience, nonmaleficience, veracity, fidelity, justice, autonomy p. 63 patient care book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Physicians or health care workers should not be left alone with patients of the opposite sexe in a physical examination setting that requires undraping the patient or examining the genitalia or female breasts?
A

TRUE p. 64 Patient Care book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Refers to malicious spreading of information that causes defamation of character or loss of reputation - in a written fashion.
A

libel - p. 69

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Refers to malicious spreading of information that causes defamation of character or loss of reputation - in an oral fashion
A

slander - p. 69

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. The THREAT of touching in an injurious way.
A

Assault

29
Q
  1. The UNLAWFUL TOUCHING of a person without consent.
A

Battery

30
Q
  1. It is the neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution.
A

negligence

31
Q
  1. What are the 7 C’s of malpractive? Minimize the risk o malpractive by using these 7 C’s.
A

Competence, compliance, charting, communication, confidentiality, courtesy, carefulness

32
Q
  1. Ergonomics - These are symptoms of what?

Pain, numbness, tingling sensations, clumsiness, swelling weakness, loss of function, overdelopment of muscle groups

A

CTD CUMULATIVE TRAUMA DISORDER - Patient Care book

33
Q
  1. It is located at the mid portion of the pelvis or lower abdomen.
A

Centre of gravity

34
Q
  1. Is it best to push or pull heavy objects?
A

Push or roll p. 119 - Patient Care

35
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE

Elevation of a patient’s head allows for easier breathing? Why?

A

TRUE - when the body is supine, the weight of the abdominal contents pushes the diaphragm up into the thoracic cavity and makes it difficult to take in a deep breath p. 121 - Pt Care

36
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE

Patients with abdominal pain must have the head elevated and a booster under the knees to relieve strain on the abdomen?

A

TRUE p. 121 - Patient Care book

37
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE

Patients who are nauseated also need to have their heads elevated. how would you deal with a patient if they cannot be assisted to the Fowler’s position?

A

Roll patient into a lateral recumbent position p. 121 - Patient Care Book

38
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE

A circle or doughnut is an effective way type of padding to use.

A

FALSE - ineffective - does prevent pressure on a bony prominence but restricts circulation to the central area by placing pressure all around. Therefore distribute weight over a larger area. p. 122

39
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE

If a patient will be in position on the x-ray table fro longer than 10 minutes, a radiolucent pad should be used.

A

TRUE P. 122

40
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE

Immobilization devices requires a physicians order?

A

FALSE - restraints require a physicians order (p. 123)

41
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE

A stockinet is used to immobilize only the legs of a patient.

A

FALSE - arm or legs p. 123

42
Q
  1. TRUE/FALSE

When a patient has undergone spine trauma or spinal surgery, wheelchair transfer may be tolerable.

A

TRUE - when lying down patient should lie first on one side and then turn to the supine position with the knees flexed p. 131

43
Q
  1. What is the cycle of infection?
A 
Infection organism
Reservoir of infection
Portal of exit
means of transmission
Portal of entry
susceptible host
44
Q
  1. Tuberculosis can be transmitted by which mode of transportation?
A

airborne droplet nuclei p. 147 - pt care

45
Q
  1. C Diff can be transmitted by which mode of transmission?
A

vehicle, droplet

46
Q
  1. Staqphylococcus aureas can be transmitted by which mode of transmission?
A

contact - p. 147 patient care

47
Q
  1. Influenza and meningitis can be transmitted by which mode of transmission?
A

droplet (p. 148 - Patient Care book)

48
Q
  1. Droplet transmission : these particles do not remain suspended in the air and travel only short distances, usually _______ or less.
A

3 feet or less

49
Q

What PPE would you use to prevent transmission of tuberculosis and measles?

A

N95 mask (airborne precautions) - patient care book

50
Q

What PPE would you use to prevent transmission of diphtheria, pneumonia, and influenza.

A

Surgical mask (droplet precautions) - patient care book

51
Q

What PPE would you use to prevent transmission of MRSA and VRE?

A

Glove and gown (contact precautions) - Patient Care book

52
Q

What PPE would you use to prevent transmission of SARS and varicella that causes chicken pox

A

N95, gloves and gown - Patient Care Book

53
Q

What are the steps to taking off PPE :

A
  1. untie waist belt
    1. remove gloves
    2. hand hygiene
    3. untie neck strings from gown
      5 untie mask strings - hold it by strings or rubber bands
    4. remove gown
    5. Hand hygiene

Patient care book

54
Q

What does NPO stand for?

A

Nothing by mouth - Patient Care Book

55
Q

Cyanotic denotes a bluish coloration in the skin indicating lack of sufficient oxygen in the tissues. Where can this most easily be seen?

A

mucous membrane, - lips, lining of mouth, nail beds - Patient Care Book

56
Q

What is the difference between extravasation and infiltration?

A

Extravasation - fluid is outside a vessel
Infiltration - it has diffused in surrounding tissue

Patient Care book

57
Q

How do you treat extravasation?

A

Apply ice packs to extravasation site for 20-60 minutes and repeat until swelling is diminished - Patient Care book

58
Q

How high must an IV bag or bottle be hung above the vein?

A

45-50 cm

Patient Care Book

59
Q

Patient arrives to ER with severe dehydration from vomiting, diarrhea and extreme diuresis. Knowing this, the patient may be in shock. What type of shock would this describe?

A

Hypovolemic shock

Patient Care Book

60
Q

Patient arrives to the ER. Dr indicates severe spinal trauma is suspected. Patient may present with what type of shock?

A

Neurogenic shock

Patient Care Book

61
Q

Patient presents to ER. After a chest CT is performed, Dr’s indicate that patient has a pulmonary embolus. This may send the patient in what type of shock?

A

Cardiogenic shock

Patient Care Book

62
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

Nose bleed

Patient Care Book

63
Q

Sequencing order for diagnostic studies : p. 291 - patient care
Put in order :
(a) Radiographic exams of the biliary system
(b) Upper GI series
© Exams not requiring contrast media
(d) exams of urinary tract
(e) lower GI series (Ba Enema)

A

c, d, a, e, b

Patient Care Book

64
Q

TRUE/FALSE When sequencing diagnostic procedures, thyroid assessment tests must be performed before administration of any iodinated contrast media.

A

TRUE - contrast media containing iodine can cause inaccurate results in thyroid tests for at least 3 weeks

Patient Care Book

65
Q

What is Dulcolax?

A

Common cathartic for bowel preparation

Patient Care Book

66
Q

. What does PTC stand for.

A

Percutaneous transheptic Cholangiography

Patient Care Book

67
Q

During PTC, a thin long needle is introduced through the patient’s right side, through the liver and into the ___________.

A

Common bile duct

Patient Care Book

68
Q

After a surgical cholecystectomy, a T shaped tube is sometimes left in the patient temporarily. The crossbars of the T extends into which biliary ducts?

A

hepatic and common bile ducts

Patient Care Book (p. 326)

69
Q

During an ERCP, where is the distal end of the catheter placed?

A

into distal end of common bile duct through the papilla of Vater - contrast media is then injected - p. 326 and 327

Patient Care Book

X-RAY STUDENTS (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions