Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

The best means of preventing the spread of microorganisms continues to be:

A

Hand hygiene or hand washing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Entry of pathogenic microorganisms into a new host can be by:

A

Ingestion / Inhalation / injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of medication promotes the excretion of urine?

A

Diuretic (Lasix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Directions given by a person while in a healthy state concerning wishes at time of death:

A

Advance directive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the term used for cases of medical negligence and switches the burden of proof from the patient to the imaging professional?
It translates to the thing speaks for itself.

A

Res ipsa loquitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Destruction of microbes by steam under pressure or other means, includes both chemical or physical means:

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of medication causes constriction of the blood vessels?

A

Vasoconstrictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of medication causes dilatation of the blood vessels?

A

Vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Hives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This method of transmission occurs when droplets contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms are placed in the air from a person infected with a droplet-borne infection:

A

Droplet isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the elements needed to transmit an infection?

A
  • Infectious agent
  • Reservoir or environment in which the microbe can live & multiply
  • Portal to exit the reservoir
  • Means of transmission
  • Portal of entry into a new host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When a susceptible person actually touches an infected person’s body surface in an area where infectious microbes are present:

A

Direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The transfer of pathogenic microbes by touching objects that have been contaminated by an infected person:

A

Indirect contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a PE?

A

Occlusion of a pulmonary artery by a thrombus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the term for a patient’s claim that he/she has been wronged or has suffered some injury, other than a breach of contract, for which he/she believes cause exist for an action for damages:

A

Tort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is a chest tube inserted?

A

Dependent upon air or fluid to be removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the chest tube attached to?

A

Water-sealed drainage unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Contact with infectious secretions that come from the eyes, nose or mouth of a host or disease carrier as the person coughs, sneezes, or talks:

A

Droplet contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension

A

A decrease in diastolic pressure caused by sudden movement from a recumbent to an upright position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Droplets can travel for how many feet?

A

3 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The CDC established a two-tier system for patients with particular diagnoses. The first tier is to be used at all times when any healthcare professional is caring for a patient.

A

Standard precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the length of time for a surgical scrub?

A

3 to 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which side of the patient is usually the best side to move a patient onto (strong/weak side)?

A

Strong side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How far should one stand from a sterile table?

A

3 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the term for spoken defamation?

A

Slander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis?

A
  • Insufficient insulin causes liver to produce more glucose or hyperglycemia;
  • kidneys then excrete glucose with water & electrolytes leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Insect or animal carriers of disease are called?

A

Vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a pulse oximeter?

A

It measures the amount of oxygen saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which stage of an infection does the microorganism reproduce and the infection begins?

A

Prodromal stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Infection is transmitted by what type of routes?

A
Direct or indirect contact
Droplet
Vehicle
Vector
Airborne
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The ___ route of transmission indicates that residue from evaporated droplets of diseased microorganism are suspended in air for long periods of time.

A

Airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  • Microorganisms have been eliminated through the use of soap, water, friction and various chemical disinfectants
  • Any practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms
  • Decreases the probability of acquiring an infection
A

Medical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are some of the clinical manifestations for a patient experiencing a diabetic complication?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Headache
  • Blurred or double vision
  • Extreme thirst
  • Sweet odor to breath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Walking or the ability to walk

A

Ambulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The medically aseptic hand washing procedure should last for ___ ___.
This is considered the minimum amount of time.

A

15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A condition in which the blood does not supply enough oxygen to the body, causing a bluish tone to the lips and fingertips:

A

cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The ___ membrane thermometer is a small, hand-held device that measures the temperature of the blood vessels in the __ membrane of the ear.

A

tympanic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are types of intentional torts?

A
  • False imprisonment
  • Assault/battery
  • defamation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  • Generalized brain function disturbance and are accompanied by changes in LOC:
  • A symptom of an underlying condition
A

seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

This method of transmission occurs when microbes are spread on evaporated droplets that remain suspended in air or are carried on dust particles in the air and may be inhaled by persons in that room or air space:

A

Airborne isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Respirations of fewer than 10 breaths/min for an adult may result in ____, apprehension, restlessness and a change in LOC:

A

cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When diseases require droplet isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?

A
  • Private room or a room with another person infected with same disease
  • Door may be left open
  • Mask for any procedure that requires less than 3 feet in proximity to patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the different types of oxygen devices used for patients?

A

Nasal cannula, face masks (nonrebreathing, partial rebreathing, Venturi mask or an aerosol mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When diseases require contact isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?

A
  • Private room or room with another person infected with same disease
  • Gloves to be worn by healthcare professional before entering patient’s room and removed before leaving
  • Gown if possibility of touching patient or items in room
  • Visitors must wash hands before and after entering room
  • Equipment used in patient’s room must stay in patient’s room
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  • Concrete evidence
  • Based on facts that exist
  • Patient’s chart
A

Objective information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When cleaning an area such as an x-ray table, where should the cleaning first begin?

A

In the least soiled area and then finish in the most soiled area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the term for written defamation?

A

Libel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  • Based on judgment by an individual

- Personal opinion

A

Subjective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Zone 1 or unrestricted zone

A

– persons may enter in street clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Zone 2 or semi-restricted zone

A

dressed in scrub attire with hair and shoes covered

51
Q

Zone 3 or restricted zone

A

– appropriate scrub attire and mask

52
Q

Who makes up the surgical team?

A
Surgeon
Surgical assistant
Anesthesiologist or nurse anesthetist
Circulating nurse
Scrub nurse or surgical technician
Radiologic technologist
53
Q
  • Microorganisms and their spores have been completely destroyed by means of heat or by a chemical process
  • Complete removal of microorganisms and their spores
  • Reduces the probability of acquiring an infection to zero
A

Surgical asepsis

54
Q

A slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute:

A

Bradycardia

55
Q

Contaminated objects are referred to as ____.

56
Q

The blood pressure reading that occurs during the relaxation of the ventricles:

57
Q

Difficult breathing resulting from insufficient airflow to the lungs:

58
Q

What is the term for an intended threat or harm without physical contact?

59
Q

If a patient is highly susceptible to becoming infected because of a particular treatment or condition, isolation precautions are also used to protect the patient:

A

Expanded precautions
Strict isolation
Reverse isolation

60
Q

A fast heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute:

A

Tachycardia

61
Q

The human brain cannot function for longer than __ to __ ______ without an adequate oxygen supply.

A

4 to 5 minutes

62
Q

What are the four areas of the body in which temperature is usually measured?

A

Oral
Tympanic
Rectal
Axillary

63
Q

The pulse can be detected most easily in which areas of the body?

A
Apical
Radial
Carotid
Femoral
Popliteal
Temporal
Dorsalis pedis
Posterior tibial
Brachial
64
Q

How should a wheelchair be placed when the patient needs to be transferred from the wheelchair to the imaging table?

A

at a 45 degree angle

65
Q

What is the average pulse rate in an adult in a resting state?

A

60 to 90 beats/minute

66
Q

The average oral temperature reading is __F.

A

98.6 degrees F

67
Q

Why is standard precautions considered effective?

A

Based on the assumption that every patient has the potential for having an infectious disease

68
Q

What is the term for the master speaks for the servant?

A

Respondent superior

69
Q

What does “deep pocket approach” refer to?

A

The physician or healthcare facility is responsible for the negligent acts of its employees

70
Q

What is the average respiration rate for an adult?

A

15 to 20 breaths/minute

71
Q

What are some of the uses for central venous catheters?

A
  • Long term medication
  • Frequent blood transfusion
  • Total parenteral nutrition
72
Q

What is the term for physically touching another person without permission even if no injury arises?

73
Q

The instrument used to measure blood pressure is called a ___.

A

sphygmomanometer

74
Q

When diseases require airborne isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?

A
  • Private room with negative air-pressure ventilation
  • N95 respirator mask
  • Surgical mask for visitors
  • Door closed
  • Surgical mask for patient when transferred within hospital
75
Q

Another term for fainting?

76
Q
  • A chemical capable of destroying microorganisms or inhibiting their growth
  • Same as antiseptic
A

disinfectant

77
Q

What is the difference between an NG tube and an NE tube?

A

NG tubes – stomach, duodenum or jejunum

NE tubes – pass into duodenum and small intestines by means of peristalsis

78
Q

A patient is considered to be hypertensive if the systolic BP is consistently greater than ___ and if the diastolic BP is consistently greater than __.

A

140 mm Hg

90 mm Hg

79
Q

What are the five (5) rights to drug administration?

A
Drug
Amount
Patient
Time 
Route
80
Q

What is the difference between the nonrebreathing and partial rebreathing oxygen mask?

A

A nonrebreathing mask offers a high percent of oxygen (100%) while a partial rebreathing offers between 60 to 90%.
Partial rebreathing has no valve (breathing a mixture of oxygen and carbon dioxide)

81
Q

What are the stages of grief?

A
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
82
Q

What is the term used for failing to follow the policies involving the use of restraints or unnecessarily confining or restraining a patient without their permission?

A

False imprisonment

83
Q

When an infection is acquired within the healthcare environment, this is referred to as what type of infection?

A

nosocomial

84
Q

When a patient enters the healthcare facility with an infection, this is referred to as what type of infection?

A

Community acquired infection

85
Q

What considerations should be given before moving a patient?

A

Patient’s general condition
Range of motion and weight-bearing ability
Patient’s strength and endurance
Patient’s ability to maintain balance
Patient’s ability to understand what is expected during transfer
Patient’s acceptance of the move
Patient’s medication history

86
Q

As the body’s temperature increases, the body’s demand for ___ increases.

87
Q

An infection that is a result of a particular treatment or therapeutic procedure is termed?

A

iatrogenic

88
Q

What are the stages of infection?

A

Incubation
Prodromal
Full disease
Convalescent

89
Q

What are the symptoms associated with a mild anaphylactic reaction?

A

Nasal congestion, periorbital swelling, itching, sneezing and tearing of eyes
Tingling or itching @ injection site
Fullness or tightness of chest, mouth or throat
Feeling of anxiety or nervousness

90
Q

What does PPE stand for and what does it include?

A

Personal protective equipment

Gloves, gown, mask and safety glasses

91
Q

What type of needle is used to access an implanted port?

A

Huber needle

92
Q

The blood pressure reading taken during the contraction of the ventricles:

93
Q

What type of catheter is the Hickman?

A

Hickman – tunnel type (inserted into the subclavian or internal jugular vein and advanced into the SVC or right atrium)

94
Q

Where is the entry and exit locations for the PICC?

A

peripherally inserted central catheter into patient’s arm and advanced until tips lies in central vein

95
Q

What is the term used for information concerning a patient that has been leaked to individuals who do not need to know and the information was presented in such a way that the patient was subjected to ridicule, scorn or contempt or was injured in some way as through loss of a job or home?

A

Defamation

96
Q

Which type of oxygen device is considered the most common to deliver low concentrations of oxygen?

A

Nasal cannula

97
Q

What is the LPM range for this type of device?

A

1 to 4 LPM (greater than 6 tends to dry out nasal passages)

98
Q

When taking a BP on a patient, one may hear extraneous sounds such as tapping, knocking or swishing. These sounds are known as?

A

Korotkoff sounds

99
Q

The result of an exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction is termed?

A

Anaphylaxis

Allergic reaction

100
Q

Where is the correct placement for an endotracheal tube?

A

5 to 7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation (carina)

101
Q

The body’s pathological reaction to illness, trauma or severe physiologic or emotional stress is known as:
It may be caused by body fluid loss, cardiac failure, decreased blood vessel tone, or obstruction of blood flow to vital body organs.

102
Q

What type of medical situation is encountered when the patient has an excess amount of insulin in the blood stream?
What symptoms are displayed?

A

Hypoglycemia

Symptoms include intense hunger, weakness, shaky, sweat excessively, confusion or irritability

103
Q

What type of medication prevents and treats nausea and vomiting?

A

Antiemetic

Compazine/Zofran

104
Q

What are two other terms used for CVA or cerebral vascular accident?

A

Stroke or brain attack

105
Q

What are the symptoms associated with a cerebral vascular accident?

A
  • Paralysis on one or both sides
  • Slurred or no speech
  • Extreme dizziness
  • Loss of vision
  • Severe headache
  • Temporary LOC
106
Q

What are the two most common NG tubes used and what is the difference between these two types?

A

Levin – single-lumen with holes near the tip
Sump – double-lumen tube with second opening that consists of a blue extension off the proximal end of the tube (remains outside and is called a “pigtail”)

107
Q

What are the three most commonly used NE tubes and which ones are single or double lumen?

A

Cantor – single
Harris – single
Miller-Abbott – double

108
Q

What type of medication inhibits clotting of blood (thrombus formation)? Name one IV and oral type.

A

Anticoagulant
IV – Heparin/Lovenox
Oral – Coumadin

109
Q

What are NG tubes used for?

A

NG – diagnostic exams, administration of feedings or medications, treat intestinal obstruction and to control bleeding

110
Q

What are NE tubes used for?

A

NE – decompression, diagnosis and treatment purposes

111
Q

What type of medication acts on the CNS to produce a loss of sensation?
Name one general and local type.

A

Anesthetics
General – diprivan
Local – carbocaine

112
Q

What type of tube is placed from inside the stomach to the external abdominal wall for the purpose of feeding patients who cannot tolerate the oral intake of food?

A

Gastrostomy tube

113
Q

The term used for profuse sweating, heavy perspiration is known as?

A

diaphoresis

114
Q

What four elements are needed to consider the radiographer was negligent?

A

Duty to the patient by the technologist
Breach of that duty
Compensable injury
Relationship between injury and duty

115
Q

What type of medication relieves pain without causing a loss of consciousness?

A

Analgesics – reduce pain, fever and inflammation in tissues

116
Q

What is a type of nonnarcotic?

A

Nonnarcotic – acetaminophen (Tylenol)

117
Q

What is a type of narcotic?

A

Narcotic (intense pain) – morphine, Demerol

Less severe pain – codeine, Percocet, oxycodone

118
Q

Another type of central venous catheter is called an __ ___.
This type of catheter is used for patients who have long-term illnesses that require frequent intravenous medications or transfusions.

A

Implanted port

119
Q

What type of medication is used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A

Oral hypoglycemic drug (Glucophage – metformin)

120
Q

What is the term used for failure to use such care as a reasonable prudent person (healthcare worker) would use under like or similar circumstances?

A

negligence

121
Q

What symptoms might be displayed by the patient if experiencing a possible fainting episode?

A

Dizziness, sweating, feeling warm or flushed

122
Q

What type of medication is used to dissolve clots?

A

Thrombolytic

123
Q

The catheter from the implanted port is inserted into what vein?

A

Subclavian or internal jugular vein

124
Q

What is the normal systolic/diastolic pressure for an adult?

A

Less than 120 mm Hg and less than 80 mm Hg