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Kettering > Patient Care > Flashcards

Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

A high risk procedure (written) would be one in which

A

IV iodinated contrast is used

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2
Q

Is a BE considered a high risk or low risk procedure?

A

Low risk

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3
Q

What is another name for IV injection?

A

Parenteral

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4
Q

Who writes the Patients’ Bill of Rights

A

American Hospital Association

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5
Q

Right to refuse medical treatment including a radiographic procedure is known as

A

Autonomy

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6
Q

What type of patient information would be considered subjective?

A

Perceived by the affected person only

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7
Q

What type of patient information would be considered objective?

A

Visible, measurable findings obtained by medical exams, tests, or diagnostic imaging

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8
Q

Place the following exams in order that they should be completed: BE, UGI, KUB, IVU

A

KUB, IVU, BE, UGI

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9
Q

The threat of touching in an injurious manner

A

Assault

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10
Q

Verbally threatening a patient if he/she does not cooperate for an examination could be considered

A

Assault

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11
Q

An unlawful touching of a person without consent

A

Battery

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12
Q

A radiograph taken against a patients will, on the wrong patient, or on the wrong body part could be considered

A

Battery

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13
Q

When can restraints be used?

A

When ordered by a physician

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14
Q

4 D’s of negligence

A

Duty, Deviation from standards of care, Damages, Direct cause

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15
Q

Defamation by writing or printed words

A

Libel

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16
Q

Defamation by spoken words

A

Slander

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17
Q

An intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to a patient

A

Tort

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18
Q

What is the most common malpractice claim?

A

Negligence

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19
Q

When a patient is injured due to error caused by the health care provider

A

Malpractice

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20
Q

7 C’s of malpractice prevention

A

Competence, compliance, charting, communication, confidentiality, courtesy, carefulness

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21
Q

Knowing and adhering to professional standards

A

Competence

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22
Q

Complying with procedures and policies of the institutions

A

Compliance

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23
Q

Completely, consistently, and objectively recording

A

Charting

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24
Q

With patients, patients relatives, and other health care workers

A

Communication

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25
Q

Protecting medical information

A

Confidentiality

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26
Q

Proper attitude and rapport with patients

A

Courtesy

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27
Q

Take reasonable caution when dealing with patients

A

Carefulness

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28
Q

Respondeat superior meaning

A

Let the master answer

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29
Q

Res ipsa loquitur meaning

A

The thing speaks for itself

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30
Q

Used to prevent unwanted motion artifacts and ensure patient safety during imaging procedures

A

Positioning aids

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31
Q

Some common positioning aids

A

Positioning sponges, velcro straps, sandbags, head clamps, pig o stat

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32
Q

Exposure indicators, processing algorithms, brightness, contrast, cropping or masking off anatomy are all considered

A

Manipulation of electronic data

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33
Q

Standards of ethics were written by

A

ASRT

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34
Q

Standards of ethics are enforced by

A

ARRT

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35
Q

Mandatory standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct for all present registered technologists and candidates

A

Rules of Ethics

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36
Q

Acronym for the 5 stages of grief

A

DABDA

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37
Q

Responses for patients in denial

A

Use reflective answers and give support without being unrealistic

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38
Q

Responses for patients in stage of anger

A

Answers to patient questions should be of a matter of fact nature

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39
Q

Responses for patients in bargaining stage

A

Directions given to the patient should be clear and simple

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40
Q

Responses to patients in depression stage

A

Responses should be quiet and supportive

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41
Q

Responses for patients in acceptance

A

Show a willingness to listen to the patient as they communicate the nature of their loss

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42
Q

IV contrast restrictions dietary

A

Pre hydration 1 day prior, NPO 1 hour prior, post hydration

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43
Q

Reason for IV contrast dietary restrictions

A

Decrease burden on kidneys

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44
Q

bit depth of mammo

A

10, 12, 16

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45
Q

why does mammo have higher patient absorbed dose?

A

low kVp, high mAs

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46
Q

DEXA meaning

A

dual energy x-ray absorption

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47
Q

which oxygen device is considered a low flow device

A

nasal cannula

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48
Q

flow rate of nasal cannula

A

1-6 L/min of 21%-60% oxygen

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49
Q

oxygen rate of non-rebreather mask

A

15 L/min

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50
Q

surgical opening cut in the trachea to create an artificial airway

A

tracheotomy

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51
Q

when a tube is left in the tracheotomy opening, may be connected to a respirator

A

tracheostomy

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52
Q

meaning of -tomy

A

incision or cut

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53
Q

meaning of -stomy

A

when tube is left in opening

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54
Q

closed chest drainage removes fluid or free air from the

A

pleural cavity (not specifically lungs)

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55
Q

device used to measure a patients blood pressure

A

sphygmomanometer

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56
Q

device used for auscultation

A

stethoscope

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57
Q

meaning of ascultation

A

listening to the heart, lung, or abdominal sounds

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58
Q

normal heart rate of adults

A

60-100 bpm

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59
Q

normal heart rate of children

A

90-100

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60
Q

normal heart rate of infants

A

80-120

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61
Q

when is a patient considered to have tachycardia

A

greater than 100 bpm

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62
Q

when is a patient considered to have bradycardia

A

less than 60 bpm

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63
Q

when is a patient considered hypertensive

A

above 140 mmHg systolic, above 90 mmHg diastolic

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64
Q

when is a patient considered hypotensive

A

below 95 mmHg systolic, below 60 mmHg diastolic

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65
Q

normal systolic pressure for adults

A

110-140

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66
Q

normal diastolic pressure for adults

A

60-80

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67
Q

when to use carotid pulse

A

when patient is unconscious or unresponsive

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68
Q

when to use radial pulse

A

when patient is conscious or responsive, common clinical pulse

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69
Q

how is apical pulse taken

A

auscultated with the stethoscope over the apex of the heart

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70
Q

normal respiratory rate for adults

A

12-20 per minute

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71
Q

normal respiratory rate for children

A

30-60 per minute

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72
Q

what to do when you have a patient with abnormal vital signs?

A

stop procedure, stabilize patient, call for help

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73
Q

device that measures pulse rate and oxygen saturation of blood

A

pulse oximeter

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74
Q

medical term for rapid breathing

A

tachypnea

75
Q

medical term for slow breathing

A

bradypnea

76
Q

medical tern for cessation of breathing

A

apnea

77
Q

FAST meaning for stroke

A

Facial drooping, Arm weakness, Speech slurring, Time to call

78
Q

name for immobilization device collars

A

orthotics or othoses

79
Q

paralysis results from cervical trauma and affects the body from the neck down (all 4 limbs)

A

quadriplegia

80
Q

paralysis results from trauma to a lower portion of the spinal column and affects the lower half of the body

A

paraplegia

81
Q

paralysis usually results from a stroke and its effects are limited to one side of the body

A

hemiplegia

82
Q

how to move long bone fractures

A

provide support for proximal and distal joints to move extremity as a complete unit

83
Q

which fracture type is usually pathologic

A

compressed (spine)

84
Q

which fracture happens from weight bearing

A

overriding

85
Q

which fracture is considered life threatening

A

compound

86
Q

common allergic reactions are to

A

contrast media or latex

87
Q

how long until irreversible brain damage occurs if proper amount of blood is not delivered to the brain

A

3-5 minutes

88
Q

how to avoid excessive ventilation?

A

give enough breath to see the chest rise

89
Q

First step to using AED?

A

Turn it on

90
Q

compression rate for CPR

A

100-120 per minute

91
Q

compression to ventilation ratio for adults

A

30:2 for both 1 and 2 rescuers

92
Q

compression to ventilation ratio for children

A

30:2 for 1 rescuer, 15:2 for 2 rescuers

93
Q

compression to ventilation ratio for infants

A

30:2 for 1 rescuer, 15:2 for 2 rescuers

94
Q

how often to rotate compressors in CPR

A

every 2 minutes

95
Q

most common medical emergency encountered by technologists

A

syncope (fainting)

96
Q

non convulsive seizure that may not be apparent to the radiographer

A

petite mal

97
Q

major motor seizure

A

grand mal, also known as tonic-clonic

98
Q

strong pulsating volume of blood exiting a wound site

A

arterial blood

99
Q

lower volume with less forceful pulsing of blood flow from wound site

A

venous blood

100
Q

faint or lightheaded feeling of patients that have been recumbent for an extended period of time and are then suddenly moved into an upright position

A

orthostatic hypotension

101
Q

what to do for patient with orthostatic hypotension

A

trendelenburg

102
Q

medical tern for difficulty breathing or shortness of breath

A

dyspnea

103
Q

an inhaler is a

A

bronchodilators

104
Q

RACE fire acronym

A

rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish/evacuate

105
Q

equipment sterilization involved treating items with

A

heat, gas, or chemicals

106
Q

an inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism (food, water, gloves, equipment)

A

fomite

107
Q

when to perform hand hygine

A

before and after every patient exam

108
Q

best way to pass between sterile operators in sterile gowns

A

back to back (or front to front but the former is better)

109
Q

ratio for bleach equipment disinfection

A

1:10 ratio with water

110
Q

area around patient that is considered contaminated for droplet precautions

A

3 feet or 1 meter around area of patient

111
Q

examples of airborne precaution measures

A

respiration protection and negative ventilation

112
Q

neutropenic precations are also known as

A

reverse isolation

113
Q

best predictor of possible reaction to contrast media

A

history of previous allergic reactions

114
Q

rule of 5’s for contrast media administration

A

about 5% of population experience some reaction, of this population only 5% experience a severe or life threatening reaction

115
Q

six rights of drug administration

A

patient, drug, amount, route, time, documentation

116
Q

type of injection for myelogram

A

intrathecal

117
Q

type of injection for arteriogram

A

arterial injection

118
Q

type of injection for arthrogram

A

articular injection

119
Q

when to check patient pulse and BP when giving contrast media?

A

pre, during, and post contrast media injection

120
Q

degree of angulation for inserting a needle

A

15 degrees

121
Q

max volume of IV contrast for healthy adults

A

less than or equal to 300 mL

122
Q

most common site for injections

A

antecubital vein

123
Q

second most common site for injections

A

basilic vein (back of hand)

124
Q

kVp limit for exam that uses iodinated contrast media

A

80 or less

125
Q

concentration of an osmotic solution and has a relationship to the patient risk of reaction

A

osmolarity

126
Q

how to reduce viscosity of contrast media

A

warm it up

127
Q

what is the sulfate used for in barium sulfate

A

makes it less toxic

128
Q

atomic number of iodine

A

53

129
Q

atomic number of barium

A

56

130
Q

double contrast barium study kVp

A

90-100

131
Q

single contrast barium study kVp

A

100-125

132
Q

normal creatinine value

A

0.7-1.3 mg/dL

133
Q

normal BUN value

A

8-25 mg/dL

134
Q

GFR normal value

A

90-120 mL/min/1.73m^2

135
Q

best test to measure kidney function and determine stage of kidney disease

A

estimated glomuler filtration rate (eGFR)

136
Q

when fluid infuses the tissue surrounding venipuncture site, often used interchangably with extravasation

A

infiltration

137
Q

accidental infiltration of a vesicant into the interstitial tissues at the site of injection

A

extravasation

138
Q

a drug capable of causing tissue necrosis

A

vesicant

139
Q

a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and in unable to remove the by products of metabolism

A

shock

140
Q

shock resulting from external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to burns

A

hypovolemic shock

141
Q

shock resulting from massive infection

A

septic shock

142
Q

shock where patients that suffer head or spinal traumaresult in a failure of arterial resistance

A

neurogenic shock

143
Q

shock resulting from cardiac failure

A

cardiogenic shock

144
Q

symptoms of a contrast reaction

A

restlessness, increase pulse rate, pallor and weakness, cool clammy skill, hypotension accompanied with itching flushing and shortness of breath

145
Q

if a patient survives a severe contrast reaction, when can they have IV contrast again?

A

never again

146
Q

contrast reaction exhibiting nausea, vomiting, hives, itching, sneezing, extravasation, vasovagal response, fear, weakness, dizziness, sweating

A

mild reaction

147
Q

response for mild reactions

A

monitor and comfort patient, provide a warm town for extravasation

148
Q

contrast reaction exhibiting excessive hives, tachycardia, giant hives, excessive vomiting

A

moderate reaction

149
Q

response for moderate reaction

A

call for medical assistance and prepare to administer antihistimine medication

150
Q

if a patient is exhibiting difficulty breathing after contrast administration, what type of reaction could it be

A

severe, life threatening

151
Q

drugs for arrhythmias (PICAX)

A

pronestyl, isoptin, cordarone, adenocard, xylocaine

152
Q

drugs for allergic reactions

A

benadryl, decadron

153
Q

drugs for shock (LID)

A

levophed, intropin, dobutrex

154
Q

drug for seizures

A

dilantin

155
Q

drug for hypoglycemia and smasmatic colon

A

glucagon

156
Q

drug for hyperglycemia

A

insulin, metformin, glucophage

157
Q

how is nitroglycerine administered for acute angina

A

sublingual

158
Q

purpose of Swan-Ganz catheter

A

diagnosis of right and left ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders

159
Q

where is tip of Swan Ganz catheter located

A

pulmonary artery

160
Q

height range above site of insertion for hanging bag (BE, IV, etc)

A

18 - 24 inches above

161
Q

how to convert inches to cm

A

multiply inches x2.5

162
Q

dislocation of a joint space is called

A

subluxation

163
Q

best way to demonstrate compression fracture of spine

A

lateral

164
Q

fracture that breaks the skin

A

compound

165
Q

deviation of the head of the 4th or 5th metacarpal

A

Boxer’s fracture

166
Q

transverse fracture of the distal radius, associated ulnar styloid fracture, posterior displacement of hand

A

Colle’s fracture

167
Q

fracture with anterior dislocation of hand in relation to forearm

A

Smith’s fracture

168
Q

fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal

A

Jones fracture

169
Q

popliteal meaning

A

behind the knee

170
Q

rebreather bag used in CPR

A

ambu bag

171
Q

nerve that gets impinged upon in carpal tunnel syndrome

A

median nerve

172
Q

drug used for anaphylactic shock

A

epinephrine

173
Q

bleeding from nose is known as

A

epistaxis

174
Q

PASS acronym for fire

A

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

175
Q

any procedure that involves catheterization of urinary bladder requires the use of

A

sterile technique

176
Q

most common nosocomial infection

A

UTI

177
Q

how long should hand washing routine last

A

20 seconds

178
Q

sterile procedure hand washing time

A

5 minutes

179
Q

first move of opening a sterile tray

A

open away from the operator

180
Q

what type of sterilization is autoclaving

A

steam sterilization

181
Q

enema tipping position

A

Sims

182
Q

most commonly used contrast in radiology

A

air (negative contrast) (deep breath in and hold)

183
Q

what happens to pulse and BP when patient is undergoing anaphylactic shock

A

pulse increases, BP decreases

184
Q

medical term for hives

A

urticaria

Kettering (5 decks)

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