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Pathophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

Gastrin (production site, action, and release stimulus)

A

Source: G cells

Action: Stimulates acid secretion and growth of stomach epithelium, increases SI and LI peristalsis

Stimulus: Food, partially digested proteins, increased pH of stomach

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2
Q

Cholecystokinin (production site, action, and release stimulus)

A

Source: I cells

Action: Increases pancreatic enzyme release, inhibits HCl production in stomach, decreases gastric emptying, potentiates secretin

Stimulus: Fatty chyme, partially digested proteins

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3
Q

Secretin (production site, action, and release stimulus)

A

Source: S cells in the SI

Action: Inhibits gastric secretions and motility, increases pancreatic enzyme release, increases bile output

Stimulus: acidic chyme, fatty acids, proteins

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4
Q

Somatostatin (production site, action, and release stimulus)

A

Source: Duodenal and gastric mucosa

Action: Inhibits gastric and pancreatic secretions, inhibits contraction of gallbladder, inhibits intestinal absorption

Stimulus: Food in stomach, sympathetic stimulation

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5
Q

Motilin (production site, action, and release stimulus)

A

Source: Duodenal mucosa

Action: Stimulates MMC

Stimulus: Fasting

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6
Q

Acid secretion in the stomach is stimulated by….

A

Acetylcholine, gastrin, histamine

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7
Q

UPPER GI STUDIES (DOGS, LIQUID BARIUM):

  • Time for contrast to reach duodenum
  • Gastric emptying time
  • SI transit time (when it reaches cecum or colon)
  • SI emptying time
A
  • Time for contrast to reach duodenum: 15-25 minutes
  • Gastric emptying time: 30-120 minutes
  • SI transit time (when it reaches cecum or colon): 30-120 minutes
  • SI emptying time: 3-5 hours

(approximately similar between Wallack, 2003 and O’Brien, 1973)

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8
Q

UPPER GI STUDIES (CATS, LIQUID BARIUM):

  • Time for contrast to reach duodenum
  • Gastric emptying time
  • SI transit time (when it reaches cecum or colon)
A
  • Time for contrast to reach duodenum: 10 min
  • Gastric emptying time: 15-60 min
  • SI transit time (when it reaches cecum or colon): 30-60 min
  • SI emptying time:

Source: Morgan, 1981

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9
Q

UPPER GI STUDIES (FOALS, LIQUID BARIUM)

  • Gastric emptying time
  • Barium filling cecum
  • Transit time to transvers colon
A
  • Gastric emptying time: Variable, but almost all gone within 2 hours
  • Barium filling cecum: 2 hours
  • Transit time to transvers colon: 3-8 hours (slower with increasing age)

Source: Campbell, 1984

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10
Q

Name the numbered structures in this image

A
  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Soft palate
  3. Base of tongue
  4. Epiglottis
  5. Trachea
  6. Cranial esophageal sphincter
  7. Cranial esophagus with barium in the lumen
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11
Q

What is cricopharyngeal achalasia?

A

Failure of the UES to open fully or open at the appropriate time

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12
Q

What is the progression of distension of the components of the biliary system in EHBDO?

A

Day 1: GB and cystic duct dilated

Day 1-2: CBD dilated

Day 5-7: distension of intra-hepatic ducts

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13
Q

What is GFR (definition)?

What is normal in dogs?

What is normal in cats?

A

GFR = the quantity of filtrate formed in the kidney/minute

Dogs: >3 ml/min/kg

Cats: > 2.5 ml/min/kg

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14
Q

What range of GFR likely indicates subclinial renal insufficiency?

A

1.2 - 2.5 ml/min./kg

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15
Q

What is the resistive index measuring in the kidney?

What is considered the cutoff for an abnormal kidney in a dog?

A

RI = (systolic velocity - diastolic velocity) / systolic velocity

Measure of vascular resistance within the kidney

RI > 0.7 is abnormal

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16
Q

What is the effect of each of the following hormones on the Ca:P ratio?

1) Calcitonin
2) PTH
3) Calcitriol

A
  1. Calcitonin: decrease Ca, minimal effect on P
  2. PTH: increase Ca, decrease P
  3. Calctriol: increase both
17
Q

Explain the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). What stimulates RAAS?

A
  1. Decreased BP in the afferent arteriole
  2. Increased sympathetic tone
  3. Decreased Na & Cl concentration at the macula densa (low GFR leads to over re-absorption in the ascending LOH)
18
Q

What is the effect of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)? What stimulates secretion of ANP?

A

Dilation of afferent arteriole –> increased GFR

Decreases renin production –> natriuresis & diuresis

Stimulated by atrial distension

19
Q

RADIOGRAPHIC FETAL OSSIFICATION INTERVALS

(Days Post-LH Peak)

  • Mineralization of bones
  • Radius/Ulna/Tibia
  • Pelvis
  • Distal extremities and teeth
  • Also, what is gestation time in a dog?
A

(Days Post-LH Peak)

  • Mineralization of bones: 45 days
  • Radius/Ulna/Tibia: 52 days
  • Pelvis and ribs: 54 days
  • Distal extremities and teeth: 61 days
  • Also, what is gestation time in a dog? About 64 days
20
Q

Fetal mineralization in cats on radiographs

A

Same sequence of mineralization as dogs, but everything except mineralization of the teeth happens a few days earlier.

21
Q

What are the radiographic signs of fetal death? (6 things)

A
  1. Gas within the uterus
  2. Lack of mineralization of the fetus at an appropriate time
  3. Demineralization of fetal skeleton
  4. Abnormal fetal position (rolling into a ball)
  5. Overlap of the skull bones (Spalding sign)
  6. Increased opacity of fetus with decreased visualization of the extremities
22
Q

Timing of pyometra: what part of estrus cycle

A

1-3 months post-estrus in the diestrus phase

23
Q

What are considered normal measurements of the prostate on radiographs?

A

Lateral view: < 70% of the height of the pubic-sacral promontory

VD view: <50% of the pelvic inlet width

24
Q

Differential diagnoses for diffusely decreased bone density (osteopenia)

A
  1. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  2. Hyperparathyroidism (nutritional, renal, primary)
  3. Vitamin D deficiency
  4. Mucopolysaccharidosis
  5. Glucocorticoid excess
  6. Osteoporosis

HOG MOV(e)

25
Q

Differential diagnoses for diffusely increased bone density

A
  1. Osteopetrosis (inherited dz with abnormal osteoclastic function)
  2. FeLV
  3. Paraneoplastic (secondary hypertrophic osteopathy)
26
Q

How do you differentiate a viable non-union from a non-viable non-union fracture?

A

Viable – fuzzy appearance to fracture margins, elephant or horse hoof callus

Non-viable – sclerosis, rounding of the fracture margins, visible fracture gap

27
Q

What is multiple epiphyseal dysplasia? How does it look on radiographs?

A

Failure of epiphyseal ossification; they will eventually mineralize but appear deformed. Metaphyses and diaphyses are normal.

Radiographic apperance: small, distorted epiphyses

28
Q

What are the differentials for abnormal epiphyseal development?

A
  1. Multiple epiphsyeal dysplasia
  2. Pituitary dwarfism (proportionate dwarfism)
  3. Congenital hypothyroidism (disproportionate dwarfism)
  4. MPS
29
Q

Define:

  1. Amelia
  2. Hemimelia
  3. Polydactyly
  4. Ectrodactyly
  5. Syndactyly
A
  1. Amelia: absence of a limb
  2. Hemimelia: one bone of a pair (usually radius or ulna) is absent or hypoplastic
  3. Polydactyly: excess numbers of digits
  4. Ectrodactyly: distal forelimb is split, with phalanges, metacarpals and carpal bones divided to become associated with either the distal radius or ulna (lobster claw)
  5. Syndactyly – lack of differentiation between 2 or more digits
30
Q

This is a characteristic appearance of what disease/disorder?

A

Rickets: reduced dietary intake or inborn error of vit D metabolism

Rads: characteristic widening of physes due to hypertrophied cartilage

Widening and concavity of the metaphyseal edge with extreme, ‘beaked’ cupping of the adjacent metaphyses due to continued periosteal growth - “mushroom” or flared

31
Q

What are the radiographic changes associated with hypervitaminosis A?

A

Ankylosing spondylopathy of the cervical and thoracic spine

Exuberent exostosis, enthesophytes, and OA of the shoulder

32
Q

Patella alta vs. patella baja

A

Alta: proximally displaced (high altitude)

Baja: distally displaced (down in the Bahamas)

33
Q

Formation of osteochondroma/multiple cartilaginous exostoses

A

Chondrocytes are pushed into the metaphysis and do not differentiate into osteoblasts

Cartilage islands continue to proliferate as cartilagenous masses that eventually ossify

Wide base, narrower tip

34
Q

What are the radiographic characteristics of physitis/epiphysitis?

A

Widened physis, flared metaphysis, periosteal lipping

35
Q

What are the radiographic features of an aneurysmal bone cyst?

A

LYSIS!

Locally invasive, expansile, osteolytic lesion. Generally eccentric and in a metaphyseal location.

36
Q

What is spinal dysraphism? What breed is predisposed?

A

Congenital defect that results from failure of normal closure of the neural tube.

Weimeranar

37
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

Incomplete or failure of fusion of the dorsal vertebral arches with or without spinal cord/meningeal involvement (spina bifida occulta)

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