Papers by KL Flashcards

1
Q

Images of the same dog, 6 months apart. What caused the difference in their appearance? What other significant finding was described in this paper?

A

Dog with PDH treated with trilostane.

This study also showed a statistically significant increased in size of the adrenals after treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the significance of these three patterns of enhancement of the canine adrenal gland?

A

All three patterns are associated with PDH. Common features include disorderly enhancement throughout the adrenal.

Dogs with PDH also had higher peak intensity than normal dogs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the structure labeled LAG?

How is this image obtainted?

What is the range of thickness of this organ?

A

Left adrenal gland, obtained transrectally in a horse

Normal: 0.5 - 1.4 cm thick (range)

Mean thickness of caudal pole: 0.66 cm

Mean thickness of cranial pole: 0.9 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a cholesteatoma?

What are characteristic imaging features on CT?

A

Epidermoid cyst (keratin-filled)

CT: non-contrast enhancing, expansile, tympanic cavity mass, ~ 50-60 HU. Some dogs will have ring enhancement. Bony changes of the bulla (lysis, thickening, expansion), TMJ. Can cause lysis of the petrous temporal bone –> intra-cranial extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the MRI features of a cholesteatoma?

A

T1w-iso to hypo

T2w- hyper

No CE

No T2* artifact

(Harran, JAAHA 2012)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the average range of attenuation for each of the following (in the context of peritoneal effusion)?

  • Bile, urine, intestinal contents
  • Clotted blood
  • Unclotted blood
A
  • Bile, urine, intestinal contents: 0-15 HU
  • Clotted blood: 45-70 HU
  • Unclotted blood: 30-45 HU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the sentinel clot?

A

The highest attenuating hematoma (sentinel clot) is expected to be close to the site of bleeding. Lower attenuating unclotted blood is located farther from the source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What were the important factors in optimizing CT protocols for metallic gunshot head trauma in a seal? What factors did not result in improved image quality?

A

Minimized artifacts with: high frequency image reconstruction algorithm, proprietary extended CT scale raw data reconstruction (ECTS). All with WIDE window setting.

Increasing tube voltage and use of beam-hardening reduction (PFO) filter did not significantly reduce metal artifacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the MRI features of acute distemper virus?

A
  • T2W hyperintense, T1W hypointense lesions in the cerebellum and brainstem with loss of gray–white matter distinction (areas of demyelination)
  • Large, ill-defined lesions affecting the cerebral gray matter that are T2W and T2-FLAIR hyperin- tense and T1W iso- or hypointense; the may be attributed to the acute, post-ictal brain edema.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the MRI features of chronic distemper virus?

A
  • Bilaterally symmetric hyperintense T2W lesions of the white matter just deep to the gray–white matter junction of the parietal and frontal lobes.
  • T2W hyperintensity of the arbor vitae of the cerebellum causing loss of cerebellar gray–white matter junction.
  • Ill-defined hyperintense T2W lesion of the caudal brainstem.
  • Pachymeningeal contrast enhancement.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some features of NME that are not commonly reported with GME?

A

Meningeal enhancement, mass effect, and ventricular dilation were features frequently seen in these cases of NME that are not commonly associated with GME.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In evaluating meningioma and histiocytic sarcoma, how do the following parameters compare?

  • Intratumoral ADC and fractional anisotropy (FA)?
  • Peritumoral ADC and FA?
  • High T2 signal ADC and FA?
A
  • Intratumoral ADC and fractional anisotropy (FA)?
    • ADC: HiSA (0.76) < meningioma (1.1)
    • Similar FA
  • For both peritumoral and high T2 signal ADC and FA?
    • ADC: HiSA > meningioma
    • FA: HiSA < meningioma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the proposed significance of FA and ADC measurements in the peritumoral region?

A

Lower FA and higher ADC are associated with infiltrative tumor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the three general causes of bronchial dilation/bronchiectasis?

A
  1. Damage to bronchial wall (e.g., chronic bronchitis, chronic pneumonia)
  2. Obstruction of the bronchial lumen
  3. Traction from fibrotic tissue (e.g., IPF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the significant feature present in this image that helps you identify the type of bronchiectasis present?

A
  1. No bronchial wall thickening to indicate chronic inflammation/damage
  2. Too diffusely affected to be secondary to obstruction of the lumen
  3. Diffuse ground glass opacity may indicate pulmonary fibrosis –> therefore this is traction bronchiectasis.

Fitzgerald, et al. VRU 2017

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for contrast medium superimposed with the spinal cord during myelography (6)

A
  1. Epidural contrast deposition (focal CM accumulation at the nerve roots may mimic intramedullary contrast – check the VD, should be lateralized)
  2. Subarachnoid cyst
  3. Central canalogram (incidental vs. trauma to the cord vs. neoplasia)
  4. Syringohydromyelia
  5. Myelomalacia
  6. Severed spinal cord

Lu, D., Lamb, C.R. & Targett, M.P. (2002) Results of myelography in seven dogs with myelomalacia. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 43, 326–330

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is the contrast accumulating?

A

Subdural space

Subdural injection commonly causes contrast to accumulate in the dorsal subdural space of the cranial cervical area. This results in a radiopaque line of contrast with a very sharp dural border, a sharp bevel- or knife tip-like caudal end on lateral radiographs, and a wave-like ventral/axial border on lateral/ventrodorsal radiographs, respectively (also known as the dural drape sign).

Llabres-Diaz, F.J. (2005) Practical contrast radiography 4. Myelography. In Practice 27, 502–510

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is the contrast accumulating?

A

Epidural space

The presence of marked undulations in the contrast over the disc spaces, contrast medium around the nerve roots outside the vertebral canal and also in the caudal lumbar area, away from the caudal end of the subarachnoid space, and/or the presence of patchy pooling of contrast in the dependent portions of the vertebral canal can help to identify this artefact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is this lesion located? (Epidural, intradural extramedullary, or intramedullary)

A

Intramedullary (nephroblastoma)

Intramedullary lesions result in a widening of the spinal cord, together with narrowing and abaxial deviation of the subarachnoid contrast columns on all
projections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding normal findings in myelography:

  1. Focal thinning of the ventral subarachnoid space at the intervertebral disc spaces is common in larger breeds.
  2. Contrast accumulation in the dural sace can be used to confirm subarachnoid injection of contrast medium.
  3. There is normal, focal widening of the spinal cord at the level of C5-7 and L3-4.
  4. The subarachnoid space terminates at the level of C1 and does not cross into the foramen magnum.
A

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding normal findings in myelography:

  1. Focal thinning of the ventral subarachnoid space at the intervertebral disc spaces is common in SMALLER breeds.
  2. Contrast accumulation in the dural sace can be used to confirm subarachnoid injection of contrast medium.
  3. There is normal, focal widening of the spinal cord at the level of C5-7 and L3-4.
  4. The subarachnoid space terminates at the level of C1 and does not cross into the foramen magnum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give some examples of diseases that can produce a normal myelogram (4-6 examples)

A
  1. Myelitis
  2. Meningitis
  3. Degenerative myelopathy
  4. Ischemic myelopathy
  5. +/- trauma
  6. +/- GME
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is this lesion located?

A

Intradural extramedullary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a typical dose of contrast for equine myelography?

A

25-50 ml (following removal of 10-40 ml CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are considered normal results of flexion and extension on the contrast columns in equine myelography?

A

Flexion:

  • dorsal contrast column is unchanged
  • ventral contrast column will narrow at the IVDS

Extension:

  • dorsal contrast column is unchanged
  • ventral contrast column will become wider at C5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three most common methods for assessing spinal cord compression in horses on myelographic examination?

A
  1. Reduction of the dorsal contrast column
    • 50% commonly used, but likely to have false positives
    • 70% reduction is more specific
    • >60% recommended for C7-T1
  2. Reduction in total dural diameter
    • >20% commonly used
    • >30% recommended for C7-T1
  3. The 2-mm rule – NOT RECOMMENDED
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the two types of cervical vertebral myelopathy in horses?

What is the typical signalment for each type?

A

Type 1 CVM: developmental disease of young TB and WBs

Type 2 CVM: secondary to degenerative disease of caudal cervical articular process joints; older horses, no breed predilection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What risk factors have been identified for the incidence of seizures after myelography using iohexol?

A
  • Larger dogs
  • Larger total volume of contrast (authors propose max dose of 8ml iohexol)
  • Cerebromedullary cistern injection
  • Cervical lesion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Based on a study of ECG-gated CTA of dogs with and without pulmonic stenosis, what are the two cut-off values suggested to determine the presence of pulmonic stenosis?

A
  1. PV:AoVT > 1.2
    • Pulmonic valve : aortic valve in transverse plane
  2. PV:AoAs < 0.8
    • Pulmonic valve to the aortic annulus in a sagittal plane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In a study of ultrasonographic contrast enhancement of intra-thoracic masses, how was pulmonary arterial vs. bronchial arterial supply distinguished?

A

Vascularization type was considered relative to enhancement of the spleen (systemic arterial supply).

rTTE (lesion) = TTE lesion / TTE spleen

If rTTE > 1 –> likely systemic circulation (bronchial artery)

If rTTE < 1 –> likely pulmonary arterial supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In a study of CEUS of intra-thoracic masses, what was the general sensitivity and specificity of vascular supply in differentiating the different types of masses?

A

rTTE had an approximately 63% sensitivity and 78% specificity for differentiating types of pulmonary neoplasia

https://doi.org/10.1111/vru.12691

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In a study of CEUS of intra-thoracic masses, what were the main differences between the contrast enhancement patterns of mediastinal lymphomas and thymomas?

A

Mediastinal thymomas tended to have non-enhancing regions within them, and had a centripetal pattern of enhancement.

Mediastinal lymphomas enhanced throughout the lesion and had a centrifugal pattern of enhancement.

https://doi.org/10.1111/vru.12691

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In a study of CEUS of intrathoracic masses, what was the general trends of vascular supply for neoplastic vs. non-neoplastic pulmonary masses/nodules?

A

While there was a fair amount of overlap, most non-neoplastic masses had pulmonary arterial supply (78%) and most neoplastic masses had bronchial arterial supply (63%).

https://doi.org/10.1111/vru.12691

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the predilection sites for manica flexoria tears?

A

Lateral aspect of the MF in the hind limbs

https://doi.org/10.1111/vru.12675

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the sonographic features of a manica flexoria tear? How does dynamic positioning aid in diagnosis?

A
  • Asymmetric hypoechogenicity and thickening
  • Unattached margin of the MF
  • Ruptured edges of the MF floating in effusion
  • Flexor tendon sheath effusion

Dynamic flexion: reduced sliding of SDFT, anechoic gap between SDFT and DDFT, medial displacement of SDFT relative to DDFT (this one may be characteristic of MF tear)

https://doi.org/10.1111/vru.12675

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name the numbered structures.

What is indicated by the white arrow and how was this achieved?

A
  1. Subcutaneous tissue
  2. SDFT
  3. DDFT
  4. Digital flexor tendon sheath cavity

2a: MF
4a: SDFT mesotenon

4b, thickened synovial membrane

*anechoic synovial effusion of the digital flexor tendon sheath

White arrow: medial displacement of the SDFT relative to the DDFT, acquired with dynamic flexion of the fetlock, likely a characteristic appearance of MF tear

https://doi.org/10.1111/vru.12675

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is glioblastoma multiforme? What is gliomatosis cerebri?

A

GBM = grade IV astrocytoma

GC = wide-spread, diffusely infiltrative glial neoplasia of the CNS that affects 3+ contiguous cerebral lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

According to a 2014 study, what is the prevalence of incidental thyroid nodules in hypercalcemic dogs undergoing cervical ultra- sound (excluding dogs with palpable cervical masses)?

What percenrage of these were malignant?

A

Prevalence: 15% of dogs had at least one thyroid nodule

Of these nodules, 22% were malignant (adenocarcinoma)

Pollard, R.E., Bohannon, L.K. & Feldman, E.C. (2014) PREVALENCE OF INCIDENTAL THYROID NODULES IN ULTRASOUND STUDIES OF DOGS WITH HYPERCALCEMIA (2008-2013). Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 63–67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

According to a 2014 study of incidental thyroid nodules in hypercalcemic dogs found on cervical ultrasound:

  • What types of nodules were identified?
  • What were the sonographic features that could be used to differentiate them?
A
  • Adenomas, cysts, adenocarcinoma, and nodular hyperplasia were identified.
  • No sonographic features could be used to differentiate these lesions.

Pollard, R.E., Bohannon, L.K. & Feldman, E.C. (2014) PREVALENCE OF INCIDENTAL THYROID NODULES IN ULTRASOUND STUDIES OF DOGS WITH HYPERCALCEMIA (2008-2013). Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 63–67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

According to a 1997 study, what were the typical sonographic features of parathyroid lesions? Were there any distinguishing features between neoplastic and non-neoplastic lesions?

A
  • All parathyroid lesions were round or oval-shaped and hypoechoic to the thyroid parenchyma. Some had distal acoustic enhancement.
  • Significant difference in size between neoplastic and non-neoplastic nodules.
  • All neoplastic nodules were > 4mm in maximum dimension
  • All but one hyperplastic nodules were < 4mm – this larger one was secondary to CKD

Wisner, VRU 1997 38(6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What were the significant findings related to contrast-enhanced ultrasonography of canine insulinomas?

Nakamura, K., Lim, S.-Y., Ochiai, K., et al. (2014) CONTRAST-ENHANCED ULTRASONOGRAPHIC FINDINGS IN THREE DOGS WITH PANCREATIC INSULINOMA. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 55–62

A
  • All pancreatic nodules were visible on B-mode ultrasound
  • CEUS resulted in increased conspicuity of the nodules and better demarcation of their margins.
  • CE patterns were different in all three nodules (hyperechoic for 5 sec, mildly hyperechoic for 1 sec, hypoechoic for over 30 sec)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the general pattern of contrast enhancement in the feline small bowel?

A
  1. Rapid, intense enhancement of the serosa and submucosa
  2. Gradual enhancement of the remainder of the wall
  3. At peak enhancement, loss of demarcation between wall layers
  4. Slow wash-out, with submucosa wash out occurring last

Diana, A., Specchi, S., Baron Toaldo, M., et al. (2011) CONTRAST-ENHANCED ULTRASONOGRAPHY OF THE SMALL BOWEL IN HEALTHY CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 52, 555–559

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CEUS of the small bowel in healthy cats:

  • Arrival time
  • Time to peak (from injection)
A

Arrival time: 7 sec

TTP: 10 sec

Diana, A., Specchi, S., Baron Toaldo, M., et al. (2011) CONTRAST-ENHANCED ULTRASONOGRAPHY OF THE SMALL BOWEL IN HEALTHY CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 52, 555–559

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 3 vascular patterns described on CEUS of dogs with pituitary-dependent HAC? What is the normal CE pattern?

A

Normal: central vessel –> radial vessels –> homogeneous CE with phrenicoabdominal vein visible

Three Abnormal Patterns in PDH:

  1. central vessel –> disorderly uptake in the entire gland –> homogeneous CE
  2. no central vessel –> disorderly uptake in the entire gland –> homogeneous CE
  3. abnormal, nodular-appearing vessels –> progressive nodular appearance –> homogeneous CE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What was the relationship of adrenal contrast enhancement pattern of dogs with PDH and their biochemical paramenters?

A

The disorderly CE pattern was more pronounced in dogs with higher cortisol levels (> 24 ug/dl)

Bargellini, P., Orlandi, R., Paloni, C., et al. (2013) CONTRAST-ENHANCED ULTRASONOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTICS OF ADRENAL GLANDS IN DOGS WITH PITUITARY-DEPENDENT HYPERADRENOCORTICISM. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 54, 283–292

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a normal gallbladder ejection fraction (EF)? How is a standard GB EF study performed?

A

12 hour fast –> measure GB volume –> feed a standardized meal +/- administer erythromycin –> re-measure GB at set time points within 2 hours of meal.

Normal EF > 25% within 2 hours

Tsukagoshi, T., Ohno, K., Tsukamoto, A., et al. (2011) DECREASED GALLBLADDER EMPTYING IN DOGS WITH BILIARY SLUDGE OR GALLBLADDER MUCOCELE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 53, 84–91

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does the ejection fraction compare between the following groups of dogs/gallbladders: normal, mobile sludge, immobile sludge, mucocele?

What about the GB volume?

A

EJECTION FRACTION

  • DECREASED in all groups compared to normal dogs
  • Mobile sludge EF > immobile = mucocele

VOLUME: INCREASED in all groups compares to normal dogs; largest in mucocele group

Tsukagoshi, T., Ohno, K., Tsukamoto, A., et al. (2011) DECREASED GALLBLADDER EMPTYING IN DOGS WITH BILIARY SLUDGE OR GALLBLADDER MUCOCELE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 53, 84–91

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the order of enhancement of intra-ocular structures when assessed with CEUS?

How does CEUS compare to Doppler evaluation?

A
  1. Retina, choroid, and retrobulbar structures
  2. Iris and ciliary body
  3. Optic nerve

Color Doppler signal intensity was much weaker, especially around the iris and ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the normal CE pattern of the spleen on CEUS?

A

Small splenic arteries become visible –> heterogeneous enhancement in the early phase –> homogeneous at peak CE

Rossi, F., Fina, C., Stock, E., et al. (2016) EFFECT OF SEDATION ON CONTRAST-ENHANCED ULTRASONOGRAPHY OF THE SPLEEN IN HEALTHY DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 276–281

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the effect of butorphanol on CEUS of the spleen? What about dexmedetomidine?

A

No effect of torb

Dex causes reduced enhancement, appears diffusely hypoechoic. Measured parameters of time were all delayed (AT, TTP, wash-in) and peak intensity was reduced.

Rossi, F., Fina, C., Stock, E., et al. (2016) EFFECT OF SEDATION ON CONTRAST-ENHANCED ULTRASONOGRAPHY OF THE SPLEEN IN HEALTHY DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 276–281

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the normal appearance of horse urine on US?

A

Swirling, echogenic. Likely due to mucus and calcium carbonate.

doi: 10.1111/j.1740-8261.2007.00297.x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do you distinguish ureters from ductus deferens, ampullae and seminal vesicles?

What is the normal appearance of the UVJs?

A
  • Peristaltic movements of the ureters can be used for ID of this structure.
  • Ductus deferens is seen dorsomedial to the ureters.
  • Ampullae are very round and hyperechoic, dorsolateral to ureters.
  • Seminal vesicles are fluid-filled and dorsal to the urethra.

The UVJs are seen as somewhat flattened, oval-shaped structures on the dorsal surface of the bladder.

doi: 10.1111/j.1740-8261.2007.00297.x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Some normal measurements of the horse LUT:

  • Bladder wall
  • Ureteral wall
  • Urethral wall
A
  • Bladder wall: 3mm
  • Ureteral wall: 1.8 mm
  • Urethral wall: 5mm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Clumping of the suspended echoes in cat bladder is associated with increased concentration of what compound?

A

Diacylglycerol – very hydrophobic

doi: 10.1111/vru.12100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the relationship between renal cortical echogenicity and lipiduria?

A

Increasing cortical echogenicity is related to increased concentrations of urinary lipid

doi: 10.1111/vru.12100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is twinkle artifact?

What factors will increase twinkle artifact?

A

Twinkle artifact occurs deep to a strongly reflective surface, appearing as a quickly fluctuating mixture of Doppler signals. This occurs due to a narrow band signal error.

Dependent on size and surface texture of a structure, but not mineral composition.

Louvet, A. (2006) TWINKLING ARTIFACT IN SMALL ANIMAL COLOR-DOPPLER SONOGRAPHY. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 47, 384–390

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Muscularis layer thickening is associated with infiltrative disease in what layer(s) of the small bowel in cats? What about lymphadenopathy?

A

Muscularis thickening is associated with disease in the mucosa and submucosa

Lymphadenopathy is associated with disease in the mucosa and submucosa +/- muscularis

Zwingenberger, A.L., Marks, S.L., Baker, T.W., et al. (2010) Ultrasonographic Evaluation of the Muscularis Propria in Cats with Diffuse Small Intestinal Lymphoma or Inflammatory Bowel Disease. Journal of Veterinary Internal Medicine 24, 289–292

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the suggested etiologies of muscularis layer thickening?

Zwingenberger, A.L., Marks, S.L., Baker, T.W., et al. (2010) Ultrasonographic Evaluation of the Muscularis Propria in Cats with Diffuse Small Intestinal Lymphoma or Inflammatory Bowel Disease. Journal of Veterinary Internal Medicine 24, 289–292

A

Muscular hypertrophy, muscular shortening, or infiltrative disease not identified on histopath (i.e. not biopsied at the same site as seen on US)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Zwingenberger, A.L., Marks, S.L., Baker, T.W., et al. (2010) Ultrasonographic Evaluation of the Muscularis Propria in Cats with Diffuse Small Intestinal Lymphoma or Inflammatory Bowel Disease. Journal of Veterinary Internal Medicine 24, 289–292

This paper had discordant results about the sonographic appearance of IBD and LSA in comparison to other studies. What was the significant difference in this patient population?

A

IBD was not associated with muscularis thickening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the normal US measurements of thickness for the following:

  • Esophageal wall
  • Cardia wall
  • Pyloric wall
  • Muscularis layer of the pylorus
  • Length of the proximal duodenal submucosal thickening
A
  • Esophageal wall: 5 mm
  • Cardia wall: 5 mm
  • Pyloric wall: 4.4 mm
  • Muscularis layer of the pylorus: 2.5 mm
  • Length of the proximal duodenal submucosal thickening: 4.7 mm

Couturier, L., Rault, D., Gatel, L., et al. (2012) ULTRASONOGRAPHIC CHARACTERIZATION OF THE FELINE CARDIA AND PYLORUS IN 34 HEALTHY CATS AND THREE ABNORMAL CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 53, 342–347

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In a study of arteriportal communications, extra-hepatic AP communications were classified as (AVF/AVM) and intra-hepatic AP communications were classified as (AVF/AVM).

What distinguishes AVF from AVM?

A

AVF - direct communication between artery and vein, usually acquired

AVM - network of abnormal vessels representing AV connection (“nidus”). Suspected to be congenital.

Extra-hepatic = AVF

Intra-hepatic = AVM

Specchi, S., Rossi, F., Weisse, C., et al. (2018) Canine and feline abdominal arterioportal communications can be classified based on branching patterns in computed tomographic angiography. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 59, 687–696

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the MRI features of thiamine deficiency?

A

Bilaterally symmetrical T2w-hyperintensities of the lateral geniculate nuclei, caudal colliculi, facial nuclei, medial vestibular nuclei, red nuclei, and cerebellar nodulus

LG CC F MV R CN

LarGe Crunchy Cats Forcibly Meowing Very Rudely. CAT NO!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are some of the MRI findings associated with clinically relevant hydrocephalus (7)?

A
  • V/B > 0.6
  • Elevation of corpus callosum
  • Flattening of the interthalamic adhesion (dorsoventrally)
  • Periventricular edema
  • Dilation of the olfactory recesses
  • Thinning of the cortical sulci +/- subarachnoid space
  • Disruption of the internal capsule adjacent to the caudate nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The following images are obtained from a young Lionhead rabbit with acute GI stasis. Where are the abnormalities located? (Bonus points if you remember the diagnosis)

A

Marked thickening of the sacculus rotundus and the appendix with preservation of wall layering and mucosal speckling.

DX: granulomatous sacculitis and appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the maximum bronchial collapsibility identified on forced expiratory CT in healthy Beagles at 10 ml/kg? How about 15 ml/kg?

A

10 ml/kg: 25-55%

15 ml/kg: 50-74%

Highest in the left lung lobes

Kim, H., Kim, Y.J., Lee, H., et al. (2018) Computed tomographic and radiographic bronchial collapse may be a normal characteristic of forced expiration in dogs. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 59, 551–563

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How did the collapsibility of the bronchi compare between Beagles and asymptomatic brachycephalic dogs on forced expiratory CT (10 ml/kg)?

A

Brachys were more collapsible in all lung lobes (70-85%) compared to 25-55% in normal Beagles.

Yoon, H., Yu, J., An, G., et al. (2020) CT and radiographic evaluation of bronchial collapsibility at forced expiration in asymptomatic brachycephalic dogs. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 61, 167–180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

CT MPR imaging and radiography may OVERESTIMATE/UNDERESTIMATE the collapsibility of right caudal lobar bronchi in both brachycephalic and healthy Beagle dogs.

The degree of difference is greater is BEAGLES/BRACHYS.

A

OVERESTIMATE

The degree of overestimation is larger in brachycephalic dogs than that in healthy Beagle dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In a study comparing single-voxel and multi-voxel spectroscopy MRI of the canine brain:

  • What differences were noted between metabolite ratios determined by single-voxel vs. multi-voxel techniques?
  • What differences were noted between different areas of the brain?
A
  • No difference between single and multi-voxel techniques
  • N-acetyl aspartase was higher in the thalamus than in the parietal lobe
  • Contralateral ROI were similar to one another

Lee, A.M., Beasley, M.J., Barrett, E.D., et al. (2018) Single-voxel and multi-voxel spectroscopy yield comparable results in the normal juvenile canine brain when using 3 Tesla magnetic resonance imaging. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 59, 577–586

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Rank the relative incidence of pharyngeal collapse in the following groups:

  1. Brachycephalic dogs
  2. Normal dolicho/mesaticephalic dogs
  3. Dolicho/mesaticephalic dogs with airway collapse

What other factors were significantly correlated to pharyngeal collapse?

A

Brachy > Doli with airway collapse > Normal

Other correlated factors positively correlated with PC:

  • Higher BCS
  • Higher BW
  • Older
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Regarding B-mode and power Doppler ultrasonography of the suspensory ligament in hoses, which of the following is INCORRECT?

  1. Both sound horses and lame horses had power Doppler flow within the SL
  2. B-mode abnormalities were identified in sound horses and lame horses
  3. Doppler score was increased in horses with more severe changes on B-mode ultrasound
  4. Doppler flow was identified in the SL of sound horses with no abnormalities on B-mode ultrasound
A

4 is incorrect. Power Doppler flow was only identified in horse had HAD abnormalities on B-mode ultrasound. This was noted in both the sound and lame horses and in lame horses.

Rabba, S., Grulke, S., Verwilghen, D., et al. (2018) B-mode and power Doppler ultrasonography of the equine suspensory ligament branches: A descriptive study on 13 horses. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 59, 453–460

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Regarding the the plantaroproximal region of MTIII on a bone scan, what is the likely significance of the following in a lame horse that blocks to this region?

  • Focal, intense IRU
  • No IRU
A
  • IRU at this level is specific, so unlikely to be a false positive –> this is likely a real lesion associated with the proximal suspensory ligament
  • Poor sensitivity at this level –> normal does not rule out a lesion of the suspensory ligament! In fact, according to a study from 2006, most cases of SL desmitis appear normal on bone scans.

Quiney, L.E., Ireland, J.L. & Dyson, S.J. (2018) Evaluation of the diagnostic accuracy of skeletal scintigraphy in lame and poorly performing sports horses. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 59, 477–489

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are some of the sonographic features that loosely indicated that a mammary mass is likely to be carcinoma?

A

W:L ratio >0.5

Perfusion parameters on CEUS

NOT: echotexture, margins, invasiveness, doppler

Feliciano, M.A.R., Ramirez, R.A.U., Maronezi, M.C., et al. (2018) Accuracy of four ultrasonography techniques in predicting histopathological classification of canine mammary carcinomas. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 59, 444–452

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the common sonographic abnormalities found in cats with cholangitis? Were there any features specific to either neutrophilic or lymphocytic cholangitis?

A

Can be normal, but common abnormalities include gallbladder debris, common bile duct dilation, liver enlargement, hyperechoic liver parenchyma, and an enlarged pancreas.

No significant difference, but cats with neutrophilic cholangitis seemed more likely to have changes consistent with pancreatitis.

Marolf, A.J., Leach, L., Gibbons, D.S., et al. (2012) Ultrasonographic Findings of Feline Cholangitis. Journal of the American Animal Hospital Association 48, 42–46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What sonographic features in cats were significantly associated with an increased probability of a positive result of bile culture?

When abnormalities of the gallbladder were noted, what was the sensitivity of this finding for positive culture? Specificity?

A

Gallbladder wall thickening and sludge were associated with increased probability of positive bile culture.

96% sensitivity: nearly all cats with positive results of bile bacterial culture had abnormal results of gallbladder US

50% specific: abnormal results of gallbladder US were poorly specific because of their common occurrence in cats with negative results of bile culture (high false-negative rate).

Policelli Smith, R., Gookin, J.L., Smolski, W., et al. (2017) Association between Gallbladder Ultrasound Findings and Bacterial Culture of Bile in 70 Cats and 202 Dogs. Journal of Veterinary Internal Medicine 31, 1451–1458

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the iliopsoas muscle. Which parts of this muscle is consistently difficult to image on US?

A

Origin: transverse processes of L2 and L3

Insertion: lesser trochanter of the femur

The origin at L2 and the origin of the iliacus portion of the muscle were consistently difficult to image.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the common CT features of liposarcomas?

A
  • Mean attenuation ranged from -50 to +50 HU
  • Most masses had at least some fat attenuating area within them (77%)
  • All liposarcomas are contrast enhancing (thus distinguishing them from lipomas and infiltrative lipomas)
  • About half are encapsulated
  • Few have mineralization
  • Rarely can infiltrate bone

Fuerst, J.A., Reichle, J.K., Szabo, D., et al. (2017) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC FINDINGS IN 24 DOGS WITH LIPOSARCOMA. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 23–28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Spinal MCT are uncommon and highly variable in their imaging features, but there are three “typical” forms that have been described.

What are these forms? What are some of the described imaging features of these tumors?

A
  • Threee forms: extradural mass, paravertebral mas with invasion through foramina, or polyostotic spinal lesions
  • MRI: T2 hyper, T1 hypo, mildly CE, STIR HYPER!!
  • CT:
    • Extradural lesion: iso- to mildly hyperattenuating to cord causing severe compression
    • Paravertebral mass: invaded through foramina, periosteal reaction of adjacent rib without lysis, mild CE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In a study of dogs with MUE, what imaging and/or clinical findings were significantly associated with survival/prognosis?

A
  • Increased age and TNCC were significantly associated with poorer prognosis
  • Midline shift, CSF total protein, and weight were not significant

Oliphant, B.J., Barnes Heller, H.L. & White, J.M. (2017) Retrospective Study Evaluating Associations Between Midline Brain Shift on Magnetic Resonance Imaging and Survival in Dogs Diagnosed With Meningoencephalitis of Unknown Etiology. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 58, 38–43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following statements ARE CORRECT regarding GFR determination in cats with chronic kidney disease?

  1. Reliability of GFR measurements was high among experienced observers.
  2. Variations in GFR measurements rarely led to differences in clinical classification among less exeperienced observers.
  3. Changes in GFR values by (+) 0.4 ml/min/kg in cats with chronic kidney disease may be due to inherent variability rather than treatment effect.
  4. Cats with subclinical renal insufficiency have global GFR values between 1.2 and 2.5 ml/min/kg.
A
  1. Reliability of GFR measurements was high among experienced observers. TRUE
  2. Variations in GFR measurements rarely led to differences in clinical classification among MORE exeperienced observers.
  3. Changes in GFR values by (+) 0.4 ml/min/kg in cats with chronic kidney disease may be due to inherent variability rather than treatment effect. TRUE
  4. Cats with subclinical renal insufficiency have global GFR values between 1.2 and 2.5 ml/min/kg. TRUE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Variation of a horse’s stance can affect radiographic measurements of hoof balance. Which of the following measurements tend to be affected by these variations:

  1. Distal phalanx angle
  2. DIPJ angle
  3. PIPJ angle
  4. Lateral and medial joint spaces of the DIPJ
  5. Lateral and medial joint spaces of the PIPJ
  6. Hoof pastern axis
A

(Bold = affected by varied stance)

  1. Distal phalanx angle
  2. DIPJ angle
  3. PIPJ angle
  4. Lateral and medial joint spaces of the DIPJ
  5. Lateral and medial joint spaces of the PIPJ
  6. Hoof pastern axis

Pauwels, F.E., Rogers, C.W., Wharton, H., et al. (2017) Radiographic Measurements of Hoof Balance Are Significantly Influenced By a Horse’S Stance. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 58, 10–17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

This horse sustained a wound over the dorsal aspect of the thoracic limb DIPJ. There is soft tissue swelling and a draining tract at the site of the wound. How does this image help with the patient’s diagnosis?

A

Hair shafts within the dorsal recess of the PIPJ confirm intra-articular communication of the wound. This does not, however, always mean the joint is septic!

Hair = thin, linear, hyperechoic structures without shadowing

Partlow, J.L., Lustgarten, M. & Redding, W.R. (2017) Clinical, Ultrasonographic, and Arthroscopic Characteristics of Hair Shafts Within Synovial Structures of Seven Horses. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 58, 76–82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is Qs/Qp? How is it calculated? What is the proposed clinical significance?

A
  • Qs/Qp is a measure of the magnitude of a cardiovascular shunt (systemic flow / pulmonary flow).
  • Qs/Qp = SVLV / SV RV
  • Qs/Qp < 1 is considered insignificant; up to 2 is borderline

Lee, Y., Jung, J., Park, J., et al. (2017) CARDIAC MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING OF PATENT DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS IN THREE DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 62–75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the developmental cause of a persistent left cranial vena cava?

A

Persistent left cranial vena cava occurs when the left-sided cranial venous cardinal system fails to evolve into the coronary sinus.

Lee, Y., Jung, J., Park, J., et al. (2017) CARDIAC MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING OF PATENT DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS IN THREE DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 62–75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the MRI features of Central Europearn tick-borne meningoencephalomyelitis?

A
  • Bilaterally symmetric, T2w-hyperintense, T1w-hypointense, non-CE lesions WITHOUT edema or mass effect
  • Locations: thalamus, hippocampus, brainstem, basal nuceli, ventral horn of the spinal cord
  • OR: completely normal. Try MRI Spec.

Beckmann, K., Steffen, F., Ohlerth, S., et al. (2016) THREE TESLA MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FINDINGS IN 12 CASES OF CANINE CENTRAL EUROPEAN TICK-BORNE MENINGOENCEPHALOMYELITIS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 41–48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Features of dogs with tick-borne encephalitis as seen on proton MRI spectroscopy.

  • Which metabolites were different from control dogs?
  • Which metabolites showed no significant difference?
A
  • Affected dogs: higher glutamate/glutamine peaks, lower N-acetyl aspartate and creatine peaks (GGNC)
  • No difference: myoinositol and choline signals
  • No lactate or lipid signal in any dogs

Sievert, C., Richter, H., Beckmann, K., et al. (2017) Comparison Between Proton Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy Findings in Dogs With Tick-Borne Encephalitis and Clinically Normal Dogs. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 58, 53–61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When comparing the spectra between dogs with non-infectious meningoencephalitis and dogs with infectious tick-borne encephalitis, what is/are the only common feature(s) among metabolites?

What metabolites might act as a differentiating feature between infectious and non-infectious diseases?

A

Low concentration of N-acetyl aspartate and creatine is the only common feature.

Lipids, lactate, and taurine signal may help differentiate infectious from non-infectious.

  • NONE of the tick-borne encephalitis patients included in this study had these markers, whereas they have been reported with non-infectious inflammatory disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which scintigraphic measurement is most sensitive for detecting hyperthyroidism in cats?

Which measure correlates most closely with serum T4?

What are the three T/B ratios that can be performed, and which one is most sensitive?

A
  • T/S ratio is the most sensitive
  • TcTU (% uptake) is most associated with T4
  • T/B (axilla, heart, trachea) – heart has best sensitivity

Peterson, M.E., Guterl, J.N., Rishniw, M., et al. (2016) EVALUATION OF QUANTITATIVE THYROID SCINTIGRAPHY FOR DIAGNOSIS AND STAGING OF DISEASE SEVERITY IN CATS WITH HYPERTHYROIDISM: COMPARISON OF THE PERCENT THYROIDAL UPTAKE OF PERTECHNETATE TO THYROID-TO-SALIVARY RATIO AND THYROID-TO-BACKGROUND RATIOS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 427–440

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

CATS:

  • What is a normal T/S ratio?
  • What is a normal percent dose uptake?
A
  • What is a normal T/S ratio? 0.9 (up to 1.5)
  • What is a normal percent dose uptake? 0.2% to 4% depending on the paper
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the prevalence of ectopic thyroid neoplasia in cats and where is it typically found?

A

Prevalence ~4%

Typically intra-thoracic (midline mediastinal) – >80%

Lingual ~10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How does the biological behavior of insulinomas in ferrets differ from that of dogs and cats?

What is the typical sonographic appearance of an insulinoma in a ferret?

A
  • Low metastatic rate in ferrets (<5%)
  • Hypoechoic, round to oval shape, smooth margins, multiple nodules, in right or left lobe fairly equally with few found in the region of the body
  • Abstract says primarily homogeneous, but more of the nodules were classified as heterogeneous in the actual paper….
    • (43% homo- vs. 54% hetero-)

Wu, R.-S.S., Liu, Y.-J.J., Chu, C.-C.C., et al. (2017) Ultrasonographic features of insulinoma in six ferrets. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 607–612

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the imaging features of oligodendrogliomas in the spinal cord?

A
  • Intramedullary, eccentric, well-marginated, ovoid masses
    • Cause increased diameter of the spinal cord and narrowing of the subarachnoid space
  • Most commonly T1w iso- to hypointense and T2w hyperintense
    • A case report (cited below) described a T1w-HYPERintense, extensive intramedullary oligodendroglioma (possibly due to extensive necrosis)

Schkeeper, A.E., Moon, R., Shrader, S., et al. (2016) IMAGING DIAGNOSIS-MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FEATURES OF A MULTIFOCAL OLIGODENDROGLIOMA IN THE SPINAL CORD AND BRAIN OF A DOG. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, E49–E54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Differentials for T1w hyperintensity

A
  • Fat
  • Flow-related changes (slow flow)
  • Cholesterol
  • Calcification (manganese, iron, copper)
  • Methemoglobin
  • Melanin
  • Necrosis
  • Proteinaceous fluid
  • Posterior pituitary (vasopressin)

FFCCMMPP + N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Regarding a paper comparing the MCPJ injury patterns between Thoroughbreds and Standardbreds on MRI:

  • What was the relative prevalence of stress fractures?
  • What was the relative prevalence of soft tissue injuries and what was the clinical relevance of these findings?
  • Which population had a higher incidence of synovitis and joint capsule thickening?
A
  • TBs had a higher incidence of stress fracture (40%)
  • Both groups had a higher incidence of soft tissue injuries than had been previously reported, but these were most often not thought to be primarily responsible for lameness
    • ​TBs 20%
    • SBs 37%
  • ​SBs had higher incidence of synovitis and joint capsule thickening

Olive, J., Serraud, N., Vila, T., et al. (2017) Metacarpophalangeal joint injury patterns on magnetic resonance imaging: A comparison in racing Standardbreds and Thoroughbreds. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 58, 588–597

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Regarding a paper comparing the MCPJ injury patterns between Thoroughbreds and Standardbreds on MRI:

  • How did the characterization of subchondral bone injuries differ between SBs and TBs?
A
  • TBs had an increased incidence and severity of subchondral sclerosis
  • SBs had more frequent subchondral defects and resorption, and more frequent dorsomedial subchondral lesions

Olive, J., Serraud, N., Vila, T., et al. (2017) Metacarpophalangeal joint injury patterns on magnetic resonance imaging: A comparison in racing Standardbreds and Thoroughbreds. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 58, 588–597

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In a study using CT to describe phenotypic characteristics of LS stenosis in Labrador Retrivers:

  • Which quantitative parameters were most predictive?
  • What qualitative parameter was also predictive of LS stenosis?
A
  • Fat area and fat area ratio
    • ​FAR = fat area/mean vertebral body area
  • ​Qualitative: trapezoidal shape of the intervertebral foramina at L6 and L7

Mukherjee, M., JONES, J.C., Holásková, I., et al. (2017) Phenotyping of lumbosacral stenosis in Labrador retrievers using computed tomography. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 565–580

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Regarding nasal airflow resistance in English Bulldogs, which of the following is/are CORRECT:

  • There was marked variation of airway resistance within the nasal cavity in most dogs.
  • In most dogs, the middle and caudal portions of the nasal cavity had the highest resistance to airflow.
  • Measures of airflow are likely underestimated by this model.
  • Nasal turbinectomy may reduce airflow resistance at the level of highest resistance.
A

Regarding nasal airflow resistance in English Bulldogs, which of the following is/are CORRECT: (correct answers in bold)

  • There was marked variation of airway resistance within the nasal cavity in most dogs.
  • In most dogs, the middle and caudal portions of the nasal cavity had the highest resistance to airflow.
    • Rostral portion of the nasal cavity had the highest resistance.
  • Measures of airflow are likely underestimated by this model.
  • Nasal turbinectomy may reduce airflow resistance at the level of highest resistance.

Hostnik, E.T., Scansen, B.A., Zielinski, R., et al. (2017) Quantification of nasal airflow resistance in English bulldogs using computed tomography and computational fluid dynamics. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 542–551

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Regarding the use of CT arthrography for evaluating the ovine stifle:

  • What was the sensitivity and specificity for detection of articular cartilage defects?
  • What was the PPV and NPV?
  • What locations had the highest number of lesions?
A
  • Excellent sens/spec (high 90s)
  • PPV 98%; NPV 85%
  • Most frequent locations of lesions:
    • Middle third of each of the following: medial tibial condyle, medial femoral condyle, and the patella
    • Similar to humans

Hontoir, F., Clegg, P., Simon, V., et al. (2017) Accuracy of computed tomographic arthrography for assessment of articular cartilage defects in the ovine stifle. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 512–523

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the primary CT features of dogs with Angiostrongylus vasorum? What is the correlation between imaging findings and severity of clinical signs?

A
  • Multifocal increased lung attenuation affecting multiple lobes with a primarily peripheral distribution
    • GGO and consolidation
    • Nodules with ill-defined margins
  • TB LN enlargement in most dogs
  • Pulmonary arterial filling defects in some dogs??
    • They literally only mention this as an afterthought in the discussion section. Like assholes.
  • Mild peripheral bronchial dilation

Coia, M.E., Hammond, G., Chan, D., et al. (2017) Retrospective evaluation of thoracic computed tomography findings in dogs naturally infected by Angiostrongylus vasorum. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 524–534

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

CT lymphangiography for the identification of sentinel lymph nodes in dogs with tumors of the head:

  • What was the success rate? What complicating factors were identified that reduced the success of this procedure?
  • How long did it typically take for the sentinal LN to be identified?
A
  • Successful in 89% within 3 minutes of injection
  • Pressure from ET tube ties or recumbency may have interrupted lymphatic flow.

Grimes, J.A., Secrest, S.A., Northrup, N.C., et al. (2017) Indirect computed tomography lymphangiography with aqueous contrast for evaluation of sentinel lymph nodes in dogs with tumors of the head. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 559–564

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

CT lymphangiography for the identification of sentinel lymph nodes in dogs with tumors of the head:

  • What was the predominent pattern of sentinel lymph nodes?
  • What were the unexpected patterns of sentinel lymph nodes?
  • What volume of contrast is recommended?
A
  • Majority of SLNs were the ipsilateral mandibular LN
  • Contralateral mandibular LN or both ipsilateral and contralateral mandibular LN in 12%
  • Dose: 1 ml

Grimes, J.A., Secrest, S.A., Northrup, N.C., et al. (2017) Indirect computed tomography lymphangiography with aqueous contrast for evaluation of sentinel lymph nodes in dogs with tumors of the head. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 559–564

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Regarding CT morphometry of tympanic bulla shape and position in brachycephalic and mesaticephalic dog breeds:

  • What was the major finding regarding bulla shape?
  • Volume?
  • Overlap with TMJ?
A
  • CKCS had significantly flatter bullae
  • Pugs and both types of Bulldogs had thicker walls of the bullae and an increasingly rostral location of the bullae relative to the TMJ
  • No significant relationship between bulla morphology and middle ear effusion, however about 50% of brachycephalics had effusion
    • 68% of CKCS – primary secretory otitis media
    • 0% of Labs/JRTs had it (how is this not significant?)

Mielke, B., Lam, R. & ter Haar, G. (2017) Computed tomographic morphometry of tympanic bulla shape and position in brachycephalic and mesaticephalic dog breeds. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 552–558

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the three quantitative parameters used to evaluate for brain atrophy on CT? What are the suggested cutoffs used to identify atrophy?

A
  • Interthalamic adhesion thickness (ITA)
    • Cut-off < 4.7 mm
  • ITA/brain height (BH) –> referred to as ITAr
    • Cut-off < 14%
  • ITAr / (LV/BH)
    • = ITAr / LVr
    • Cut-off < 0.7
  • Significant differences found in each of the categories, but recommend using the size-normalized values

Noh, D., Choi, S., Choi, H., et al. (2017) Evaluation of interthalamic adhesion size as an indicator of brain atrophy in dogs with and without cognitive dysfunction. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 581–587

102
Q

What CT features are associated with malignant pleural effusion?

A
  • Thickening of the parietal pleura in the absence of thickened visceral pleura
  • Thoracic wall invasion (uncommon but only seen in the malignant group)
  • Older dogs
  • NO DIFFERENCE: volume of effusion, degree of pleural CE, amount of pannus, or prevalence of mediastinal lymphadenopathy

Watton, T.C., Lara-Garcia, A. & Lamb, C.R. (2017) Can malignant and inflammatory pleural effusions in dogs be distinguished using computed tomography? Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 58, 535–541

103
Q

What are the MRI features of hepatocellular carcinoma when imaged using gadoxetate?

What is the significance of the reported signal intensity ratio?

What is the time to maximum contrast enhancement of the liver?

A
  • Hypointense on T1w GRE pre- and post-contrast images (much more hypointense post)
  • Heterogeneity correlated with increasing grade (hemorrhage or necrosis)
  • Signal intensity values <1 – implies impaired but persistent hepatocyte function
  • Max hepatic CE (and therefore delineation of the mass) ~ 10 min

Constant, C., Hecht, S., Craig, L.E., et al. (2016) GADOXETATE DISODIUM (GD-EOB-DTPA) CONTRAST ENHANCED MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING CHARACTERISTICS OF HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 594–600

104
Q

Regarding dynamic sonography of the equine metacarpo(tarso)phalangeal digital flexor tendon sheath:

  • What findings were associated with palmar/plantar annular ligament desmitis?
  • What are the reported static imaging findings of PAL desmitis?
A
  • PAL desmitis: thickening of the PAL, tenosynovitis, SQ thickening
  • Dynamic exam:
    • Restricted gliding between SDFT and PAL
    • Increased long linear echo angulation (> 13 degrees)
    • Slightly increased anechoic gap between SDFT and DDFT (maybe not significant)

DiGiovanni, D.L., RADEMACHER, N., Riggs, L.M., et al. (2016) DYNAMIC SONOGRAPHY OF THE EQUINE METACARPO(TARSO)PHALANGEAL DIGITAL FLEXOR TENDON SHEATH. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 621–629

105
Q

Regarding PET imaging of the equine distal limb:

  • What was the most metabolically active anatomic structure?
  • Which anatomic structure(s) were the least active?
  • What was the range of lesions detected in this patient population?
A
  • Coronary band = most active
  • Tendons = least active
  • Lesions included:
    • Lysis of the flexor cortex (granulation tissue = active)
    • Lesions of the flexor tendons and SL (active >> inactive)
    • Multifocal lack of uptake in the lamina of horses with laminitis
106
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of bone scintigraphy in equine stifle disorders? How did the use of one-view vs. two-views affect these parameters?

A

Sensitivity ranged from 4-30% without a significant change with the addition of a caudal view.

Specificity was good (85-95%) but dropped (non-significantly) with the addition of a caudal view.

Graham, S., Solano, M., Sutherland-Smith, J., et al. (2014) DIAGNOSTIC SENSITIVITY OF BONE SCINTIGRAPHY FOR EQUINE STIFLE DISORDERS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 96–102

107
Q

What is the likely cause of this pattern of IRU?

A

Focal muscle uptake (and possible myonecrosis) after a peroneal nerve block.

Superimposed with tibial diaphysis on the lateral view, but slightly lateral to the tibia on the caudal view.

Griffin IV, J.F., Young, B.D., Fosgate, G.T., et al. (2010) FOCAL SKELETAL MUSCLE UPTAKE OF 99mTECHNETIUM-HYDROXYMETHYLENE Diphosphonate FOLLOWING PERONEAL NERVE BLOCKS IN HORSES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 51, 338–343

108
Q
  • What proportion of horses show skeletal muscle uptake of 99Tc-HDP after a peroneal nerve block?
  • In how many of these horses does this uptake resemble a lesion of the tibia?
  • How long does it last?
  • What was the effect of dose volume?
  • What was the effect of body weight?
A
  • 50% of horses will have muscle uptake
  • In 20% of horses it could be mistaken for a tibial lesion
  • Lasts up to 7 days
  • Higher dose volume and higher BW–> increased count density

Griffin IV, J.F., Young, B.D., Fosgate, G.T., et al. (2010) FOCAL SKELETAL MUSCLE UPTAKE OF 99mTECHNETIUM-HYDROXYMETHYLENE Diphosphonate FOLLOWING PERONEAL NERVE BLOCKS IN HORSES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 51, 338–343

109
Q

Under what conditions does portal streamlining occur?

What is the most common variant of radionuclide distribution in the liver, and what branch of the PV is the primary supply to this region?

A

PS happens under phsyiologic conditions – i.e., not when contrast is injected directly into PV, but happens with per-rectal absorption.

Most common = ventral distribution, supplied by the left branch of the PV. Caudal mesenteric vein is known to preferentially flow here.

Daniel, G.B., DeNovo, R.C., Sharp, D.S., et al. (2004) Portal streamlining as a cause of nonuniform hepatic distribution of sodium pertechnetate during per-rectal portal scintigraphy in the dog. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 45, 78–84

110
Q

What is the prevalence of dorsal distribution of radionuclide secondary to portal streamlining.

What is the significance of this distribution for the interpretation of the exam?

A

Prevalence ~ 20%

Focal dorsal distributions are more likely to influence quantitative analysis of the images. Often exclude the most dorsal part of liver to avoid accidentally including the shunt. Leaving out the dorsally distributed RP coul lead to a FALSE-POSITIVE diagnosis of PSS

Daniel, G.B., DeNovo, R.C., Sharp, D.S., et al. (2004) Portal streamlining as a cause of nonuniform hepatic distribution of sodium pertechnetate during per-rectal portal scintigraphy in the dog. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 45, 78–84

111
Q

What are some of the pathological causes/targets of non-skeletal radiopharmaceutical uptake?

A
  • Heterotopic bone (myositis ossificans, fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva)
  • Metastatic calcification (hyperparathyroidism, uremia, hypercalcemia of malignancy)
  • Dystrophic mineralization (chronic inflammation, HAC, neoplasia, mineralized hematoma, infarction, fat necrosis)
  • Idiopathic soft tisse calcification (tumoral calcinosis, alveolar microlithiasis)
  • Urinary tract abnormalities (hydronephrosis, infarct, cyst)
  • Dehydration/decreased CO
  • Edema
  • Acute muscle injury, myositis, muscle infarction or necrosis

Lamb, C.R. (1990) NON-SKELETAL DISTRIBUTION OF BONE-SEEKING RADIOPHARMACEUTICALS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 31, 246–253

112
Q

What are some of the artifactual causes of non-skeletal IRU?

A
  • Urine contamination
  • Extravasation of dose – skin, lymph nodes
  • Thyroid, SG, and gastric uptake of free pertechnetate
  • Site of unrelated IV or IM injection

Lamb, C.R. (1990) NON-SKELETAL DISTRIBUTION OF BONE-SEEKING RADIOPHARMACEUTICALS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 31, 246–253

113
Q

What are some of the advantages of using 99mTc mebrofenin in the evaluation of trans-splenic scintigraphy of PSS (compared to 99mTcO4-)?

A
  • If there is no shunt, the radiopharmaceutical will never make it to the heart.
  • Higher absorption from the spleen
  • Better morphologic evaluation of the liver
  • Primarily excreted through feces, not urine – better from radiation safety standpoint

Morandi, F. (2014) Liver Scintigraphy in Veterinary Medicine. YSNUC 44, 15–23

114
Q

In a study of indirect CT lymphography in dogs with anal sac gland adenocarcinoma:

  • What proportion of the studies were successful?
  • Rank the commonly identified sentinal LN(s)
A
  • 92% successful
  • Sentinel LN:
    • MILN > Sacral > IILN
    • 25% of cases had multiple sentinel LN with distinct lymphatic tracts
    • Ipsilateral SLN in 66%
115
Q

In a study of indirect CT lymphography in dogs with anal sac gland adenocarcinoma:

  • What are some complicating factors that may lead to an inaccurate or non-diagnostic sentinel lymphogram?
A

Very large primary tumor size, lymphadenomegaly, patient positioning

Majeski, S.A., Steffey, M.A., Fuller, M., et al. (2017) INDIRECT COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC LYMPHOGRAPHY FOR ILIOSACRAL LYMPHATIC MAPPING IN A COHORT OF DOGS WITH ANAL SAC GLAND ADENOCARCINOMA: TECHNIQUE DESCRIPTION. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 295–303

116
Q

What are the common CT features of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis in dogs?

A
  • Ground-glass opacity
  • Mosaic attenuation pattern
  • Bronchial wall thickening
  • Less common:
    • Nodules
    • Parenchymal & subpleural bands
    • Bronchiectasis

Roels, E., Couvreur, T., Farnir, F., et al. (2017) COMPARISON BETWEEN SEDATION AND GENERAL ANESTHESIA FOR HIGH RESOLUTION COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC CHARACTERIZATION OF CANINE IDIOPATHIC PULMONARY FIBROSIS IN WEST HIGHLAND WHITE TERRIERS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 284–294

117
Q

What are the MRI features of intraventricular ependymomas in cats?

How do these features compare to dogs?

A
  • T2w/FLAIR/PD hyperintense to gray matter
  • T1w iso- to hyperintense
    • Dogs are iso- to hypointense
  • T2* GRE iso- to hyperintense
  • CE primarily strong and homogeneous, but can be mild

DeJesus, A., Cohen, E.B., Galban, E., et al. (2017) MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FEATURES OF INTRAVENTRICULAR EPENDYMOMAS IN FIVE CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 326–333

118
Q
  • What is the most common radiographic pattern of NCPE?
  • What findings were specifically noted for post-obstructive NCPE?
  • Was there a lobe predilection?
  • What features are predictive of survival?
A
  • Most common: mixed pattern, bilateral and symmetrical, multifocal, peripheral and dorsal
  • Post-obstructive: asymmetric, unilateral, dorsal distribution (did not reach significance)
  • When unilateral, most often R caudal lung lobe
  • No features differed between survivors and non-survivors

Bouyssou, S., Specchi, S., Desquilbet, L., et al. (2017) RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF PRESUMED NONCARDIOGENIC PULMONARY EDEMA AND CORRELATION WITH THE UNDERLYING CAUSE IN DOGS AND CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 259–265

119
Q

What is a pseudo-odontoma?

What is the typical CT appearance of a pseuo-odontoma?

A
  • Pseudo-odontoma = odontogenic dysplasia in ageing rodents and lagomorphs; odontogenic tissue is continuously deposited in the apical area of the affected incisor, causing remodeling and disruption of the alveolar bone
  • CT Appearance:
    • Hyperattenuating pulp and dentin in the reserve crown and apical zone
    • Multilobular hyperattenuating mass encroaching on midline and growing caudally and ventrally
    • 60% of prairie dogs with maxillary incisor pseudo-odontomas had deformities of the hard palate with the mass bulging into the oral cavity

Pelizzone, I., Di Ianni, F., Volta, A., et al. (2017) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC FEATURES OF INCISOR PSEUDO-ODONTOMAS IN PRAIRIE DOGS ( CYNOMYS LUDOVICIANUS). Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 273–283

120
Q

Incidental and non-incidental thyroid tumors detected on CT:

  • What is the prevalence of incidental tumors detected?
  • What was the prevalence of malignancy among non-incidental thyroid masses? And incidental ones?
A
  • Prevalence of incidental thyroid tumors: 0.76%
  • Non-incidental masses: 82% malignant
  • Incidentally-identified masses: 70% malignant

Bertolini, G., Drigo, M., Angeloni, L., et al. (2017) INCIDENTAL AND NONINCIDENTAL CANINE THYROID TUMORS ASSESSED BY MULTIDETECTOR ROW COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY: A SINGLE-CENTRE CROSS SECTIONAL STUDY IN 4520 DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 304–314

121
Q

What are the CT features of malignant thyroid nodules/masses?

A
  • Ovoid to round shape
  • Can have regular or irregular margins **
  • Large
  • Mineralization **
  • Inhomogeneous pre- and post-C **
  • Intratumoral vascularization
  • Lymphadenopathy

** features identified with malignant masses only

Bertolini, G., Drigo, M., Angeloni, L., et al. (2017) INCIDENTAL AND NONINCIDENTAL CANINE THYROID TUMORS ASSESSED BY MULTIDETECTOR ROW COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY: A SINGLE-CENTRE CROSS SECTIONAL STUDY IN 4520 DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 304–314

122
Q
  • What is internal ophthalmoplegia?
  • What is external ophthalmoparesis?
A
  • Internal ophthalmoplegia = areflexive mydriasis
  • What is external ophthalmoparesis = ptosis, dorsolateral strabismus, lack of adduction on vestibulo-ocular reflex

Tetas Pont, R., Freeman, C., Dennis, R., et al. (2017) CLINICAL AND MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FEATURES OF IDIOPATHIC OCULOMOTOR NEUROPATHY IN 14 DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 334–343

123
Q

What are the MRI features of idiopathic oculomotor neuropathy?

What is the prognosis with this condition?

A
  • MRI features:
    • Variable enlargement - mild to marked in 11/14
    • Variable CE - mild to marked in 12/14
      • More often focal than diffuse
    • Lesions restricted to CN III
  • Prognosis: non-progressive, improves in 50%

Tetas Pont, R., Freeman, C., Dennis, R., et al. (2017) CLINICAL AND MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FEATURES OF IDIOPATHIC OCULOMOTOR NEUROPATHY IN 14 DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 334–343

124
Q

In a study comparing CT and MRI evaluation of nasal tumors in dogs:

  • How did the assessment change between modalities in cases where there was not full agreement?
  • How did measurements of tumor size vary between the modalities?
A
  • MRI resulted in more advanced staging in one dog
    • Due to cribriform plate lysis not identified on CT
  • MRI showed evidence of meningeal enhancement in 2 dogs that was not seen on CT
    • Clinical significance unknown at this point
  • MRI showed invasion into sphenoid sinus in one dog (not seen on CT)
  • MRI measurement of tumor volume was ~18% larger on average
    • Unclear whether CT or MRI is more accurate thought

Lux, C.N., Culp, W.T.N.N., Johnson, L.R., et al. (2017) PROSPECTIVE COMPARISON OF TUMOR STAGING USING COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY VERSUS MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FINDINGS IN DOGS WITH NASAL NEOPLASIA: A PILOT STUDY. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 315–325

125
Q

Clinical and MRI features of inflammatory vs. neoplastic MRLN lesions in dogs and cats:

  • What are the differences in signalment and clinical history between the two groups?
  • What findings were associated with inflammatory vs. neoplastic disease?
A
  • Findings associated with lymphadenitis
    • Younger; cut-off: 6.5 years
    • Lethargy, neck pain, fever
    • Peri-nodal and muscle CE
  • Findings associated with neoplasia:
    • Larger size (but width:height ratio not different between groups)
    • Older dogs, non-painful

Johnson, P.J., Elders, R., Pey, P., et al. (2016) CLINICAL AND MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FEATURES OF INFLAMMATORY VERSUS NEOPLASTIC MEDIAL RETROPHARYNGEAL LYMPH NODE MASS LESIONS IN DOGS AND CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 24–32

126
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for diagnosing ANNPE on MRI?

A
  1. Focal region of intramedullary T2w hyperintensity overlying an IVDS
  2. Reduction in volume of the T2w hyperintense nucleus pulposus signal
  3. Mild narrowing of the associated disc space
  4. Non-compressive extradural material or no extradural material (MINIMAL compression might be allowed?)

Fenn, J., Drees, R., Volk, H.A., et al. (2016) INTER- AND INTRAOBSERVER AGREEMENT FOR DIAGNOSING PRESUMPTIVE ISCHEMIC MYELOPATHY AND ACUTE NONCOMPRESSIVE NUCLEUS PULPOSUS EXTRUSION IN DOGS USING MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 33–40

127
Q

Fenn, J., Drees, R., Volk, H.A., et al. (2016) INTER- AND INTRAOBSERVER AGREEMENT FOR DIAGNOSING PRESUMPTIVE ISCHEMIC MYELOPATHY AND ACUTE NONCOMPRESSIVE NUCLEUS PULPOSUS EXTRUSION IN DOGS USING MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 33–40

  • Intra- and interobserver agreement was ______.
  • In what cases was agreement strongest?
  • What findings were least agreed upon?
A
  • Inter-observer: moderate
  • Intra-observer: moderate to good
  • Agreement was best for lesions directly over a vertebral body (94% dx’ed as IM) and over an IVDS (85% dx’ed as ANNPE)
  • Agreement was worst about the presence of IVDS narrowing, IVD degeneration, and SC compression
128
Q

Comparing ANNPE and IM:

  • Length of lesion?
  • Location of lesions?
A
  • Lesion length greater for IM than ANNPE
  • C1-5: 90% ANNPE
  • C6-T2: 75% IM
  • L4-S3: 75% IM
  • No significant difference in the T3-L3 location

Fenn, J., Drees, R., Volk, H.A., et al. (2016) INTER- AND INTRAOBSERVER AGREEMENT FOR DIAGNOSING PRESUMPTIVE ISCHEMIC MYELOPATHY AND ACUTE NONCOMPRESSIVE NUCLEUS PULPOSUS EXTRUSION IN DOGS USING MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 33–40

129
Q

What are the radiographic and echocardiographic effects of dexmedetomidine administration in healthy dogs?

A
  • Increased VHS and cardiac size to thorax ratio
    • Mean VHS 9.8 to 10.3
  • Increased E point-to-septal separation (associated with decreased systolic function of LV)
  • Increased LVID in both diastole and systole
  • Decreased fractional shortening and sphericity index
  • New regurgitation in all valves; mitral most severe

Wang, H.-C., Hung, C.-T., Lee, W.-M., et al. (2016) EFFECTS OF INTRAVENOUS DEXMEDETOMIDINE ON CARDIAC CHARACTERISTICS MEASURED USING RADIOGRAPHY AND ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY IN SIX HEALTHY DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 8–15

130
Q

Regarding transpalpebral US measurements of the optic nerve sheath in horses:

  • Why do we care about the optic nerve sheath?
  • How was the inter- and intra-observer agreement?
  • What are the proposed cut-offs?
A
  • Increased ONSD is a sensitive, non-invasive indicator of increased ICP in people
  • Agreement was good, within a range of less than 0.2mm
  • Foals: <5 mm
  • Adults: < 6mm

Cooley, S.D., Scrivani, P. V, THOMPSON, M.S., et al. (2016) CORRELATIONS AMONG ULTRASONOGRAPHIC MEASUREMENTS OF OPTIC NERVE SHEATH DIAMETER, AGE, AND BODY WEIGHT IN CLINICALLY NORMAL HORSES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 49–57

131
Q

Ultrasonographic findings in horses with lymphoma:

  • What are the most common findings in the abdomen?
  • In the thorax?
A

Abdomen:

  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Effusion
  • Splenic nodules, splenomegaly, or diffuse echogenicity changes
  • Hepatic nodules, hepatomegaly
  • A few regions of thickening of the small and large bowel wall (alimentary LSA, not MC)

Thorax:

  • Pleural effusion
  • Lymphadenopathy (cranial mediastinal and deep cervical)
  • Interstitial pulmonary changes or nodules (1 case)

Janvier, V., Evrard, L., Cerri, S., et al. (2016) ULTRASONOGRAPHIC FINDINGS IN 13 HORSES WITH LYMPHOMA. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 65–74

132
Q

Regarding MRI of dogs with suspected DLSS in order to maximize foraminal narrowing?

  • Which position and image acquisition plane maximized forminal narrowing?
  • Which zone was narrowed most in each position?
A
  • Neuroforaminal area was smallest in an oblique sagittal plane acquired perpendicular to the nerve root when the dog was in a hyperextended position
  • Middle zone was smallest in both positions and imaging planes
    • Exit zone narrower than entry in hyperextension; larger in neutral

Zindl, C., Tucker, R.L., Jovanovik, J., et al. (2017) Effects of Image Plane, Patient Positioning, and Foraminal Zone on Magnetic Resonance Imaging Measurements of Canine Lumbosacral Intervertebral Foramina. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 58, 206–215

133
Q

Name the numbered images (HORSE TARSUS)

doi: 10.1111/vru.12444

A

Lateral is to the right and plantar to the top.

  1. SDFT
  2. lateral digital flexor tendon
  3. medial digital flexor tendon;
  4. metatarsocalcaneal ligament
  5. accessory ligament of the suspensory ligament (SL)
  6. long plantar ligament inserting on the fourth metatarsal bone (MtIV)
  7. vessel
  8. interosseous ligament between the third and the MtIV bones

Arrows: accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon

134
Q

Regarding ultrasound of the lumbosacral nerves in horses:

  • How is this performed and which nerves are identifiable?
  • What findings were described regarding nerve size?
A
  • Transrectal approach, can evaluate L6-S2
  • Wide ranges of sizes of nerves but without significant differences from left to right. Thus side-to-side comparison within the same patient is recommended if pathology is suspected.
  • L6 > S1 for most sex and age groups
  • S2 was significantly smaller than L6 and S1
135
Q

Regarding CT characteristics of thyroids glands in hyperthyroid cats pre- and post-initiation of treatment with methimazole:

  • What significant differences were noted between hyperthyroid cats pre- and post-treatment?
  • What significant differences were noted between normal cats and hyperthyroid cats?
  • Was there an association between any CT feature and methimazole dose?
A
  • Methimazole treatment led to decreased heterogeneity and attenuation of the thyroid gland WITHOUT a change in size.
  • Hyperthyroid cats had larger thyroid glands (suggested width cut-off: 4mm) than normal cats
    • No difference in attenuation hyperT4 and normal cats
  • Positive association between thyroid gland size and dose of methimazole required to achieve euthyroidism

Bush, J.L., Nemanic, S., Gordon, J., et al. (2016) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTICS OF THE THYROID GLANDS IN EIGHT HYPERTHYROID CATS PRE- AND POSTMETHIMAZOLE TREATMENT COMPARED WITH SEVEN EUTHYROID CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 176–185

136
Q

Regarding thoracic radiographs in rats:

  • What findings were associated with neoplasia?
  • What findings were associated with infectious disease?
  • What signalment characteristics favored neoplasia over infectious disease?
A
  • What findings were associated with neoplasia?
    • Cranial mediastinal mass
  • What findings were associated with infectious disease?
    • Alveolar pulmonary pattern/atelectasis with mediastinal shift/nodules (abscesses)
  • What signalment characteristics favored neoplasia over infectious disease?
    • None.
  • Pleural effusion seen with both

Fouriez-Lablée, V., Vergneau-Grosset, C., Kass, P.H., et al. (2017) COMPARISON BETWEEN THORACIC RADIOGRAPHIC FINDINGS AND POSTMORTEM DIAGNOSIS OF THORACIC DISEASES IN DYSPNEIC COMPANION RATS ( RATTUS NORVEGICUS). Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 133–143

137
Q

Assessment of sentinel lymph node metastasis in canine mammary gland tumors using CT lymphography:

  • What lymphographic features showed the highest sensitivity and specificity for LN metastasis?
  • What morphologic features of the SLN were suggestive of malignancy and what was the se/sp of this finding?
A
  • Absence of opacification or heterogeneous opacification were 93% sensitive and 100% specific for metastasis of the SLN
    • HU < 444 in the middle of the SLN was an accurate criterion
  • Increased size and shape had low sensitivity and specificity
    • Cut-off of 1 cm diameter ~81% sens / 64% spec

Soultani, C., Patsikas, M.N., Karayannopoulou, M., et al. (2017) ASSESSMENT OF SENTINEL LYMPH NODE METASTASIS IN CANINE MAMMARY GLAND TUMORS USING COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC INDIRECT LYMPHOGRAPHY. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 186–196

138
Q

CTEU and MIPs for diagnosing ectopic ureters in dogs

  • What sequences were available for review?
  • Which sequences allowed greatest reader confidence?
  • How good was inter-observer agreement?
  • Was there any difference in accuracy between the sequences?
A
  • Transverse images (slice thickness 2-3mm); MIPs made of 2-, 5-, and 10-slice slabs were available for review
  • 2- and 5-slab MIPs had highest reader confidence
  • Good interobserver agreement on all methods
  • Improved diagnostic accuracy with MIP images over transverse images when read by radiologist (otherwise similar)

Secrest, S., Bugbee, A., Waller, K.R., et al. (2017) COMPARISON OF TRANSVERSE COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC EXCRETORY UROGRAPHY IMAGES AND MAXIMUM INTENSITY PROJECTION IMAGES FOR DIAGNOSING ECTOPIC URETERS IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 163–168

139
Q

What is illustrated in the sagittal single-shot turbo spin echo (SSTSE) image in a dachshund with acute pelvic limb paralysis?

What is the proposed cut-off for the disease process?

A

Attenuation of the subarachnoid fluid, either due to spinal cord swelling of changes to the fluid composition related to myelomalacia.

The CSF:L2SSTSE ratio is small (1.9), which makes it unlikely that this dog has myelomalacia. Proposed cut-off = 7.4

Gilmour, L.J., Jeffery, N.D., Miles, K., et al. (2017) SINGLE-SHOT TURBO SPIN ECHO PULSE SEQUENCE FINDINGS IN DOGS WITH AND WITHOUT PROGRESSIVE MYELOMALACIA. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 197–205

140
Q

What is a chordoma and where does it occur?

A

Neoplasm arising from remnants of the primitive notochord

Dogs: dermis, meninges (adjacent to cerebellar fossa), spinal cord, and cervical vertebrae

Cats: skeletal muscle, coccygeal vertebrae, and skull base

141
Q

What are the MRI features of spinal lymphoma?

  • Signal characteristics
  • Distribution/location
A
  • Signal characteristics: T2w-hyper, STIR hyper(!!), T1w hypo- to iso, moderate to strong CE
  • Distribution: multifocal, vertebral involvement (medullary only, no lysis), multiple spinal compartments (bone, vertebral canal, paraspinal soft tissues)
  • Spinal cord compression

Allett, B. & Hecht, S. (2016) MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FINDINGS IN THE SPINE OF SIX DOGS DIAGNOSED WITH LYMPHOMA. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 154–161

142
Q

MRI of small ruminants with brain disease

  • What diseases were identified to have MRI abnormalities?
A
  • Four types: polioencephalomalacia, enterotoxemia, listeric encephalitis, abscess (dural or intra-axial)
  • Listeric encephalitis = focal brainstem lesions

Ertelt, K., Oevermann, A., Precht, C., et al. (2016) MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FINDINGS IN SMALL RUMINANTS WITH BRAIN DISEASE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 162–169

143
Q

What is the likely cause of the abnormalities in this goat?

Summarize the findings described in this case.

A

Bilaterally symmetric T2w-hyperintensity of the cerebral and cerebellar gray matter with moderate CE of the gray matter lesions and the leptomeninges.

Dx: polioencephalomalacia

Ertelt, K., Oevermann, A., Precht, C., et al. (2016) MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FINDINGS IN SMALL RUMINANTS WITH BRAIN DISEASE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 162–169

144
Q

What is the likely cause of the MRI abnormalities in this lamb?

Summarize the reported findings.

A
  • Bilaterally symmetrical lesions of the basal nuclei, thalamus, midbrain, and brainstem.
  • Variably T2w-hyperintense +/- hypointense peripherally
  • T1w hypointense in one; mixed hypo + hyperintense in another
  • Dx: enterotoxemia – severe generalized vasogenic edema

Ertelt, K., Oevermann, A., Precht, C., et al. (2016) MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FINDINGS IN SMALL RUMINANTS WITH BRAIN DISEASE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 162–169

145
Q

What is the likely cause of the abnormalities in this goat?

A

Listeriosis

146
Q

Regarding CT characteristics of the middle ear and soft palate in brachycephalic dogs:

  • What findings related to the middle ear were significantly different between brachys and normal dogs?
  • What were the significant findings regarding the soft palate?
A
  • Brachycephalics have a thicker, smaller (volume) bulla, and were more likely to have fluid in the bulla (36% vs 0%).
  • Brachycephalics with middle ear fluid had thicker soft palates than no fluid AND normal dogs

Salgüero, R., Herrtage, M., Holmes, M., et al. (2016) COMPARISON BETWEEN COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTICS OF THE MIDDLE EAR IN NONBRACHYCEPHALIC AND BRACHYCEPHALIC DOGS WITH OBSTRUCTIVE AIRWAY SYNDROME. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 137–143

147
Q

Regarding the injection of gelified ethanol into the nucleus pulposus:

  • Which site was injected? What was the dose?
  • How did the material appear on post-injection CT and MRI?
  • What complications were noted?
A
  • Site: L7-S1, 0.8ml/disc
  • Well-visualized on CT (radiopaque material)
  • MRI: hypointense region within NP on T2w images
  • 3/9 dogs had immediate leakage into the vertebral canal
    • 1 additional dog had leakage noted at 1 year-post
  • No clinical adverse reactions
  • 1 dog had progressive degeneration of the LS disc, but it is unclear whether this was related to the injection

doi: 10.1111/vru.12316

148
Q

Regarding CT-guided epidural and intra-articular injections of the lumbar spine:

  • What are the three techniques that were used?
  • What was the relative success, accuracy, and difficulty of each technique?
A
  • Translaminar: 100% success, 75% accurate, easy
  • Transforaminal: 75% success, 75% accurate, moderately difficult
  • Facet joint injection: 62% success, 35-65% accurate depending on size of the joint, moderately difficult

Liotta, A., Sandersen, C., Couvreur, T., et al. (2015) TECHNIQUE, DIFFICULTY, AND ACCURACY OF COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY-GUIDED TRANSLAMINAR AND TRANSFORAMINAL LUMBOSACRAL EPIDURAL AND INTRAARTICULAR LUMBAR FACET JOINT INJECTIONS IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 191–198

149
Q

What are the pros and cons of translaminar and transforaminal injections of the LS spine?

Liotta, A., Sandersen, C., Couvreur, T., et al. (2015) TECHNIQUE, DIFFICULTY, AND ACCURACY OF COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY-GUIDED TRANSLAMINAR AND TRANSFORAMINAL LUMBOSACRAL EPIDURAL AND INTRAARTICULAR LUMBAR FACET JOINT INJECTIONS IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 191–198

A
  • Translaminar
    • Pros: may treat bilateral disease with 1 injection and may reach adjacent spinal segments
    • Cons: increased risk of dural puncture
  • Transforaminal
    • Pros: most target-specific (lateralized disc or nerve root compression)
    • Cons: increased risk of vascular puncture
150
Q
  1. Age the following lesions.
  2. What is creating the appearance of A and C?
  3. Where is B located?
A
  1. Age the following lesions.

A: Late subacute; B: Acute; C: Acute

  1. What is creating the appearance of A and C?

A: hypointense halo caused by clot retraction over time

C: hematocrit effect – hypodense fluid = serum and hyperdense material = concentrated RBCs

  1. Where is B located? Epidural hemorrhage
151
Q

What is the typical appearance of subdural hemorrhage vs. epidural hemorrhage?

A
  • Subdural: crescent-shaped, can cross suture lines but is limited by falx and tentorium
  • Epidural: bi-convex (lens-shaped), can cross dural folds but NOT sutures
152
Q

Age this hemorrhage (T1 and T2 sequences)

A

Acute (~48 hours)

Parizel, P.M., Makkat, S., Van Miert, E., et al. (2001) Intracranial hemorrhage: Principles of CT and MRI interpretation. European Radiology 11, 1770–1783

153
Q

Describe the evolution of intracranial hemorrhage over time on CT and MRI

A
154
Q

For each of the blood products related to intracranial hemorrhage, which products are diamagnetic, paramagnetic, and superparamagnetic?

A
  • Diamagnetic: oxyHb
  • Paramagnetic: deoxyHb and metHb
  • Superparamagnetic: hemosiderin and ferritin

Parizel, P.M., Makkat, S., Van Miert, E., et al. (2001) Intracranial hemorrhage: Principles of CT and MRI interpretation. European Radiology 11, 1770–1783

155
Q

Describe the CT appearance of the a non-hemorrhagic cerebral infarct and its evolution over time.

A
  • Peracute (3 - 6 hrs): slight hypoattenuation and subtle mass effect which peaks at 3 - 5 days and resolves at 2 - 3 weeks.  
  • Contrast enhancement usually seen ~ 7-10 days post-infarction at periphery of lesion.
  • Chronic (3 - 4 weeks): hypodensity is sharply-marginated with no contrast enhancement.
156
Q

Regarding the canine pituitary gland:

  • What is the normal size?
  • What is a normal PB ratio and how is it calculated?
  • What is the optimal window width and level for assessment?

What is the normal size of a feline pituitary gland?

A
  • What is the normal size? 4mm H x 6mm W
  • What is a normal PB ratio and how is it calculated?
    • Pituitary gland height (mm) x 100 / brain area (mm2)
    • Normal < 0.3
  • What is the optimal window width and level?
    • WL: 80; WW: 250
  • Normal cat pituitary: 3 mm H x 5mm W
157
Q

What is the pituitary flush? What does absence of the pituitary flush indicate?

A

Pituitary flush: neurohypophysis receives direct arterial blood supply from the internal carotid artery by way of interconnecting arteries, which leads to intense enhancement of the center of the pituitary gland that lasts 30-50s

Displacement of the PF is suggestive of adenoma.

Van Der Vlugt-Meijer, R.H., Meij, B.P., Van Den Ingh, T.S.G.A.M., et al. (2003) Dynamic Computed Tomography of the Pituitary Gland in Dogs with Pituitary-Dependent Hyperadrenocorticism. Journal of Veterinary Internal Medicine 17, 773–780

158
Q

What is the difference between a cholesteatoma and a cholesterol granuloma?

A
  • Cholesteatoma = epidermoid cyst; CG = reactive FB granuloma
  • MRI:
    • Cholesteatoma = T1-hypo, no signal void
    • CG = T1-hyper; often will have signal void
  • No contrast enhancement
159
Q

What are the CT features of nasal aspergillosis in dogs?

A
  • Moderate to severe cavitary destruction of the turbinates with presence of a variable amount of abnormal soft tissue in the nasal passages
  • Mucosal thickening or non-enhancing soft tissue material in the frontal sinuses
  • Hyperostosis, less commonly lysis
  • Uncommon: lysis of the cribriform plate

Saunders, J.H., Zonderland, J.L., Clercx, C., et al. (2002) Computed tomographic findings in 35 dogs with nasal aspergillosis. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 43, 5–9

160
Q

Regarding nasopharyngeal polyps in cats:

  • What are the typical CT features?
  • What is the significance of the superficial stroma?
A
  • CT features:
    • Hypoattenuating to muscle; isoattenuating to soft tissue
    • Rim enhancement
    • Pedunculated with a stalk through the auditory tube to the affected bulla
    • Complete or partial obliteration of bulla lumen with ST attenuating material
    • Expansion and thickening of the bulla wall
    • MRLNpathy commonly ipsilateral, can be bilateral
  • Rim enhancement is positively correlated to inflammation of the superficial stroma and negatively correlated to edema in the superficial stroma

Oliveira, C.R., O’Brien, R.T., MATHESON, J.S., et al. (2012) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC FEATURES OF FELINE NASOPHARYNGEAL POLYPS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 53, 406–411

Lamb, C.R., Sibbing, K. & Priestnall, S.L. (2016) PATHOLOGIC BASIS FOR RIM ENHANCEMENT OBSERVED IN COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC IMAGES OF FELINE NASOPHARYNGEAL POLYPS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 130–136

161
Q

Regarding CT assessment of laryngeal and tracheal dimensions in brachycephalic dogs:

  • What breeds had a different shape of the cricoid cartilage and what was that shape?
  • In which breeds was the transverse sectional area of the cricoid smallest?
  • Was there a significant different in cricoid TSA between brachycephalic dogs with BAS and those without?
  • What was the significant finding related to cricoid TSA and weight?
A
  • What breeds had a different shape of the cricoid cartilage and what was that shape?
    • Pug and Frenchies had OVAL-shaped cricoid
  • In which breeds was the transverse sectional area of the cricoid smallest?
    • Pugs, Bostons, Frenchies
  • Was there a significant different in cricoid TSA between brachycephalic dogs with BAS and those without?
    • No
  • What was the significant finding related to cricoid TSA and weight?
    • Brachycephalics had a lower C-TSA to weight ratio than mesaticephalic dogs (i.e., degree of narrowing is related to and should be normalized to weight)

Rutherford, L., Beever, L., Bruce, M., et al. (2017) Assessment of computed tomography derived cricoid cartilage and tracheal dimensions to evaluate degree of cricoid narrowing in brachycephalic dogs. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 634–646

162
Q

Regarding a study comparing CT, rad, and endoscopic tracheal dimensions in Bulldogs with BAS:

  • What are the (previously established) radiographic criteria for tracheal hypoplasia?
  • Where were tracheal diameters most narrow?
  • How did CT measurements of tracheal diameter compare to RX measurements (on average)?
    • Was there a significant correlation between RX and CT measurements for either criteria?
  • How did these compare to tracheoscopy?
A
  • Rads:
    • Tracheal diameter:tracheal inlet ratio (TD:TI) < 0.12
    • Tracheal diameter:third rib diameter ratio (TT:3R) < 2.0
  • Where were tracheal diameters most narrow?
    • Thoracic inlet for all modalities
  • How did CT measurements of tracheal diameter compare to RX measurements (on average)?
    • Overall, 19% larger measurements
  • Was there a significant correlation between RX and CT measurements for either criteria?
    • TD:T1 was significantly correlated between RX and CT
  • How did these compare to tracheoscopy?
    • Poorly. Tracheoscopy identified hypoplasia in all dogs and CT/RX identified none.

Kaye, B.M., Boroffka, S.A.E.B., Haagsman, A.N., et al. (2015) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC, RADIOGRAPHIC, AND ENDOSCOPIC TRACHEAL DIMENSIONS IN ENGLISH BULLDOGS WITH GRADE 1 CLINICAL SIGNS OF BRACHYCEPHALIC AIRWAY SYNDROME. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 609–616

163
Q

What are the radiographic/CT characteristics of cats with pulmonary fibrosis?

A
  • Severe, bilaterally symmetrical bronchointerstitial disease +/- alveolar patterns
  • Pulmonary nodules/masses
  • Bullae
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension;
  • Pleural effusion

Evola, M.G., Edmondson, E.F., Reichle, J.K., et al. (2014) RADIOGRAPHIC AND HISTOPATHOLOGIC CHARACTERISTICS OF PULMONARY FIBROSIS IN NINE CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 55, 133–140

164
Q

Regarding MRI of intracranial inflammatory conditions in dogs:

  • What was the relative sensitivity and specificity for C/C+ images in comparison to digital subtraction images?
  • The difference in sensitivity between C/C+ and DS was primarily due to what abnormalities?
  • What was an unexpected finding in this study and what was the hypothesis to explain this finding?
A
  • Sensitivity
    • C/C+: 48%
    • DS: 65%
  • Detection of additional intra-axial abnormalities was the cause of increased sensitivity on DS images compared to C/C+
  • Unexpected finding: intra-axial contrast enhancement in several dogs classified as having idiopathic epilepsy. This may have been due to misclassification (despite normal CSF) or may indicate leaky BBB in areas affected by neovascularization secondary to seizures

Dirrig, H. & Lamb, C.R. (2016) MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING OF INTRACRANIAL INFLAMMATORY CONDITIONS IN DOGS: SENSITIVITY OF SUBTRACTION IMAGES VERSUS PRE- AND POST-GADOLINIUM T1-WEIGHTED IMAGE PAIRS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 410–416

165
Q

What is the effect of bolus size and consistency on the following:

  • Maximum pharyngeal contraction
  • Time to opening of UES
  • Esophageal transit time
  • Odds of primary peristaltic wave generation
A
  • Maximum pharyngeal contraction: occurred later with medium solid boluses than medium liquid boluses
  • Time to opening of UES: occurred earlier with large solid than medium solid boluses
  • Esophageal transit time: small solid traveled faster than small liquid in the thoracic esophagus
  • Odds of primary peristaltic wave generation: higher odds of primary peristaltic wave with large solid than large liquid

By Pollard, because literally who else cares?

166
Q

How do radiography and CT compare for detection of canine mechanical intestinal obstruction?

A

CT more sensitive for detection but not a significant difference.

Rads more sensitive and specific for recommending surgery, but not significant.

Objective measurements didn’t change recommendation for surgery

Drost, W.T., Green, E.M., Zekas, L.J., et al. (2016) COMPARISON OF COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY AND ABDOMINAL RADIOGRAPHY FOR DETECTION OF CANINE MECHANICAL INTESTINAL OBSTRUCTION. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 366–375

167
Q

Regarding CT measurements of the MPA to aortic diameter ratio in healthy dogs:

  • What is normal on echo?
  • What was the mean MPA:Ao in this study?
  • How was the MPA:Ao ratio affected by phase of respiration and contrast administration?
  • How did CT MPA:Ao compare to echo?
A
  • What is normal on echo? 0.98
  • What was the mean MPA:Ao in this study? 1.1
  • How was the MPA:Ao ratio affected by phase of respiration and contrast administration?
    • Inspiratory > expiratory
      • Inspiration: decreased intra-thoracic pressure –> increased RV filling and stroke volume –> increased flow velocity in the MPA
    • No change with addition of contrast
  • How did CT MPA:Ao compare to echo? All 10 dogs had CT measurements above the echo limit even with the 95% CI, but most (7/10) were WNL when echo’ed

Granger, L.A., PARIAUT, R., Vila, J., et al. (2016) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC MEASUREMENT OF THE MAIN PULMONARY ARTERY TO AORTIC DIAMETER RATIO IN HEALTHY DOGS: A COMPARISON TO ECHOCARDIOGRAPHICALLY DERIVED RATIOS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 376–386

168
Q

In a study of the clinical and MRI characteristics of T-L intervertebral disc extrusions and protrusions in large breed dogs:

  • What clinical variable(s) was/were identified that may differentiate between these processes?
  • What MRI variable(s) was/were identified that may differentiate between these processes?
A
  • Longer duration of clinical signs was associated with protrusion
  • Imaging features:
    • Protrusion: midline material only, partial degeneration of the disc
    • Extrusion: lateralized and/or more extensively distributed material, complete disc desiccation

Gomes, S.A., Volk, H.A., Packer, R.M.A., et al. (2016) CLINICAL AND MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING CHARACTERISTICS OF THORACOLUMBAR INTERVERTEBRAL DISK EXTRUSIONS AND PROTRUSIONS IN LARGE BREED DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 417–426

169
Q

Fractures of the central tarsal bone in horses:

  • What is the typical orientation in racehorses vs. non-racehorses?
  • What view was most helpful for identifying these fractures in non-racehorses?
A
  • What is the typical orientation in racehorses vs. non-racehorses?
    • Racehorses: proximal-distal orientation
    • Non-racehorses: dorsomedial to plantarolateral orientation
  • What view was most helpful for identifying these fractures in non-racehorses? PLDMO

Knuchell, J.A., Spriet, M., Galuppo, L.D., et al. (2016) FRACTURE OF THE CENTRAL TARSAL BONE IN NONRACEHORSES: FOUR CASES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 403–409

170
Q

Describe the abnormality. What is the most likely job of this horse?

A

Slab fracture in a dorsal plane of the central tarsal bone. This is most likely a racehorse.

Murphey, E.D., Schneider, R.K., Adams, S.B., et al. (2000) Long-term outcome of horses with a slab fracture of the central or third tarsal bone treated conservatively: 25 cases (1976-1993). Journal of the American Veterinary Medical Association 216, 1949–1954

171
Q

Identify the following lesions of the equine stifle (A-D)

A

A & B: cranial cruciate ligament tears

C & D: caudal cruciate ligament tears

Nelson, B.B., Kawcak, C.E., Goodrich, L.R., et al. (2016) COMPARISON BETWEEN COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC ARTHROGRAPHY, RADIOGRAPHY, ULTRASONOGRAPHY, AND ARTHROSCOPY FOR THE DIAGNOSIS OF FEMOROTIBIAL JOINT DISEASE IN WESTERN PERFORMANCE HORSES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 387–402

172
Q

Name the injury in this equine stifle

A

DX: cranial medial meniscotibial ligament (CrMMTL) tear

(A) Transverse plane image and (B) dorsal plane CTA image, medial is to the right in both images.

The white arrows correspond to areas of contrast diffusion (hyperattenuation) within the CrMMTL suggestive of a longitudinal tear

173
Q

Comparing CTA, US, RX, and arthroscopy of the equine stifle:

  • The use of CTA detected more defects in what structures than the other methods?
  • CTA was least reliable for what type of defect?
  • CTA and arthroscopy were both better than US at identifying what type of defect in the menisci?
A
  • The use of CTA detected more defects in what structures than the other methods?
    • Cruciate ligaments, SCLs of the proximal tibia, sclerosis of the medial femoral condyle, and ligament entheses
  • CTA was least reliable for what type of defect?
    • Articular cartilage damage on the medial femoral condyle
  • CTA and arthroscopy were both better than US at identifying what type of defect in the menisci?
    • Craniolateral border of the medial meniscus

Nelson, B.B., Kawcak, C.E., Goodrich, L.R., et al. (2016) COMPARISON BETWEEN COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC ARTHROGRAPHY, RADIOGRAPHY, ULTRASONOGRAPHY, AND ARTHROSCOPY FOR THE DIAGNOSIS OF FEMOROTIBIAL JOINT DISEASE IN WESTERN PERFORMANCE HORSES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 387–402

174
Q
  • What is the sensitivity and specificity for identifying resorptive lesions of the teeth in cats?
  • Which teeth were most commonly affected?
  • What part of the tooth was most commonly affected?
  • What slice thickness is recommended?
A
  • Poor sensitivity but excellent specificity
  • Most commonly affected: 307 and 407 in the root or cementoenamel junctions on the buccal side
  • About 1/3 of teeth with lesions had sclerosis of the alveolar bone
  • Use < 1mm slices

Lang, L.G., Wilkinson, T.E., White, T.L., et al. (2016) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY OF TOOTH RESORPTION IN CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 467–474

175
Q

What is the effect of a normal meal vs. a high-fat meal on the ultrasonographic appearance of small intestinal mucosa in healthy dogs?

A
  • Both meals can increase echogenicity at 60-min postprandial
  • High fat meals can increase duodenal echogenicity immediately after ingestion.
  • Hyperechogenicity at 60-min postprandial for both meals may reflect physiologic lacteal dilation.
    • Increased echogenicity immediately after meal is too soon for lacteal dilation so they propose this may be artifactual or represent mixing of food and mucus at the mucosal surface

GASCHEN, L., Granger, L.A., Oubre, O., et al. (2016) THE EFFECTS OF FOOD INTAKE AND ITS FAT COMPOSITION ON INTESTINAL ECHOGENICITY IN HEALTHY DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 546–550

176
Q

Regarding airway pressure applied during breath-hold in dogs undergoing thoracic CT:

  • What is the recommended PP?
  • What range of PP optimized normal aeration of the lungs?
  • What range of PP significantly induced hyperinflation?
A
  • What is the recommended PP? 10-12 cm H2O
  • What range of PP optimized normal aeration of the lungs? 10-15 cm H2​O
  • What range of PP significantly induced hyperinflation? 15 cm H2​O

Guarracino, A., Lacitignola, L., Auriemma, E., et al. (2016) WHICH AIRWAY PRESSURE SHOULD BE APPLIED DURING BREATH-HOLD IN DOGS UNDERGOING THORACIC COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY? Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 475–481

177
Q

In a study of stifle OA in horses:

  • Where were the most lesions located?
  • What findings differed from previous publications regarding the radiographic features of stifle OA?
  • What were the findings regarding subchondral bone mineral density?
A
  • Most osteophytes were found in the medial femorotibial joint
  • Subchondral sclerosis and flattening of the femoral condyle were poorly sensitive and specific
  • Lower BMD with OA

De Lasalle, J., Alexander, K., Olive, J., et al. (2016) COMPARISONS AMONG RADIOGRAPHY, ULTRASONOGRAPHY AND COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY FOR EX VIVO CHARACTERIZATION OF STIFLE OSTEOARTHRITIS IN THE HORSE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 489–501

178
Q

In a study of articular cartilage thickness measurements in the equine MCPJ:

  • What was the only region in which a statistical correlation was found between measured cartilage thickness on MRI and dissection?
  • On which MRI sequences were the measurements closest?
A
  • Dorsal or palmar aspect of the MCPJ
  • Best sequences: SPGR-FS and PD-FS

Porter, E.G., Winter, M.D., Sheppard, B.J., et al. (2016) CORRELATION OF ARTICULAR CARTILAGE THICKNESS MEASUREMENTS MADE WITH MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING, MAGNETIC RESONANCE ARTHROGRAPHY, AND COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC ARTHROGRAPHY WITH GROSS ARTICULAR CARTILAGE THICKNESS IN THE EQUINE METACARPOPHALANGEAL JOINT. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 515–525

179
Q

Ex vivo correlation of small intestinal wall layering with histology in dogs:

  • Discuss the variations in sonographic appearance between these sections of bowel (top left = ileum, bottom left = duodenum, right = jejunum)
  • What was the conclusion of this paper vis-a-vis correlation with histology?
A

Top left: Peyer’s patches in the ileum

Bottom left: dual mucosal echogencity; hyperechoic portion = villi and hypoechoic portion = lamina propria

Right: Hyperechoic band separating the interface bettwen the inner circular layer and outer longitudinal muscular layers

Overall no significant differences between US and histo

Le Roux, A.B., Granger, L.A., Wakamatsu, N., et al. (2016) EX VIVO CORRELATION OF ULTRASONOGRAPHIC SMALL INTESTINAL WALL LAYERING WITH HISTOLOGY IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 534–545

180
Q

What are the radiographic features of canine influenza?

A
  • Most common: cranioventral unstructured interstitial and alveolar pulmonary patterns with multiple lobes affected
    • One patient had a caudodorsal unstructured interstitial pattern initially, but this settled into a cranioventral distribution after a few days
  • 1/6 dogs had pleural effusion
  • NO lymphadenopathy or mediastinal changes
181
Q

Ex vivo CT evaluation of morphology variations in equine cervical vertebrae

  • Define homeotic and homologous variation.
  • What was the most common type of variant? What was the prevalence of this variant?
  • What other variants were seen?
A
  • Homeotic: change in number in one section without a change in the overall vertebral count (e.g., transitional vertebra)
  • Homologous: change in a subunit of one vertebra without a change in the traditional number or identity of the vertebra (e.g., transposition of the caudal part of the transverse process of C6 onto C7)
  • Most common: homologous variation listed above – 33% of the population
  • Atlanto-occipital fusion, rudimentary first ribs, and bilateral transverse processes at T1 (all homeotic)

Veraa, S., Bergmann, W., van den Belt, A.-J., et al. (2016) EX VIVO COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC EVALUATION OF MORPHOLOGY VARIATIONS IN EQUINE CERVICAL VERTEBRAE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 482–488

182
Q

Images obtained from 3 different horses at C7.

A

(A) Normal vertebral anatomy

(B) Unilateral left-sided presence of a ventral protuberance at the transverse process of C7 (arrow) in concurrence with a vertebral foramen at the base of the transverse process (asterisk)

(C) Bilateral presence of a ventral protuberance at the transverse process of C7 (arrows).

Veraa, S., Bergmann, W., van den Belt, A.-J., et al. (2016) EX VIVO COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC EVALUATION OF MORPHOLOGY VARIATIONS IN EQUINE CERVICAL VERTEBRAE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 482–488

183
Q
  • What ratio is used to predict chronic bronchitis in dogs on CT?
  • What is the cut-off?
  • Where is this measured?
A
  • Bronchial wall:pulmonary artery diameter
  • > 0.6 indicates wall thickening with 77% sensitivity and 100% specificity
  • Measured in the cranial lung lobes

Szabo, D., Sutherland-Smith, J., Barton, B.A., et al. (2014) ACCURACY OF A COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY BRONCHIAL WALL THICKNESS TO PULMONARY ARTERY DIAMETER RATIO FOR ASSESSING BRONCHIAL WALL THICKENING IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 264–271

184
Q

Although there is significant overlap, what clinical and imaging findings may help differentiate eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy (EBP) and eosinophilic pulmonary granulomatosis (EPG)?

A

EPG is differentiated by:

  • more severe clinical signs
  • presence of multiple masses of various sizes that tend to obliterate the normal pulmonary architecture
    • heterogeneous, honeycomb-like enhancement pattern characterized by multiple non-enhancing, hypoattenuating areas (NOTE: also seen in 1 dog with EBP)
  • poorer prognosis
  • However it is uncertain if eosinophilic pulmonary granulomatosis represents a progressive form of EBP or a different disease

Fina, C., Vignoli, M., Terragni, R., et al. (2014) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTICS OF EOSINOPHILIC PULMONARY GRANULOMATOSIS IN FIVE DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 55, 16–22

Mesquita, L., Lam, R., Lamb, C.R., et al. (2014) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC FINDINGS IN 15 DOGS WITH EOSINOPHILIC BRONCHOPNEUMOPATHY. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 33–39

185
Q

Common measurements for the lungs in dogs and cats:

  • Bronchial wall thickening (dogs)
  • Bronchial lumen dilatation (dogs & cats)
  • MPA enlargement in pulmonary hypertension
  • Proposed cutoff for HU in dogs with IPF
A
  • Bronchial wall thickening (dogs1): > 0.6
  • Bronchial lumen dilatation (dogs2 & cats3)
    • Dogs: BA > 2
    • Cats: BA > 0.9
  • Pulmonary trunk enlargement in pulmonary hypertension4
    • Moderate to severe PHT > 1.4
  • Proposed cutoff for HU in dogs with IPF5
    • ​All dogs > -702 HU were affected

  1. Cannon, M.S., Wisner, E.R., Johnson, L.R., et al. (2009) Computed tomography bronchial lumen to pulmonary artery diameter ratio in dogs without clinical pulmonary disease. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 50, 622–624
  2. Cannon, M.S., Johnson, L.R., Pesavento, P.A., et al. (2013) QUANTITATIVE AND QUALITATIVE COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTICS OF BRONCHIECTASIS IN 12 DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 54, 351–357
  3. Reid, L.E., Ray Dillon, A., Hathcock, J.T., et al. (2011) HIGH-RESOLUTION COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY BRONCHIAL LUMEN TO PULMONARY ARTERY DIAMETER RATIO IN ANESTHETIZED VENTILATED CATS WITH NORMAL LUNGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 53, 34–37
  4. Sutherland-Smith, J., Hankin, E.J., Cunningham, S.M., et al. (2018) Comparison of a computed tomographic pulmonary trunk to aorta diameter ratio with echocardiographic indices of pulmonary hypertension in dogs. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 59, 18–26
  5. Thierry, F., Handel, I., Hammond, G., et al. (2017) Further characterization of computed tomographic and clinical features for staging and prognosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis in West Highland white terriers. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 58, 381–388
186
Q

What is the normal appearance of the canine pancreas on dual-phase CT angiography?

A
  • Arterial phase: pancreas enhances greatly and is hyperattenuating to the liver 
  • Venous phase: pancreas is slightly hypoattenuating to the liver
  • Delay phase: pancreas is hypoattenuating to the liver

Cáceres, A. V., Zwingenberger, A.L., Hardam, E., et al. (2006) Helical computed tomographic angiography of the normal canine pancreas. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 47, 270–278

187
Q

Regarding dual-phase CT of hepatic and splenic masses:

  • What were the distinguishing features of malignant masses?
  • What were the common imaging features of most of the hepatic masses in this study?
  • Describe the typical features of splenic nodular hyperplasia, hematoma, and hemangiosarcoma
A
  • No CT features were significantly associated with malignant masses
  • What were the common imaging features of most of the hepatic masses in this study?
    • Heterogeneous compared to normal liver pre-C
    • Marked, generalized CE in early (portal) phase and delay phase
  • Describe the typical features of splenic nodular hyperplasia, hematoma, and hemangiosarcoma
    • Most splenic masses were heterogeneous pre-C
    • NH + HSA: marked, generalized CE in early phase and delay phase
    • Hematoma: most had slight CE in early phase, and all had CE in delay phase

Jones, I.D., Lamb, C.R., Drees, R., et al. (2016) ASSOCIATIONS BETWEEN DUAL-PHASE COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY FEATURES AND HISTOPATHOLOGIC DIAGNOSES IN 52 DOGS WITH HEPATIC OR SPLENIC MASSES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 144–153

188
Q

Regarding the CT features of lipomatous masses in dogs:

  • What features differentiate lipomas from infiltrative lipomas?
  • What features differentiate liposarcomas?
A
  • Lipoma: round or ovoid, well-marginated, fat attenuating, non-CE
  • Infiltrative lipoma: homogeneous, fat-attenuating, non-CE but with irregular shape and linear hyperattenuating components
  • Liposarcomas: heterogeneous, primarily soft-tissue attenuating with some foci of fat, CE, nodular masses +/- mineralization or regional lymphadenopathy

Tumor definition and shape were most useful for differentiating lipoma vs. infiltrative lipoma

Soft tissue, heterogeneous mass with mineralization and regional lymphadenopathy was useful for liposarcoma

Spoldi, E., Schwarz, T., Sabattini, S., et al. (2017) Comparisons Among Computed Tomographic Features of Adipose Masses in Dogs and Cats. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 58, 29–37

189
Q

Contrast-enhanced ultrasound of the distal limb in horses:

  • How were injections performed?
  • Were there any adverse reactions?
  • What method achieved the best CE?
A
  • IV (jugular v.) and IA (lateral palmar digital a.) injections – IA resulted in improved CE
  • No clinical relevant adverse effects, but changes included:
    • Increased RR
    • Increased BP
    • Profoundly increased sedation (unclear if related or not)

Seiler, G.S., Campbell, N., Nixon, B., et al. (2016) FEASIBILITY AND SAFETY OF CONTRAST-ENHANCED ULTRASOUND IN THE DISTAL LIMB OF SIX HORSES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 282–289

190
Q

Name the labeled structures in this transverse section (at the level of the coronary band)

A
  1. P2
  2. Navicular bone
  3. Dorsal recess of the DIPJ
  4. Common digital extensor tendon
  5. Coronal cushion
  6. Collateral (ungular) cartilage
191
Q

Ultrasound-guided injection of the collateral ligaments of the DIPJ in horses:

  • How successful was this procedure?
  • What were the most commonly injected portions of the ligaments?
  • Which periligamentous structures were also commonly injected?
A
  • Almost 100% successful
  • What were the most commonly injected portions of the ligaments? Proximal and mid-portions
  • Which periligamentous structures were also commonly injected? DIPJ, common digital extensor tendon, coronal cushion, and rarely the collateral cartilage

Lewis, D., Scott, M., Fischer, C.D., et al. (2016) FEASIBILITY FOR ULTRASOUND-GUIDED INJECTION OF THE COLLATERAL LIGAMENTS OF THE DISTAL INTERPHALANGEAL JOINT IN HORSES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 299–305

192
Q

CT of melanomas in horses:

  • A median of ___ melanoma lesions were identified in each horse
  • What were the typical locations of melanoma?
  • What was the typical appearance?
  • What is the authors’ theory about why melanomas have the characteristic appearance that they have?
A
  • A median of 11 lesions were identified in each horse
  • What were the typical locations of melanoma?
    • Parotid SG, guttural pouch, surrounding the larynx and pharynx, and adjacent to the hyoid apparatus
  • What was the typical appearance?
    • Hyperattenuating to the masseter muscle; average HU 113
    • About 25% were partially mineralized
    • About 20% contained hypoattenuating regions likely representing necrosis
  • What is the authors’ theory about why melanomas have the characteristic appearance that they have?
    • Melanin has a high affinity for binding metal ions; the high atomic number of these theoretical ions would increase the attenuation of the melanomas

Dixon, J., Smith, K.C., Perkins, J., et al. (2016) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF MELANOMAS IN THE EQUINE HEAD: 13 CASES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 246–252

193
Q

Regarding anatomical variations of C6 in horses:

  • What was the prevalence and in which breed was it most common? Was there a sex predilection?
  • Was there a correlation between anatomical variation and intravertebral sagittal ratio?
  • What was the association between anatomical variation and the presence of arthritis and/or cervical pain?
A
  • What was the prevalence and in which breed was it most common? Was there a sex predilection?
    • Prevalence: 25% and most often in WBs
    • No sex predilection
  • Was there a correlation between anatomical variation and intravertebral sagittal ratio?
    • No significant difference in the measured IVSR but significantly more horses with anomalous C6 had IVSR < 0.5
  • What was the association between anatomical variation and the presence of arthritis and/or cervical pain?
    • No association with OA but positive association with cervical pain

DeRouen, A., Spriet, M. & Aleman, M. (2016) PREVALENCE OF ANATOMICAL VARIATION OF THE SIXTH CERVICAL VERTEBRA AND ASSOCIATION WITH VERTEBRAL CANAL STENOSIS AND ARTICULAR PROCESS OSTEOARTHRITIS IN THE HORSE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 253–258

194
Q

CT of TMJ in asymptomatic horses:

  • What was the prevalence of CT anatomical variation?
  • What alterations were seen in horses <1 yr?
  • What alterations were seen in older horses?
A
  • What was the prevalence of CT anatomical variation?
    • 40% of horses had variants
  • What alterations were seen in horses <1 yr?
    • Alterations in shape and density
  • What alterations were seen in older horses?
    • Spherical hypodensities (cysts) – but they also say that this was not age-related so ¯_(ツ)_/¯
    • Dystrophic mineralization of the articular disc
    • Irregularity of the medial aspect of the condyle at the insertion of the lateral pterygoid muscle (enthesiophytes?)

Carmalt, J.L., Kneissl, S., Rawlinson, J.E., et al. (2016) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF THE TEMPOROMANDIBULAR JOINT IN 1018 ASYMPTOMATIC HORSES: A MULTI-INSTITUTION STUDY. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 237–245

195
Q
  • What is the prevalence of supracollicular fluid accumulation (SFA) in dogs?
  • What are the three patterns of SFA?
  • What concomitant, breed-related malformation was seen in 20% of the dogs with SFA?
  • What is illustrated by the arrow in this image?
A
  • What is the prevalence of supracollicular fluid accumulation (SFA) in dogs?
    • 2%
  • What are the three patterns of SFA?
    • Third ventricle (most common)
    • Quadrigeminal cistern (least common)
    • TV + QC
  • What concomitant, breed-related malformation was seen in 20% of the dogs with SFA?
    • Occipital dysplasia
  • What is illustrated by the arrow in this image?
    • Thin septation between the 3rd ventricle and the quadrigeminal cistern, showing there is no communication between these compartments

Bertolini, G., Ricciardi, M. & Caldin, M. (2016) MULTIDETECTOR COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC AND LOW-FIELD MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING ANATOMY OF THE QUADRIGEMINAL CISTERN AND CHARACTERIZATION OF SUPRACOLLICULAR FLUID ACCUMULATIONS IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 57, 259–268

196
Q

Comparing RX, US, and MRI for the detection of shoulder OC/OCD in dogs:

  • Which modality had the highest sensitivity? Highest specificity? Accuracy?
  • What RX views were most useful?
  • What MR sequences were most useful?
A
  • Which modality had the highest sensitivity? Highest specificity? Accuracy?
    • MRI = highest sensitivity and accuracy
      • Then US > RX
    • RX = highest specificity
  • What RX views were most useful?
    • Mediolateral view with supination and/or pronation in addition to neutral positioning
  • What MR sequences were most useful?
    • Sagittal T2w FS and/or PD FS FSE

Wall, C.R., COOK, C.R. & COOK, J.L. (2014) DIAGNOSTIC SENSITIVITY OF RADIOGRAPHY, ULTRASONOGRAPHY, AND MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FOR DETECTING SHOULDER OSTEOCHONDROSIS/OSTEOCHONDRITIS DISSECANS IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 3–11

197
Q

What are the structures indicated by arrows in this image? What is the clinical significance of this finding?

A

Tympanic bone spicules (likely hyperostotic type).

Small spicules are likely a normal age-related change and it is likely that HTBS develop from these normal smaller spicules

Parzefall, B., Rieger, A., Volk, H.A., et al. (2015) PREVALENCE AND CHARACTERIZATION OF SMALL TYMPANIC BONE SPICULES AND DRUMSTICK-LIKE HYPEROSTOTIC TYMPANIC BONE SPICULES IN THE MIDDLE EAR CAVITY OF DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 25–32

198
Q

Regarding the effects of fluid and CT technical factors on the conspicuity of canine and feline nasal turbinates:

  • What was the overall effect of submerging the skull in water?
  • Which kernel resulted in the best visibility of the nasal turbinates?
A
  • What was the overall effect of submerging the skull in water?
    • Decreased conspicuity of the turbinates in all subjects
  • Which kernel resulted in the best visibility of the nasal turbinates?
    • Air-filled nasal passages: high-frequency kernels
    • Fluid-filled nasal passages: medium-frequency kernels

Uosyte, R., Shaw, D.J., Gunn-Moore, D.A., et al. (2015) EFFECTS OF FLUID AND COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC TECHNICAL FACTORS ON CONSPICUITY OF CANINE AND FELINE NASAL TURBINATES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 494–502

199
Q
  • What was the prevalence of caudal aberrant turbinates in a group of 40 clinically healthy Bulldogs?
  • What type of CATs were not identified in this group?
  • Was the presence of CATs correlated with age, sex, or weight?
A
  • What was the prevalence of caudal aberrant turbinates in a group of 40 clinically healthy Bulldogs?
    • 100%
  • What type of CATs were not identified in this group?
    • No nasopharyngeal CATs
  • Was the presence of CATs correlated with age, sex, or weight?
    • No

Vilaplana Grosso, F., Haar, G. Ter & Boroffka, S.A.E.B.E.B. (2015) GENDER, WEIGHT, AND AGE EFFECTS ON PREVALENCE OF CAUDAL ABERRANT NASAL TURBINATES IN CLINICALLY HEALTHY ENGLISH BULLDOGS: A COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC STUDY AND CLASSIFICATION. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 486–493

200
Q

What was the proposed classification scheme for caudal aberrant nasal turbinates in Bulldogs that was proposed Vilaplana Grosso, et al (2015)

A

Grade 1: turbinates in the ventral meatus rostral to the nasopharyngeal meatus starts

Grade 2: turbinates in the nasopharyngeal meatus but not the choanae

Grade 3 : turbinates in the choanae, but not past the caudal termination of the nasal septum

Grade 4: turbinates in the nasopharynx (none seen in this study)

Vilaplana Grosso, F., Haar, G. Ter & Boroffka, S.A.E.B.E.B. (2015) GENDER, WEIGHT, AND AGE EFFECTS ON PREVALENCE OF CAUDAL ABERRANT NASAL TURBINATES IN CLINICALLY HEALTHY ENGLISH BULLDOGS: A COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC STUDY AND CLASSIFICATION. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 486–493

201
Q

Regarding the appearance of muscular metastasis on CT:

  • What was the typical appearance of muscular metastatic lesions?
  • Where were they most commonly located?
  • What was different about metastatic lesions in the myocardium?
A
  • What was the typical appearance of muscular metastatic lesions?
    • Well-defined, oval to round, isodense pre- and contrast-enhancing post C+ (homogeneous/heterogeneous/ring)
  • Where were they most commonly located?
    • Epaxial/paraspinal muscles > thoracic wall > scapula/shoulder = hind limb > abdominal wall
  • What was different about metastatic lesions in the myocardium?
    • Isodense pre-C, hypodense post-C

Vignoli, M., Terragni, R., Rossi, F., et al. (2013) WHOLE BODY COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTICS OF SKELETAL AND CARDIAC MUSCULAR METASTATIC NEOPLASIA IN DOGS AND CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 54, 223–230

202
Q

Carotid body paragangliomas:

  • What is the typical CT and MRI appearance?
  • Where do these occur and what type of receptor are they associated with?
  • What is the most common presenting complaint?
  • What is the typical signalment?
A
  • What is the typical CT and MRI appearance?
    • CT: isodense to muscle often extends toward and sometimes invades through the base of the skull or bullae
    • MRI: T2w AND T1 hyper to muscle
    • Strongly, heterogeneously CE on both
    • Variable margination
    • Often entraps external carotid, sometimes invades jugular, maxillary, and linguofacial veins
  • Where do these occur and what type of receptor are they associated with?
    • Bifurcation of the common carotid
    • Chemoreceptors
  • What is the most common presenting complaint?
    • Cervical mass, dyspnea
    • Less common: Horner’s, head tilt, facial nerve paralysis, dysphagia
  • What is the typical signalment?
    • Older, MC, Boston
203
Q

What is the hot structure in these images?

A

3rd trochanter

204
Q
  • What abnormality of the third trochanter is evident in these images?
  • Was there a correlation between degree of IRU and lameness?
  • What is the possible cause of persistently abnormal findings on recheck exam?
A
  • What abnormality of the third trochanter is evident in these images? Fragmentation/fracture
  • Was there a correlation between degree of IRU and lameness? No
  • What is the possible cause of persistently abnormal findings on recheck exam? Third trochanter heals by fibrous union, so may be healing well but still appears fragmented

Shields, G.E., Whitcomb, M.B., Vaughan, B., et al. (2015) ABNORMAL IMAGING FINDINGS OF THE FEMORAL THIRD TROCHANTER IN 20 HORSES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 466–473

205
Q

Regarding the effect of angle of slice acquisition in CT for the evaluation of cervical vertebral column morphometry in Great Danes:

  • What angles were used and where did the authors find significant differences in their measurements?
  • Which angle consistently resulted in larger vertebral canal measurements?
  • What was a significant difference identified between affected and normal dogs?
A
  • What angles were used and where did the authors find significant differences in their measurements?
    • Parallel to vertebral endplate or perpendicular to cord
    • Significant difference in all measured values at the cranial aspect of the vertebrae only
      • EXCEPT no difference in foraminal measurements
  • Which angle consistently resulted in larger vertebral canal measurements?
    • Parallel to endplates
  • What was a significant difference identified between affected and normal dogs?
    • Interverterbal foramina were narrower in affected dogs regardless of angle of acquisition

Jurkoshek, A.M., da Costa, R.C. & Martin-Vaquero, P. (2015) THE EFFECT OF ANGLE SLICE ACQUISITION ON COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC CERVICAL VERTEBRAL COLUMN MORPHOMETRY IN GREAT DANES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 503–510

206
Q

Regarding early post-operative MRI findings in five dogs with brain tumors:

  • What abnormalities were commonly observed in the post-operative scans?
  • What confirmed the presence of residual meningioma? Olgioastrocytoma?
  • When were these scans performed relative to surgery?
A
  • What abnormalities were commonly observed in the post-operative scans?
    • Meningeal CE and thickening (can be nodular)
    • Linear CE at the margins of the resection cavity
    • Hemorrhage
    • Restricted diffusion on DWI/ADC
    • Uncommon: asymmetrical CE of the choroid plexus
  • What confirmed the presence of residual meningioma? Olgioastrocytoma?
    • Nodular, contrast enhancing tissue at resection site
    • Oligo was non-enhancing, but there was a similar focus of hemorrhage that made them believe there was persistent tumor tissue
  • When were these scans performed relative to surgery?
    • 2 days post-op

Chow, K.E., Tyrrell, D. & Long, S.N. (2015) EARLY POSTOPERATIVE MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FINDINGS IN FIVE DOGS WITH CONFIRMED AND SUSPECTED BRAIN TUMORS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 531–539

207
Q

Cavernous transformation of the obstructed portal vein:

  • What were the two main collateral pathways and three subtypes of pathways that were identified?
  • Which type of collaterals are thought to be newly formed and which are thought to represent re-opening of pre-existing vascular structures?
A
  • Type 1: short, tortuous portoportal veins around/inside the thrombus – NEW VESSELS
  • Type 2: long portoportal collaterals bypassing site of obstruction – RE-OPENED VESSELS
    • Pancreaticoduodenal vein –> right or left portal branch
    • Gallbladder, cystic duct, and choledochal veins –> portal branches
      • Intrahepatic or porta hepatis obstruction
    • Splenic vein –> left portal branch
      • Extrahepatic PV obstruction

Specchi, S., Pey, P., Ledda, G., et al. (2015) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC AND ULTRASONOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTICS OF CAVERNOUS TRANSFORMATION OF THE OBSTRUCTED PORTAL VEIN IN SMALL ANIMALS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 511–519

208
Q

Comparing T2w vs. T2-FLAIR + FS vs. STIR images of the brain in dogs with inflammatory intracranial disease:

  • Which sequence(s) had the highest relative contrast and contrast to noise ratio?
  • (T/F): there was a significant difference between sensitivity of the STIR and T2w images but not between the STIR and T2 FLAIR + FS images
  • Inter-observer agreement was highest for which sequence(s)?
A
  • Which sequence(s) had the highest relative contrast and contrast to noise ratio?
    • STIR > T2 > T2 FLAIR FS
  • (T/F): there was a significant difference between sensitivity of the STIR and T2w images but not the STIR and T2 FLAIR + FS
    • False; no differences between any sequences
  • Inter-observer agreement was highest for which sequence(s)?
    • Best for STIR and T2w

Young, B.D., Mankin, J.M., Griffin, J.F., et al. (2015) COMPARISON OF TWO FAT-SUPPRESSED MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING PULSE SEQUENCES TO STANDARD T2-WEIGHTED IMAGES FOR BRAIN PARENCHYMAL CONTRAST AND LESION DETECTION IN DOGS WITH INFLAMMATORY INTRACRANIAL DISEASE. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 204–211

209
Q

What are the two most common variants of the vertebral column in ferrets?

What are the most common types of anomalous vertebrae in ferrets?

A

C7 in all ferrets

  • Th14/L6/S3 (52%)
  • Th14/L6/S4 (22%)

Most common anomalies = transitional vertebrae (TL > LS)

  • Less common: wedge or block vertebrae.
  • No spina bifida

Proks, P., Stehlik, L., Paninarova, M., et al. (2015) CONGENITAL ABNORMALITIES OF THE VERTEBRAL COLUMN IN FERRETS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 117–123

210
Q

Fourth ventricle arachnoid diverticula in dogs:

  • What are the features described in the 2015 case series of 5 dogs with this condition?
  • What is the prognosis?
  • What is the typical signalment and clinical history?
A
  • What are the features described in the 2015 case series of 5 dogs with this condition?
    • Moderate to severe dilation of the entire ventricular system with periventricular edema
    • Ventral displacement of the brainstem and dorsal elevation of the cerebellum with relatively reduced size of both structures
      • Crescent-shaped cerebellum
    • Signal void sign of the mesencephalic aqueduct in all dogs
    • Moderate to severe syringohydromyelia with surrounding edema
    • No CE anywhere
  • What is the prognosis?
    • Bad with or without surgery
  • What is the typical signalment and clinical history?
    • Pediatric dogs, Border Collies were 3/5 patients in this report
    • Cervical hyperesthesia, obtundation, central vestibular, tetraparesis

Bazelle, J., Caine, A., Palus, V., et al. (2015) MRI CHARACTERISTICS OF FOURTH VENTRICLE ARACHNOID DIVERTICULA IN FIVE DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 196–203

211
Q

Effects of two anesthesia protocols on cardiac flow measured by 2D phase contrast MRI

  • What anesthetic protocols were used and differences were noted between the two anesthetic protocols? (flow and shunt values)
  • Mild regurgitation was noted through which valves?
A
  • What differences were noted between the two anesthetic protocols?
    • No difference in flow and Qs/Qp
    • Protocol A: fentanyl/midaz
    • Protocol B: dexmedetomidine
  • Mild regurgitation was noted through which valves?
    • Mitral and Tricuspid

Drees, R., Johnson, R.A., Stepien, R.L., et al. (2015) EFFECTS OF TWO DIFFERENT ANESTHETIC PROTOCOLS ON CARDIAC FLOW MEASURED BY TWO DIMENSIONAL PHASE CONTRAST MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 168–175

212
Q

Optimal imaging of rhino feet…?

A

The projections deemed to be most useful were: D60Pr-PlDiO (digit III), D45Pr45M-PlDiLO (digit II), and D40Pr35L-PlDiLO (digit IV).

  • 3-60
  • 2-45
  • 4-40

Dudley, R.J., Wood, S.P., Hutchinson, J.R., et al. (2015) RADIOGRAPHIC PROTOCOL AND NORMAL ANATOMY OF THE HIND FEET IN THE WHITE RHINOCEROS ( CERATOTHERIUM SIMUM). Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 124–132

213
Q
  • What is diffusion tensor imaging?
  • What is anisotropy?
  • What is fractional anisotropy?
  • What does FA = 0 mean? FA = 1?
A
  • What is diffusion tensor imaging?
    • Mathematical model of 3D diffusion, which maps the degree of anisotropy and direction of a structure
  • What is anisotropy?
    • Property of normal brain tissue that depends on the directionality of water molecules and the integrity of white matter fibers
  • What is fractional anisotropy?
    • Parameter used to assess alterations in water diffusion, which can occur if cerebral white matter tracts are displaced, disrupted, or infiltrated
  • What does FA = 0 mean? FA = 1?
    • FA = 0 – maximum isotropy/diffusion ability (SAS, ventricles)
    • FA = 1 – maximum anisotropy/restriction (parenchyma)

Anaya García, M.S., Hernández Anaya, J.S., Marrufo Meléndez, O., et al. (2015) In vivo study of cerebral white matter in the dog using diffusion tensor tractography. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 56, 188–195

214
Q

In a study using DTI to evaluate cerebral white matter in dogs, one dog showed an altered topography of what structure? What was the proposed reason for this difference?

A

Corticospinal tract and corpus callosum, likely due to anatomical variant ventriculomegaly.

215
Q

CT pneumocolonography in dogs:

  • What is the recommended protocol (pressure, timing, body position)?
  • Which regions of the colon had increased distension with longer insufflation times?
  • What is the upper limit of pressure in the colon (in people)?
A
  • What is the recommended protocol (pressure, timing, body position)?
    • Insufflation pressure of 15-20 mmHg, imaging 2 min after initiation and 2min after contrast administration.
    • Body position was not a significant variable
  • Which measurements significantly increased with longer insufflation times?
    • Ascending colon diameter and area
  • What is the upper limit of pressure in the colon (in people)?
    • 80 mmHg

Steffey, M.A., Daniel, L., Taylor, S.L., et al. (2014) COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC PNEUMOCOLONOGRAPHY IN NORMAL DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 278–285

216
Q

Scintigraphic tracking of labeled mesenchymal stem cells after various delivery methods in healthy dogs:

  • What happened to the stem cells injected intravenously?
  • There was suboptimal label persistence in this study; what were the implications of this factor for interpretation?
  • What was the pattern of distribution for portal vs. splenic injection?
A
  • What happened to the stem cells injected intravenously?
    • Pulmonary trapping
  • There was suboptimal label persistence in this study; what were the implications of this factor for interpretation?
    • Cannot interpret what happens to the stem cells over time (> 24 hours)
  • What was the pattern of distribution for portal vs. splenic injection?
    • Portal injection –> diffuse, homogeneous uptake throughout the liver
    • Splenic injection –> diffuse, homogeneous uptake throughout the liver with mild splenic retention

Spriet, M., Hunt, G.B., Walker, N.J., et al. (2015) Scintigraphic tracking of mesenchymal stem cells after portal, systemic intravenous and splenic administration in healthy beagle dogs. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 56, 327–334

217
Q

Soulsby et al. adrenal paper:

  • What is the max thickness of the caudal pole of the adrenal gland for dogs <10 kg; 10-30 kg; and >30kg?
  • What unexpected finding was noted about comparisons of the left and right adrenal glands?
A
  • What is the max thickness of the caudal pole of the adrenal gland for dogs <10 kg; 10-30 kg; and >30kg?
    • <10 kg – < 0.54 cm
    • 10-30kg – < 0.68 cm
    • >30 kg – < 0.8 cm
  • What unexpected finding was noted about comparisons of the left and right adrenal glands?
    • There was a small but statistically significant difference between the measured thickness of the cranial pole of the right vs. left adrenal glands.
218
Q
  • A valentine-shaped heart is primarily due to ________.
  • What is the impact of enlargement of other chambers on this valentine shape?
  • Was there a correlation between diagnosis and heart shape?
A
  • A valentine-shaped heart is primarily due to LAE.
  • What is the impact of enlargement of other chambers on this valentine shape?
    • Right atrial enlargment increased the likelihood of observing a severe valentine shape, but did not directly affect the severity of valentine shape
    • There is no statistically significant correlation between the presence of LAE and RAE on echo
  • Was there a correlation between diagnosis and heart shape?
    • No

Oura, T.J., Young, A.N., Keene, B.W., et al. (2015) A VALENTINE-SHAPED CARDIAC SILHOUETTE IN FELINE THORACIC RADIOGRAPHS IS PRIMARILY DUE TO LEFT ATRIAL ENLARGEMENT. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 245–250

219
Q

Use of gadobenate dimeglumine for the detection of liver metastasis:

  • What is the property of this contrast medium that allows for differentiation of metastatic nodules from normal parenchyma?
  • What is the time delay for a hepatobiliary/hepatocellular phase?
  • Which sequence was best for identifying metastatic nodules?
A
  • What is the property of this contrast medium that allows for differentiation of metastatic nodules from normal parenchyma?
    • In the hepatobiliary phase, a lesion containing no (or few) functional hepatocytes will appear hypointense
    • In 6/10 cases, more nodules were identifiable in this phase
  • What is the time delay for a hepatobiliary/hepatocellular phase?
    • 23-25 min
  • Which sequence was best for identifying metastatic nodules?
    • 3D-FLASH

Louvet, A. & Duconseille, A.-C. (2015) FEASIBILITY FOR DETECTING LIVER METASTASES IN DOGS USING GADOBENATE DIMEGLUMINE; ENHANCED MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 286–295

220
Q

Spirocerca strikes again…

  • What is the prevalence of malignant transformation of esophageal nodules and what type of malignancy is found?
  • What CT features were significantly different between non-neoplastic and neoplastic esophageal nodules?
A
  • What is the prevalence of malignant transformation of esophageal nodules and what type of malignancy is found?
    • Up to 25% of cases will transform
    • OSA > FSA > undiff or chondrosarcoma
  • What CT features were significantly different between non-neoplastic and neoplastic esophageal nodules?
    • Non: smooth, non-mineralized, higher proportion of necro-purulent filled cavities occupying a larger region of the nodule, better perfusion
    • Neoplastic: irregular, mineralized foci (93% of cases), worse perfusion

Kirberger, R.M., Cassel, N., Stander, N., et al. (2014) TRIPLE PHASE DYNAMIC COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC PERFUSION CHARACTERISTICS OF SPIROCERCOSIS INDUCED ESOPHAGEAL NODULES IN NON-NEOPLASTIC VERSUS NEOPLASTIC CANINE CASES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 257–263

221
Q
  • Is carpal sheath effusion more likely to occur with soft tissue or osseous structures?
  • Which specific structures were most often associated with carpal sheath effusion and what abnormalities were noted?
A
  • Is carpal sheath effusion more likely to occur with soft tissue or osseous structures?
  • Which specific structures were most often associated with carpal sheath effusion and what abnormalities were noted?
    • SDFT and accessory ligament of the SDFT
      • Hyperechoic foci in the SDFT (suspect fibrosis, but no histo)
    • Thickening of tendon sheath and/or retinaculum
    • Both of these findings were significantly associated with increasing age

Jorgensen, J.S., Genovese, R.L., Dopfer, D., et al. (2015) MUSCULOSKELETAL LESIONS AND LAMENESS IN 121 HORSES WITH CARPAL SHEATH EFFUSION. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 307–316

222
Q

Percutaneous contrast ultrasound-guided cholecystography:

  • What is the purpose? How is it performed?
  • Parameters:
    • Time to initial detection
    • TTP
    • Duration within the duodenum
A
  • What is the purpose?
    • Assessment of biliary patency
  • Parameters:
    • Time to initial detection: 8 sec
    • TTP: 25 sec
    • Duration within the duodenum: 50 sec

Ji, S., Jung, S., Kim, B., et al. (2015) FEASIBILITY OF PERCUTANEOUS CONTRAST ULTRASOUND GUIDED CHOLECYSTOGRAPHY IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 296–300

223
Q

CT findings in 57 cats with primary pulmonary neoplasia:

  • What percentage of primary pulmonary neoplasms present as a mass vs. disseminated lesions?
  • Predilection sites?
  • Other CT features?
  • Frequency of metastasis?
  • Was there any association of tumor type with specific CT findings?
A
  • Mass (96%) vs. disseminated lesions (4%)
  • Predilection sites?
    • Caudal lung lobes (80%): right > left
  • Other CT features?
    • Contact with visceral pleua
    • Irregular margins but well-defined borders
    • Bronchial compression
    • Gas containing cavitation
    • Mineralization (all bronchial origin tumors, about half of ACA and ASQCA)
    • Uncommonly: pleural effusion > bronchial invasion > PTE
  • Frequency of metastasis? About 50%
  • Was there any association of tumor type with specific CT findings? No

Aarsvold, S., Reetz, J.A., Reichle, J.K., et al. (2015) Computed tomographic findings in 57 cats with primary pulmonary neoplasia. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 56, 272–277

224
Q

How did thyroid measurements in calves compare to measured volume post-mortem? What findings did the authors report regarding body weight?

A

Ultrasound consistently underestimated thyroid volume when using the ellipsoid formula.

Body weight was significantly associated with thyroid volume.

Metzner, M., Uebelhack, S., Sauter-Louis, C., et al. (2015) Developing an accurate method for estimating thyroid volume in calves using ultrasonography. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 56, 301–306

225
Q

Regarding a CT study of the MRLN and nasal passages of cats with rhinitis and nasal neoplasia:

  • Which CT characteristics were significantly associated with neoplasia?
  • What was noted about the lymph nodes in cats with lymphoma?
A
  • Which CT characteristics were significantly associated with neoplasia?
    • MRLN: abnormal hilus, height asymmetry, more homogeneous pre-contrast
    • Paranasal bone lysis, turbinate lysis, nasal mass
  • What was noted about the lymph nodes in cats with lymphoma?
    • Significantly greater degree of CE

Nemanic, S., Hollars, K., Nelson, N.C., et al. (2015) COMBINATION OF COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHIC IMAGING CHARACTERISTICS OF MEDIAL RETROPHARYNGEAL LYMPH NODES AND NASAL PASSAGES AIDS DISCRIMINATION BETWEEN RHINITIS AND NEOPLASIA IN CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 617–627

226
Q

Comparisons of healthy cats and asthmatic cats (experimental or naturally-occurring):

  • What findings were significantly different between groups?
  • What findings were NOT significantly different between groups?
  • What are the typical CT features of feline asthma?
A
  • What findings were significantly different between groups?
    • Asthmatic cats had higher lung attenuation and SUBJECTIVELY increased heterogeneity
  • What findings were NOT significantly different between groups?
    • Objective heterogeneity measurements were not sig. different between groups
  • What are the typical CT features of feline asthma?
    • GGO + consolidation
    • Bronchial wall thickening
    • Parenchymal bands

Masseau, I., Banuelos, A., Dodam, J., et al. (2015) COMPARISON OF LUNG ATTENUATION AND HETEROGENEITY BETWEEN CATS WITH EXPERIMENTALLY INDUCED ALLERGIC ASTHMA, NATURALLY OCCURRING ASTHMA AND NORMAL CATS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 595–601

227
Q

Equine hoof wall radiography:

  • What are the histological layers of the hoof wall from superficial to deep?
  • Which layer(s) make up the bulk of the dorsal hoof wall and how much of the total hoof wall thickness does this represent?
A
  • What are the histological layers of the hoof wall from superficial to deep?
    • Stratum externum, stratum medium, stratum internum, dermis parietis
  • Which layer(s) make up the bulk of the dorsal hoof wall and how much of the total hoof wall thickness does this represent?
    • Stratum externum + medium = 65% of total dorsal hoof wall

Goulet, C., Olive, J., Rossier, Y., et al. (2015) Radiographic and anatomic characteristics of dorsal hoof wall layers in nonlaminitic horses. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 56, 589–594

228
Q

Regarding a hyperechoic band within the colonic muscularis layer:

  • What was the prevalence of this finding?
  • What histological finding might explain this hyperechoic band?
  • T/F: This finding was found in dogs with and without GI signs.
A
  • What was the prevalence of this finding? 32%
  • What histological finding might explain this hyperechoic band?
    • Focal, mild, increased fibrous tissue in the myenteric plexus or tunica muscularis
  • False: none of the dogs with this hyperechoic band had diarrhea

Heng, H.G., Lim, C.K., Miller, M.A., et al. (2015) PREVALENCE AND SIGNIFICANCE OF AN ULTRASONOGRAPHIC COLONIC MUSCULARIS HYPERECHOIC BAND PARALLELING THE SEROSAL LAYER IN DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 666–669

229
Q

Elastography of spontaneous soft tissue injuries in horses:

  • What level of stiffness was associated with acute, subacute, and chronic lesions?
  • What is the explanation for the differences in stiffness?
  • Was there a correlation with lesion echogenicity?
A
  • What level of stiffness was associated with acute, subacute, and chronic lesions?
    • Acute lesions = softer
    • Subacute/chronic = stiffer
  • What is the explanation for the differences in stiffness?
    • In humans, areas of fiber disruption and hematoma formation are softer
    • As tensons heal over time, the progressive collagen deposition increases stiffness
  • Was there a correlation with lesion echogenicity?
    • Hypoechoic lesions tend to be softer (likely more acute)

Lustgarten, M., Redding, W.R., Labens, R., et al. (2015) ELASTOGRAPHIC EVALUATION OF NATURALLY OCCURING TENDON AND LIGAMENT INJURIES OF THE EQUINE DISTAL LIMB. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 670–679

230
Q

64 MCDTA and 3T MRA of the heart compared to echocardiography:

  • (T/F): There was good agreement between variables of cardiac size and systolic function generated from MDCTA, MRA, and echocardiography.
  • (T/F): Systolic function variables calculated with MDCTA and MRA were able to predict the right ventricular end diastolic volume as measured on echocardiography.
A
  • (FALSE): There was good agreement between variables of cardiac size and systolic function generated from MDCTA, MRA, and echocardiography.
    • NOT echocardiography. Otherwise correct.
  • (FALSE): Systolic function variables calculated with MDCTA and MRA were able to predict the LEFT ventricular end diastolic volume as measured on echocardiography.

Drees, R., Johnson, R.A., Stepien, R.L., et al. (2015) QUANTITATIVE PLANAR AND VOLUMETRIC CARDIAC MEASUREMENTS USING 64 MDCT AND 3T MRI VS. STANDARD 2D AND M-MODE ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY: DOES ANESTHETIC PROTOCOL MATTER? Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 638–657

231
Q

CT features of pharyngeal neoplasia in dogs:

  • What are the most common types of oropharyngeal neoplasia?
  • What are the common and uncommon CT features of pharyngeal neoplasia?
  • What significant findings were reported about lymphadenopathy? (Which LN were affected and at what rate?)
A
  • What are the most common types of oropharyngeal neoplasia?
    • Malignant melanoma, SCC, FSA
  • What are the common and uncommon CT features of pharyngeal neoplasia?
    • Space-occupying masses with irregular shape and ill-defined margins
    • Moderate to marked CE
    • Oropharynx > laryngopharynx > nasopharynx
    • Uncommon: osteolysis of adjacent structures, infiltration of vessels, mineralization
  • What significant findings were reported about lymphadenopathy? (Which LN were affected and at what rate?)
    • MRLN most commonly abnormal (96%) in size, shape, or abnormal enhancement.
    • 50% metastatic MRLN

Carozzi, G., Zotti, A., Alberti, M., et al. (2015) Computed tomographic features of pharyngeal neoplasia in 25 dogs. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 56, 628–637

232
Q

Accuracy of radiographic detection of sacral overhang in dogs:

  • Repeatbility and accuracy?
  • What was the effect of the age of the dog?
A
  • Good repeatability, fair accuracy (mean discordance 1.7 mm)
    • Accuracy was improved when considering distance solely in the cranio-caudal dimension
    • Tended to overestimate craniocaudal dimension (identified landmark further caudally than was represented by the hook)
  • Easier in juveniles

Blume, L.M., Worth, A.J., Cohen, E.B., et al. (2015) ACCURACY OF RADIOGRAPHIC DETECTION OF THE CRANIAL MARGIN OF THE DORSAL LAMINA OF THE CANINE SACRUM. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 579–588

233
Q

Comparison between MRI estimates of extra-cranial CSF volume and physical measurements in healthy dogs:

  • What was the accuracy of MRI volume estimates?
  • What was the range of extracranial CSF volumes?
  • What was the relationship of CSF colume and body weight? What about the proportional volume (ml/kg)?
  • What is the average proportion of CSF found in the cervical, thoracic, and LS regions?
A
  • What was the accuracy of MRI volume estimates? 100%
  • What was the range of extracranial CSF volumes? 20-45ml
  • What was the relationship of CSF volume and body weight? What about the proportional volume (ml/kg)?
    • CSF generally increased linearly with increasing BW, but the proportional volume (ml/kg) was inversely related to BW
      • Ex: a dog with double the body weight has 1.5x more CSF
  • What is the average proportion of CSF found in the cervical, thoracic, and LS regions?
    • Cervical: 40%
    • Thoracic: 35%
    • LS: 25%

Reinitz, L.Z., Bajzik, G., Garamvölgyi, R., et al. (2015) COMPARISON BETWEEN MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING ESTIMATES OF EXTRACRANIAL CEREBROSPINAL FLUID VOLUME AND PHYSICAL MEASUREMENTS IN HEALTHY DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 56, 658–665

234
Q

Odontogenic tumors in horses:

  • What are the common CT features?
  • What types of odontogenic tumors were identified? What features helped to distinguish them?
A
  • What are the common CT features?
    • Aggressive, expansile lesions causing bone deformation; alveolar and cortical bone lysis; and both cortical bone thinning and thickening
    • Often displaced adjacent teeth
  • What types of odontogenic tumors were identified? What features helped to distinguish them?
    • Acanthomatous ameloblastoma, ameloblastic carcinoma, ameloblastic fibroma, complex odontoma
    • Complex odontoma were the only ones that contained enamel
    • Fibromas were mainly composed of soft tissue attenuating material whereas ameloblastic carcinomas contained a mix of mineralized and STA material

Morgan, R.E., Fiske-Jackson, A.R., Hellige, M., et al. (2019) Equine odontogenic tumors: Clinical presentation, CT findings, and outcome in 11 horses. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 60, 502–512

235
Q

Barium GI studies in box turtles:

  • Dose?
  • SITT?
  • Who cares?
A
  • Dose: 15 ml/kg, 30% w/v
  • Contrast entered the large intestine by 24 hours
  • Literally like 2 people.

Houck, E.L., Cohen, E.B., Womble, M., et al. (2019) Radiographic anatomy and barium sulfate contrast study of the gastrointestinal tract of eastern box turtles (Terrapene carolina carolina). Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 60, 473–484

236
Q

Evaluating agreement between MRI and CT in dogs with vertebral fractures:

  • What was the general trend for sensitivity and specificity in identifying any fractures vs. structurally unstable fractures?
  • What proportion of fractures were identified with complete agreeement between CT and MRI?
A
  • Similar, high sensitivity and specificity for detection of any fractured vertebrae (90% / 80%) but moderate interobserver agreement
  • Improved specificity and interobserver agreement for unstable fractures
  • Complete agreement was only achieved in 15-30% of fractures with up to 79% being missed

Gallastegui, A., Davies, E., Zwingenberger, A.L., et al. (2019) MRI has limited agreement with CT in the evaluation of vertebral fractures of the canine trauma patient. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 60, 533–542

237
Q

US characterization of cervical LN in dogs:

  • What reference ranges did the authors propose for the mandibular, medial retropharyngeal, and superficial cervical LN?
  • Which of the following criteria were significantly associated with lymph node size?
    • Body weight
    • Dental disease
    • Age
    • Breed
    • Sex
  • The MRLN were ____echoic to the ________ and the superficial cervical LN were ____echoic to the ________.
A

US characterization of cervical LN in dogs:

  • What reference ranges did the authors propose for the mandibular, medial retropharyngeal, and superficial cervical LN?
    • MLN: 0.5 cm H x 1.5 cm W
    • MRLN: 1 cm H x 2 cm W
    • SCLN: 1 cm H x 1.5 cm W
  • Which of the following criteria were significantly associated with lymph node size?
    • Body weight (increased)
    • Age (decreased)
  • The MRLN were isoechoic to the salivary glands and the superficial cervical LN were hyperechoic to the surrounding muscle bellies.

Ruppel, M.J., Pollard, R.E. & Willcox, J.L. (2019) Ultrasonographic characterization of cervical lymph nodes in healthy dogs. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 60, 560–566

238
Q

Image obtained at L7-S1. Name the labeled muscles.

A
  1. sacrocaudalis dorsalis medialis
  2. sacrocaudalis dorsalis lateralis
  3. longissiumus lumborum
  4. gluteus medius
  5. iliopsoas

Jones, J.C., Kimmett, K.L., Sharp, J.L., et al. (2019) CT measures of lumbosacral paraspinal muscle size are not correlated with CT measures of lumbosacral stability in military working Labrador Retrievers. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 60, 513–524

239
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the infraorbital canal in horses and associations with headshaking:

  1. Common morphological changes to the infraorbital canal include: increased or decreased mineralization, deformed shape, displacement, and disruption.
  2. The presence of adjacent disease increased some of the described morphological changes to the infraorbital canal, but not all of them.
  3. Decreased mineralization and displacement of the infraorbital canal were significantly associated with headshaking.
  4. Male horses were overrepresented in the headshaking cases.
A
  1. Common morphological changes to the infraorbital canal include: increased or decreased mineralization, deformed shape, displacement, and disruption. (CORRECT)
  2. The presence of adjacent disease increased ALL of the described morphological changes to the infraorbital canal.
  3. Increased mineralization and disruption of the infraorbital canal were significantly associated with headshaking.
  4. There was no association between age or sex of the horse and headshaking.

Edwards, R.A., Hermans, H. & Veraa, S. (2019) Morphological variations of the infraorbital canal during CT has limited association with headshaking in horses. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 60, 485–492

240
Q
  • What is this lesion?
  • What is the other characteristic appearance of this lesion?
  • Where is it typically found?
  • What other CNS abnormality is it commonly associated with?
A
  • What is this lesion? Syringobulbia
  • What is the other characteristic appearance of this lesion? Slit-like or bulbous
  • Where is it typically found? Medulla oblongata
  • What other CNS abnormality is it commonly associated with? Syringomyelia +/- ventriculomegaly

Williamson, B., Davies, E., Epperly, E., et al. (2019) Signs consistent with syringobulbia may be detected in dogs undergoing MRI. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 60, vru.12733

241
Q

What are the common CT features of acute pancreatitis in dogs?

A
  • Enlargement and heterogeneous CE in the pancreas
  • PVT
  • Mesenteric fat stranding
  • Peritoneal effusion
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Gastroenteritis (wall thickening)
  • Biliary dilation and/or mineralization

French, J.M., Twedt, D.C., Rao, S., et al. (2019) CT angiographic changes in dogs with acute pancreatitis: A prospective longitudinal study. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 61, 33–39

242
Q

Regarding CT of mediastinal lymphoma vs. thymic epithelial neoplasia:

  • What significant differences were identified between these two types of neoplasia on CT?
  • Was there a differences in signalment or clinical signs?
  • Refresher from another paper:
    • What sonographic differences have been identified between thymoma and mediastinal LSA?
A
  • What significant differences were identified between these two types of neoplasia on CT?
    • LSA more homogeneous and more likely to envelope the CrVC
  • Was there a differences in signalment or clinical signs?
    • Thymic neoplasia more likely to occur in older dogs
  • What sonographic differences have been identified between thymoma and mediastinal LSA?
    • Internal cystic structures and heterogeneous echogenicity were associated with thymoma
243
Q
  • What is different about the signal intensity neonatal canine brain on MRI and what is the cause of this difference?
  • At what time point does it transition to the appearance of the mature canine brain in the T1w, T2w, and FLAIR sequences?
A
  • There is reversed gray/white matter SI in the neonate. As there is progressive myelination of the white matter, the signal intensities transition to their normal adult appearance.
  • Time of transition
    • T1w: 3-4 weeks
    • T2w: 4-8 weeks
    • FLAIR: 3 weeks (iso to hyper) then 6-12 weeks (hyper to hypo)

GROSS, B., GARCIA-TAPIA, D., RIEDESEL, E., et al. (2010) NORMAL CANINE BRAIN MATURATION AT MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 51, 361–373

244
Q

How do you differentiate between epidermoid cysts, dermoid cysts, and arachnoid diverticulae?

A
  • Epidermoid – filled with keratin debris
    • T1 hypo, will not void on FLAIR
  • Dermoid cyst – relatively higher lipid content
    • T1 hyper
  • Arachnoid diverticulae – CSF-filled
    • Voids on FLAIR

STEINBERG, T., Matiasek, K., BRÜHSCHWEIN, A., et al. (2007) IMAGING DIAGNOSIS-INTRACRANIAL EPIDERMOID CYST IN A DOBERMAN PINSCHER. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 48, 250–253

245
Q

Regarding neurological manifestations of FIP (Crawford, 2017 JVIM):

  • What are the three clinical neurological syndromes that were identified?
  • Describe the pathophysiology of these neurological syndromes.
  • What was the prognosis?
A
  • What are the three clinical neurological syndromes that were identified?
    • Multifocal CNS > central vestibular > T3-L3 myelopathy
  • Describe the pathophysiology of these neurological syndromes.
    • Pyogranulomatous vasculitis, primarily affecting leptomeninges, ependyma and choroid plexus
  • What was the prognosis?
    • Terrible. All cats euthanized within 2 weeks.
246
Q

Regarding neurological manifestations of FIP (Crawford, 2017 JVIM):

  • What were the common MRI features of FIP?
A
  • Ventriculomegaly (severity correlated to severity of clinical signs)
    • Compression of brainstem by dilated 4th ventricle
  • Periventricular FLAIR hyperintensity
  • Meningeal and ependymal CE
  • Transtentorial or foramen magnum herniation
  • Incomplete CSF suppression on FLAIR (less common)
  • Syringomyelia

Crawford, A.H., Stoll, A.L., Sanchez-Masian, D., et al. (2017) Clinicopathologic Features and Magnetic Resonance Imaging Findings in 24 Cats With Histopathologically Confirmed Neurologic Feline Infectious Peritonitis. Journal of Veterinary Internal Medicine 31, 1477–1486

247
Q

Reversible post-ictal changes in dogs:

  • Where do they occur and what do they look like?
  • How long do they take to resolve?
A
  • Hippocampus, piriform lobes, frontal lobes, basal nuclei
  • Bilaterally symmetrical or asymmetrical, less commonly unilateral T2w hyper, T1w hypo, non-CE lesions with no mass effect
  • Partial resolution in 3 dogs after 10-16 weeks

Mellema, L., Koblik, P.D. & LeCouteur, R.A. (1999) REVERSIBLE MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING ABNORMALITIES IN DOGS FOLLOWING SEIZURES. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 40, 588–595

And also Mai’s textbook

248
Q

What is the typical MRI appearance of granular cell tumors in dogs? What are the primary differential for these tumors?

A
  • Well-defined, extra-axial masses with a plaque-like, sessile distribution involving the meninges
  • T2w AND T1w hyper
  • Marked, homogeneous CE
  • Moderate edema and mass effect
  • Main ddx: meningioma, histiocytic sarcoma

Anwer, C.C., Vernau, K.M., Higgins, R.J., et al. (2013) MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FEATURES OF INTRACRANIAL GRANULAR CELL TUMORS IN SIX DOGS. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 54, 271–277

249
Q

What are the typical CT features of splenic torsion?

A
  • Enlarged, homogeneous, non-contrast enhancing spleen
  • Folded C-shape, best evaluated in the dorsal plane
  • Whirl sign of torsed splenic vessels and the gastro/phreno-splenic ligaments
    • Hyperattenuating center within the whirl sign PRE-contrast (unknown etiology)
  • Effusion
  • Normal gastric position and no lymphadenopathy

Hughes, J.R., Johnson, V.S. & Genain, M.A. (2020) CT characteristics of primary splenic torsion in eight dogs. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 61, 261–268

250
Q
  • What is the most likely diagnosis in this horse?
  • What part(s) of the brain are affected?
  • What is the most likely cause of this disease?
A
  • What is the most likely diagnosis in this horse? Nigropallidal encephalomalacia
  • What part(s) of the brain are affected? Substantia nigra and globus pallidus
  • What is the most likely cause of this disease? Chronic ingestion of yellow star thistle or Russian knapweed

Sanders, S.G., Tucker, R.L. & Bagley, R.S. (2001) MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING FEATURES OF EQUINE NIGROPALLIDAL ENCEPHALOMALACIA. Veterinary Radiology & Ultrasound 42, 291–296

251
Q

What is the basic physiology of PET imaging with 18F-FDG?

A
  • FDG is a glucose analog that gets taken up by metabolically active cells.
  • In the cell, FDG is phosphorylated into a form that cannot be further metabolized and gets trapped in the cell.
  • Retention within a cell results in higher positron emission as the FDG undergoes positron decay, which is quantified as the value SUVmax

French, J.M., Brody, A., von Stade, D., et al. (2020) Flourine-18 fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography imaging exhibits increased SUVmax at the level of the spinal intumescence in normal dogs. Veterinary Radiology and Ultrasound 61, 364–369