Pathophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

Drowning

A

Initial breath hold
Swallowing
Loss of breath hold
Laryngospasm
Laryngeal relaxation
Massive aspiration
Hypoxia and hypercapnia cause hypoxic cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Control of aldosterone

A
  • RAAS system triggered by low BP or decreased circulating volume recognised by reduced blood flow to macula densa of the kidney to secrete RENIN.
  • this causes angiotensinogen to be cleaved to ANGIOTENSIN 1 then 2 causing potent vasoconstriction and ALDOSTERONE release
  • ALDOSTERONE causes retention of salt and water in the distal convoluted tubule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Control of glucocorticoid activity

A

HPA axis
- hypothalamus releases corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH)
-> pituitary releases adrenal corticotrophin hormone (ACTH)
-> adrenal cortex releases cortisol
-> cortisol negative feedback on pituitary and hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pathophysiology of anaphylaxis

A

Final common pathway is mast cell degranulation.
-> endogenous Nitric Oxide synthase activation and vasodilation

Triggers
- previous exposure causing allergen specific IgE
- immune trigger via T cells / IgG / IgM
- insect venoms
- exercise / cold / alcohol also cause mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DIC

A

Powerful persistent trigger of haemostasis releases free thrombin

-> Widespread fibrin deposition and associated fibrinolytic response

-> Small vessel occlusion, consumptive coagulopathy and increased bleeding risk

Thrombotic, haemorrhagic or mixed complications in multiple organ systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Refeeding syndrome

A

Sudden switch to catabolism
- increased insulin secretion, protein, fat and glycogen synthesis
-> sudden shift of multiple mechanisms trying to utilise new caloric load
-> dysregulation and fluid & electrolyte abnormalities can be severe

  • Hypokalaemia due to cellular reuptake
  • Hypophosphataemia due to increased phosphorylation of glucose
  • hypomagnesaemia due to cellular uptake
  • thiamine depletion as co-factor in glycolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Alcohol poisoning

A
  • Severe cortical and brain stem depression
  • Depressed gluconeogenesis
  • high anion gap metabolic acidosis

Treatment
- airway protection as part of supportive care
- IV thiamine, glucose and metabolic correction
- consider gastric lavage
- Rarely needs RRT but can be very effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Methanol toxicity

A

Lethal dose is 1-2ml/kg
Triad of
- GI symptoms (nausea and vomiting, pain & bleeding)
- eye signs (blurred vision, central scotoma or blindness)
- metabolic acidosis (HAGMA)

Treatment = ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Asthma pathophysiology

A

Chronic airway inflammation causes smooth muscle hypertrophy and goblet cell hyperplasia

Increased airway reactivity, mucosal and submucosal oedema and excessive secretions

Eventually causes scarring due to epithelial collagen deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Triad: anaemia, AKI and low plts

Typical:
- related to E. Coli infection producing shiga toxin. Prodromal bloody diarrhoea. Causing endothelial damage

Atypical
- can still present with bloody diarrhoea in 30%
- genetic predisposition and complement activation
- prodrome related to developing renal dysfunction

Secondary HUS due to complement activation in the context of illness
- infection (strep pneumoniae)
- HIV, influenza
- autoimmune
- drugs (calcineurin inhibs, quinine, chemo)
- malignant hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Formation of Lactate (Anaerobic Glycolysis)

A

When the demand for ATP (energy) exceeds the capacity of oxidative phosphorylation (usually during intense exercise), the body shifts from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism. In this process:

•	Glucose is broken down via glycolysis to form pyruvate.
•	If oxygen is limited or energy demand is very high, pyruvate is converted into lactate by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), regenerating NAD+ needed for glycolysis to continue.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lactate as an Energy Source

A

Contrary to popular belief, lactate isn’t simply a waste product but also an important energy substrate:

• Lactate can be transported to the liver (Cori cycle), where it is converted back into glucose through gluconeogenesis, a process that helps maintain blood glucose levels during prolonged exercise.
• Lactate can also be taken up by tissues like the heart or muscles and converted back into pyruvate. In these tissues, pyruvate enters the mitochondria and participates in aerobic metabolism to produce energy (ATP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lactate Shuttle

A

The concept of the lactate shuttle suggests that lactate moves between tissues to meet energy demands. For example:

• Muscle-to-muscle: Fast-twitch fibers (which produce more lactate) can export lactate to slow-twitch fibers, which use it for energy.
• Muscle-to-heart: Lactate produced in muscles can be utilized by the heart as a fuel source during intense exercise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cori Cycle

A

The Cori cycle involves the conversion of lactate produced in muscles during anaerobic exercise back into glucose in the liver. This glucose can then be reused by muscles as an energy source. It is an important metabolic pathway for balancing blood glucose levels and maintaining energy supply during prolonged or intense physical activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lactate metabolism

A

Lactate is produced when pyruvate cannot be fully oxidized due to oxygen limitation.
• It serves as a fuel for other tissues, particularly the liver, heart, and slow-twitch muscles.
• The Cori cycle recycles lactate into glucose in the liver.
• The lactate shuttle ensures lactate is efficiently used across tissues, acting as a valuable energy source rather than just a waste product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

A

• Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
• Sjögren’s Syndrome
• Systemic Sclerosis (Scleroderma)
• Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (MCTD)
• Polymyositis/Dermatomyositis

Notes: ANA is a broad marker for autoimmune conditions, especially connective tissue diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Anti-dsDNA (anti double stranded DNA antibodies)

A

SLE
Highly specific for SLE, often correlates with disease activity, particularly renal involvement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anti-Ro (SSA) and Anti-La (SSB)

A

Associated diseases:
• Sjögren’s Syndrome
• Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
• Neonatal Lupus

Notes: Anti-Ro is associated with subacute cutaneous lupus and neonatal lupus (especially congenital heart block).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Anti-Scl-70 (Anti-topoisomerase I)

A

Associated disease:
• Diffuse Systemic Sclerosis (Scleroderma)

Notes: Predicts a more aggressive form of systemic sclerosis with pulmonary fibrosis.

20
Q

Anti-centromere Antibodies

A

Associated disease:
• Limited Systemic Sclerosis (CREST syndrome)

Notes: Associated with limited scleroderma and a lower risk of interstitial lung disease.

21
Q

Anti-phospholipid Antibodies (Lupus Anticoagulant, Anti-Cardiolipin, Anti-β2 Glycoprotein I)

A

Associated disease:
• Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APS)
• Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

Notes: Associated with arterial and venous thrombosis, recurrent pregnancy loss, and livedo reticularis.

22
Q

Anti-CCP (Cyclic Citrullinated Peptide)

A

Associated disease:
• Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

Notes: Highly specific for RA and can be detected early in the disease course.

23
Q

Systemic sclerosis

A

Rare, multisystem, immune-mediated, inflammatory disease characterised by fibrosis and small vessel vasospasm and large vessel vasculopathy.

Anti centromere (CREST)
Or
Anti-Scl-70 or topoisomerase 1 antibodies

Can cause
- CREST
- pulmonary hypertension
- pumonary fibrosis/ILD
- Cardiac disease (3x increase of cardiac ischaemia)
- sclerodermic renal crisis

10 year survival of 66%

24
Q

Scleroderma renal crisis

A

Rare and life threatening 10-20% of diffuse SS patients

Small vessel vasculopathy causes hypoperfusion of the kidneys
-> activation of RAAS and hyper-reninaemia

-> vasoconstriction, sodium retention and hypertension

-> malignant hypertension and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

Treatment is Captopril (short acting ACEi for dose adjustment)
- supportive may include additional antihypertensives and RRT
- avoid steroids as will worsen SRC

25
Q

Causes of infective endocarditis

A

Gram positive
- streptococci (31%) strep bovis
- staphylococci (S. aureus) (28%)
- coag negative staph (13%) staph epidermidis
- enterococci (E. faecalis)
- culture negative

Slow growing HACEK (1-2%)
- Haemophilus
- Aggregatobacter
- Cardiobacterium
- Eikenella
- Kingella

Fungal (Candida) in 1-2%

26
Q

Transplant specific complications

A

Heart
- denervated SA node so only direct acting medications effect heart rate.
- Response to volume response, adrenergic response and conductivity preserved
- loss of response to hypovolaemia, hypotension and pain

Lung
- no bronchial artery perfusion so risk of tracheal dehiscence
- loss of cough response below anastomosis so cough must be conscious

Liver
- acute ischaemic injury or hepatic artery thrombosis may need urgent re-transplantation

27
Q

Types of lactic acidosis

A

Type A = increased production
- anaerobic metabolism
- hypotension / reduced perfusion
- poor O2 utilisation (poisoning E.g. ethylene glycol)

Type B = reduced clearance
- reduced hepatic metabolism
- metformin
- haematological malignancy
- inherited enzyme defects

28
Q

Causes of metabolic alkalosis

A

Loss of acid
- GIT (D&V)
- diuretics
- hypokalaemia
- low mineralocorticoid states

Additional alkali
- sodium bicarbonate infusion
- high chloride post NaCl infusion

29
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Systemic deficit of dopamine, typically longer presentation due to drugs blocking or withdrawal of agonists of dopamine. (Haloperidol, chlorpromazine)

Causes
- altered mental state
- autonomic instability
- muscle rigidity
- hyperthermia

30
Q

Beta receptor stimulus

A

G protein coupled receptors causing Increase in intracellular cAMP

31
Q

Alpha receptor stimulus

A

Acts via Phospholipase C

32
Q

Hepatopulmonary Syndrome

A

= hepatic dysfunction + intrapulmonary vasodilation -> gas exchange abnormalities

  • imbalance between intrapulmonary vasoconstriction and vasodilation at the pre- and post-capillary level
  • ?NO mediated (increased NO synthetase activity)
  • rarely due to an anatomic shunt
33
Q

TCA overdose signs

A

Myocardial depression
Arrhythmias
Low GCS and seizures
Anticholinergic effects

Treat with bicarbonate if QRS >100ms
Lidocaine and magnesium may be helpful in arrhythmias

34
Q

LP in bacteria meningitis

A

Raised opening pressure
Cloudy
WCC 100-50,000 (neutrophils)
Increased protein
Low glucose (<40% serum)

35
Q

LP in viral meningitis

A

Mildly increased opening pressure
Clear CSF
WCC 5-1000 (lymphocytes)
Normal glucose
Mildly raised protein

36
Q

LP in TB meningitis

A

Cloudy/yellow
Increased opening pressure
WCC 0-1000 (lymphocytes)
Glucose <30% serum
Protein very high

37
Q

MRI T1 imaging

A

T1 loves protein. More protein = brighter on T1

So tissues are white

38
Q

MRI T2 imaging

A

2 Ws => water is white

39
Q

Fat embolism syndrome

A

Theory 1: mechanical fat emboli into pulmonary circulation

Theory 2: biochemical lipolysis of fat embolus causing free fatty acids release as inflammatory mediators and vascular occlusion of lungs and brain

40
Q

Methaemoglobinaemia

A

Haemoglobin is oxidised from normal Fe2+ ferrous state to Fe3+ ferric state.

This means it is unable to bind oxygen effectively and cannot release it into tissues appropriately

This causes FUNCTIONAL HYPOXIA despite normal partial pressure of oxygen.

Typically presenting with CYANOSIS AND NORMAL PAO2 LEVELS

Normal levels <1% on cooximetry, levels 20/30% cause significant symptoms

41
Q

Methaemoglobinaemia

A

Haemoglobin is oxidised from normal Fe2+ ferrous state to Fe3+ ferric state.

This means it is unable to bind oxygen effectively and cannot release it into tissues appropriately

This causes FUNCTIONAL HYPOXIA despite normal partial pressure of oxygen.

Typically presenting with CYANOSIS AND NORMAL PAO2 LEVELS

Normal levels <1% on cooximetry, levels 20/30% cause significant symptoms

42
Q

Ehthylene glycol toxicity

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase triggers pathway which causes HAGMA and calcium oxalate production causing acute tubular necrosis and long QTc

43
Q

Methanol

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase breaks down into Formic acid and formate which is a mitochondrial inhibitor causing relative hypoxia

Also causes optic nerve accumulation

44
Q

HUS

A

Shigella toxin from E. coli 0157 causing plt aggregation and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, especially in the kidney

This is why you treat with PLEX to remove the toxin

45
Q

TTP

A

ADAMST-13 dysfunction causing failure of regulation of vWF and plt multimeters causing plt aggregation.
MAHA
AKI
low plt
Fever
CNS symptoms