Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PLE 2017: Pathology > Pathology (Sections 21-) > Flashcards

Pathology (Sections 21-) Flashcards

1
Q

Clinically significant infectious etiology of endometritis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infection that begins in the vulva/vagina that ascends to involve the upper reproductive tract

Presents as pelvic pain, adnexal tenderness, fever, and vaginal discharge

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Type of PID
Initial infection from endocervical mucosa
Ascends via direct mucosal spread

A

Gonococcal PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type of PID
Associated with uterine manipulation
Spreads lympohematogenously

A

Non-gonococcal PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Non-neoplastic epithelial lesion of the vulva
Leukoplakia
Thinning of the epidermis
Not pre-malignant

A

Lichen sclerosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Non-neoplastic epithelial lesion of the vulva
Acanthosis
Not pre-malignant

A

Squamous Hyperplasia of the Vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common type of Vulvar SCCA

A

Non-HPV related (70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Failure of Mullerian Duct fusion
Usually accompanied by uterine didhelphys
Associated wih DES exposure in utero

A

Septate Vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Remnant of the Wolffian/Mesonephric Duct

A

Gartner Duct Cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most common vaginal malignancy

A

Direct spread from cervical carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most common primary vaginal malgnancy

A

SCCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Disease of the young (<5 years)
Grape-like clusters
Malignant embryonal rhabdomyoblasts
May cause urinary tract obstruction

A

Sarcoma Botryoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most important factor in developing cervical CA

A

HPV 16 (60%) and HPV 18 (10%) infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MoA: E7 in Cervical CA

A

Inactivates Rb, p21, and p27;

Promotes cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MoA: E6 in Cervical CA

A

Inactivates p53

Promotes cellular immortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Grading of CIN

A

LSIL:
Confined to lower third of the epithelium

HSIL:
Expansion to upper 2/3 of the epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common cause of death in cervical cancer

A

Uremia from renal spread of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pap Smear Monitoring

A

Start at 21 or within 3 years of first coitus; repeat every 3 years until 30 years of age

Beyond 30, repeat every 5 years

If (+) HR HPV, repeat every 6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Quadrivalent (6, 11, 16, 18) vaccine for HPV

A

Gardasil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

AUB Etiologies

A

PALM COEINS

Polyp
Adenomyosis
Leiomyoma
Malignancy

Coagulopathy
Ovulatory dysfunction
Edometrial Pathology
Iatrogenic
Not classified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Abnormal uterine bleeding without an organic/structural cause

Most common cause: 
Anovuatory Cycle (unopposed estrogen)
A

Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ectopic endometrial tissue
Infertility, dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain
Most common site: Chocolate Cysts (Ovary)
Mediated by elevated PGE2 (increases estrigen synthesis)

A

Endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Endometrial glands in the myometrium
AUB, colicky dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia
Symmetrically enlarged corpus with blood lakes

A

Adenomyosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Regurgitation Theory (Endometriosis)

A

Implantation of ectopic endometrial tissue via retrogade menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Benign endometrial mass associated with Tamoxifen use

A

Endometrial Polyp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tumor suppressor gene found to be inactivated in cases of endometrial hyperplasia

A

PTEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most common malignancy of the female genital tract

A

Endometrial CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
Type of EM CA
50's-60's
Unopposed Estrogen
Endometroid Morphology
PTEN Mutation
Indolent, lymphatic spread
A 
Type I
(Endometroid)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Type of EM CA
60’s-70’s
Atrophic uterus, thin physique
Serous/Clear Cell/Mixed Mullerian Morphology
TP53 Mutation
Aggressive; intraperitoneal lymphatic spread

A

Type II

Serous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most common tumor in women

A

Leiomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Gene mutation involved in leiomyomas

A

MED 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common type of Leiomyoma

A

Intramural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most common pathogen seen in Salphingitis

A

Gonococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Lined by flattened granulosa cells in the ovary
Exhibit Luteinization
Hyperplasia of ovarian theca lutein (Hyperthecosis)

A 
Cystic Follicles (if < 2cm)
Follicular Cysts (if > 2cm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lined by luteinized granulosa cells in the ovary

May rupture and cause peritoneal reaction

A

Corpus Luteum Cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Stein-Leventhal Syndrome

A

Complex endocrine disorder characterized by:

  1. Hyperandrogenism
  2. Menstrual abnormalities
  3. Infertility
  4. Chronic Anovulation
  5. Polycystic ovaries

Associated with: T2DM, MS
Also known as Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Most common ovarian tumor

A

Mullerian Epithelium Type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common type of Surface Epithelial ovarian tumors

A

Serous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Tumor marker for Surface Epithelial ovarian tumors

A

CA 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Type of serous tumor
Well-differentiated
Precursor lesion: Borderline Tumors
Mutations in KRAS. BRAF, ERBB22

A

Low-grade Serous Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Type of serous tumor
Moderately- to poorly-differentiated
Precursor: Serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma (STIC)
TP53, BRCA mutation

A

High-grade Serous Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Surface epithelial ovarian tumor
Mostly benign
Primary type is rare; consider extraovarian primary
KRAS Mutation
Usually unilateral
Associated with Pseudomyxoma Peritonei (mucinous ascites)

A

Mucinous Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common extraovarian source of mucinous ovarian tumors

A

Appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
Surface epithelial ovarian tumor
Coexists with endometriosis (15-20%)
PTEN Mutation
Hallmark: Tubular glands resembling endometrium
Bilateral (40%)
A

Endometroid Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Most common Germ Cell Tumor in females

A

Benign Cystic Teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q 
Type of GCT
Dermoid Cyst-like architecture
Reproductive age women
Contain structures derived from > 1 germ cell layer
Benign
A

Mature Teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q 
Type of GCT
Solid architecture
Young women, children
Contains neuroepthelium
Malignant
A

Immature Teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Teratoma containing ectopic thyroid tissue

May cause hyperthyroidism

A

Struma ovarii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Teratoma that secretes serotonin

A

Carcinoid

rule-out primary intestinal carcinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q 
Germ Cell Tumor
Predominant tissue: Oogonia
Nests of large, vesicular cells with central nuclei and clear cytoplasm
KIT Mutation
Favorable prognosis

Most common malignant GCT

A

Dysgerminoma

Seminoma in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Germ Cell Tumor
Predominant tissue: Extraembryonic yolk sac
Central blood vessels enveloped by tumor cells within a space lined by tumor cells (Schiller-Duval Bodies)
AFP Mutation
Favorable prognosis

Second most common malignant GCT

A

Yolk Sac Tumor

Endodermal Sinus Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Germ Cell Tumor
Predominant tissue: Placenta
HCG Mutation
Unfavorable prognosis

A

Ovarian Chriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Most common primary tumors in ovarian metastasis

A

Tumors of Mullerian Origin

Uterus, FT, contralateral ovary, pelvic peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Most common extra-mullerian primary in ovarian metastasis

A

Bone, GIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Signet ring GIT carcinoma that frequently metastasizes to the ovaries

A

Krukenberg Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cystic swelling of the chorionic villi with trophoblastic proliferation
Differential for bleeding during the first trimester

A

Hydatidiform Mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Triploid Karyotype
Beta-HCG < 100,000
(+) Fetal components, amnion
p57 positive

A

Partial Mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q 
Diploid Karyotype
Beta-HCG > 100,000
(-) Fetal components, amnion
p57 negative
"Snowstorm" on TV UTZ
A

Complete Mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Proliferation of cytotrophoblasts and syncitiotrophoblasts WITHOUT villi formation
Rapidly invasive, widely metastasizing

A

Gestational Choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Character of nipple discharge consistent with malignancy

A

Unilateral, spontaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Most common pathogens associated with mastitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Benign breast lesion
> 2 cell layers in a duct
Distorted lumina at periphery
Mimics Ductal Carcinoma-in-situ

A

Epithelial Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Solid cords or double strand of cells in a densely fibrotic stroma, compressing ducts
Closely mimics Breast CA

A

Sclerosing Adenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Papillary fronds with fibrovascular cores

Bloody nipple discharge present in stalk infarcts

A

Papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Central nidus of entrapped glands in a hyalinized stroma

Combination of epithelial hyperplasia, sclerosing adenosis, and papilloma of the breast

A

Complex Sclerosing Lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Breast neoplasia
Cribiriform pattern
“Cookie Cutter” Appearance
Loss of 16p function, gain of 17q function

A

Atypical ductal hyperplasia

Ductal Carcinoma-in-situ
complete ductal involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Breast neoplasia
Monomorphic, loosely cohesive cells
Loss of E-cadherin

A

Atypical lobular hyperplasia

Lobular Carcinomain-situ
>50% acini involved in a lobule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Most common non-skin malignancy in women

A

Breast CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Female
BRCA1 (Ch17) and BRCA2 (Ch13) Mutation
Estrogen excess

A

Risk factors for Breast CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q 
Breast CIS
Disrupted lobules
Papillary, cribiriform patterns
(+) Necrosis, calcifications
Paget disease of the nipple
Less likely to be bilateral (10-20%)
Variable hormonal status
A

Ductal CIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q 
Breast CIS
No disruption of lobules
No papillary, cribiriform patterns
No necrosis, calcifications
No nipple involvement
More likely to be bilateral (20-40%)
ER (+), PR (+), HER2 (-)
A

Lobular CIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Pagetoid Spread

A

Presence of malignant cells between basement membrane and overlying luminal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In situ breast disease + absence of intact myoepithelial layer
Haphazardly arranged cells with desmoplasia

A

Invasive Ductal Carcinoma, No Special Type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Components of Nottingham Histologic Score

A
  1. Tubule Formation
  2. Nuclear Pleiomorphism
  3. Mitotic Figures (per 10 hpf)

Used in grading Invasive ductal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

CDH1 (E-Cadherin) Loss
Tumor cells in single file (“Indian File”)
Scant desmoplasia
Mucin (+) signet rings

Most common breast cancer to present as occult primary (proven malignant but primary malignancy unknown)

A

Invasive Lobular Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

ER, HER (-)
Syncytium-like solid sheets of large cells with pleiomorphic nuclei in the breast
Lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates
Pushing Borders

A

Medullary CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

High-grade breast tumor
No particular molecular type
Peau d’orange

A

Inflammatory CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Most common benign tumor of the female breast

A

Fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Characteristics of COMPLEX Fibroadenomas

A

Cysts larger then 0.3cm
Papillary apocrine change
sclerosing Adeosis
ePithelial Calcifications

(Mnemonic: CPAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Proliferation of intralobular stroma with epithelium
Ch1q gain Mutation
HOXB13 mutation suggests aggressive behavior
Leaf-like projections

A

Phyllodes Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Characteristics of Male Breast CA

A
  1. Rare
  2. ER (+)
  3. Distant metastases are common on initial diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Most common cause of hyperpituitarism

A

Functional anterior pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Most common type of pituitary adenoma

A

Prolactinoma

84
Q

Second most common type of pituitary adenoma

A

Somatotroph Adenoma

85
Q

Acidophilic cell lines in the pituitary gland

A

Lactotrphs

Somatotrophs

86
Q

Basophilic cell lines in the pituitary gland

A

Corticotroph
Gonadotroph
Thyrotrophs

87
Q

PAS (+) cell line in the pituitary

A

Corticotrophs

due to carbohydrate moiety present in pro-opiomelanocortin

88
Q

Protein used to differentiate neoplastic from normal pituitary parenchyma

A

Reticuln (Collagen Type III):

More sparse in neoplastic tissues

89
Q

Most common cell types in pituitary carcinomas

A

Corticotrophs (42%)

Lactotrophs (33%)

90
Q

Pathophysiology: Sheehan Syndrome

A

Hypopituitarism brought about by ischemic necrosis of the anterior pituitary secondary to pregnancy.

MoA: Physiologic lactotroph hyperplasia in pregnancy without a corresponding increase in blood supply

Posterior pituitary spared due to its independent arterial supply

91
Q

Epithelium-lined cysts found at the posterior portion of the Anterior Pituitary;

Arises from the remnant of an embryonic structure associated with pituitary development

A

Rathke Cleft Cyst

92
Q

Bimodal age incidence
Origin: Vestigial remnants of Rathke’s Pouch
Presents with hypopituitarism or pituitary mass effects
Favorable prognosis

A

Craniopharyngioma

93
Q 
Type of Craniopharyngioma
Squamous Epithelium: Cords, Nests
(+) Spongy reticulum
(+) Peripheral palisading
(+) Wet Keratin
(+) Cyst Formation
A

Adamantinomatous

94
Q 
Type of Craniopharyngioma
Squamous Epithelium: Sheets, Pappillae
(-) Spongy reticulum
(-) Peripheral palisading
(-) Wet Keratin
(-) Cyst Formation
A

Papillary

95
Q

Hypothyroidism in infancy/early childhood

Features:
Mental Retardation
Short stature
Coarse facial features
Protruding Tongue
Umbilical hernia
A

Cretinism

96
Q

Hypothyroidism in late childhood/adulthood

Features:
Slowing of physical and mental activity
Overweight
Hypercholesterolemia
Non-pitting edema
Coarse facial features
Macroglossia
Accumulation of matrix substances in tissue
A

Myxedema

97
Q

Hormonal picture of thyroiditides in general

A

Initially hyperthyroid (release of preformed hormones), progressing to hypothyroidism (destruction of tissue)

98
Q 
Autoantibodies against thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase
Painless goiter
(+) Germinal centers, Fibrosis
(-) Granulomas
Hurthle Cells
Type 4 with Type 2 HSR
A

Hashimoto Thyroidtis

99
Q

Autoantibodies against Thyroid Peroxidase
Painless goiter
Usually with comorbid autoimmune condition
(+) Germinal centers
(-) Fibrosis, granulomas

A

Subacute Lymphocytic / Postpartum Thyroiditis

100
Q

Cell-mediated damage to follicular cells
Painful goiter
Preceding history of URTI
(+) Granulomas

A

Granulomatous Thyroiditis

101
Q

Fibrosis of neck structures, including the Thyroid Gland

Associated with Ormond’s Disease

A

Reidel Thyroiditis

102
Q

Triad of Graves Disease

A
  1. Hyperthyroidism
  2. Ophthalmopathy (exophthalmos)
  3. Dermopathy (pretibial myxedema)
103
Q

Most common cause of endogenous hyperthyroidism

A

Graves Diseases

104
Q

Autoimmune process in Graves Disease

A

Type 2 HSR

Thyroid Stimulating Autoantibodies

105
Q

Pathophysiology: Graves opthalmopathy and dermopathy

A

Activation of TSH receptor-(+) fibroblasts in the retroorbital area and the skin, leading to MATRIX DEPOSITION

106
Q

Most common cause of Goiter

A

Iodine Deficiency

Increased TSH-mediated growth as compensation for decreased iodine

107
Q

Morphologic phases of Goiter

A
  1. Hyperplastic
    (Mediated by TSH; diffuse symmetrical enlargement)
  2. Colloid Involution
    (post-replenishment of iodine; increase in colloid synthesis)
108
Q

Pathogenesis of Multinodular Goiter

A

Scarring from recurrent, alternating hyperplastic-colloid involution states of the thyroid

109
Q

Plummer Syndrome

A

Autonomous, toxic nodule arising from long-standing MNNTG

(-) Ophthalmopathy, Dermopathy

110
Q

Features that suggest thyroid malignancy

A
  1. Solitary nodule
  2. Male
  3. Young
  4. Hx of Radiation
  5. Cold/Non-functional nodules
111
Q

Commonly seen mutations in TOXIC goiters/adenomas

A

Gain of function mutations:

  1. TSH Receptor
  2. Alpha-subunit of the Gs signalling system
112
Q

Feature seen in Thyroid adenomas that are absent in multinodular goiters

A

Intact, well-formed capsules

113
Q

Most common type of thyroid carcinoma

A

Papillary (>85%)

114
Q

Second most common type of thyroid carcinoma

A

Follicular (5-15%)

115
Q

Thyroid carcinoma associated with parafollicular cells

A

Medullary

116
Q

All thyroid carcinomas involve “cold nodules” except

A

Follicular

117
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with Medullary thyroid carcinoma

A
  1. VIP
  2. ACTH
  3. Calcitonin
118
Q

Thyroid carcinoma
Papillary fronds
Orphan Annie Nuclei (optically clear)
Psammoma Bodies

A

Papillary thyroid CA

119
Q

Thyroid carcinoma
Cytologically normal follicular cells
Hurthle Cells in some cases

A

Follicular thyroid CA

120
Q

Thyroid carcinoma
Pleiomorphic giant cells (osteoclast-like)
Spindle-shpaed cells (sarcomatous appearance)

A

Anaplastic thyroid CA

121
Q

Thyroid carcinoma
Small spindle-shaped cells with amyloid deposits
Sporadic type (70%): No parafollicular cell hyperplasia as compared to Familial type (30%)

A

Medullary thyroid CA

122
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Adenoma

123
Q

Mutations associated with parathyroid neoplasias

A

Cyclin D1, MEN1

124
Q

Von Recklinghausen Disease

A

Increase osteoclastic activity
Peritrabecular fibrosis
Cystic brown tumors

125
Q

Most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Renal Failure

compensatory increase in PTH due to calcium wasting

126
Q

Calciphylaxis

A

Metastatic calcification of the blood vessels leading to ischemic injury

127
Q

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

End organ resistance to PTH

128
Q

Most common cause of hypothyroidism

A

Iatrogenic (surgical)

129
Q

Most common susceptibility gene of T1DM

A

Chromosome 6 (6p21)

130
Q

Triad of T2DM Pathogenesis

A
  1. Genetic
  2. Environmental
  3. Proinflammatory State
131
Q

Most important environmental factor in T2DM

A

Central/visceral obesity

increased lipolysis leads to insulin resistance

132
Q

Hallmark of macrovascular T2DM changes

A

Accelerated atherosclerosis secondary to endothelial dysfunction

133
Q

Hallmark of microvascular T2DM changes

A

Diffuse thickening of BM

134
Q

Proteinaceous accumulation in the Bowman Space secondary to protein leak from the glomerulus in DM nephropathy

PAS (+)

A

Kimmelstel-Wilson Bodies

135
Q

Whipple Triad in Insulinomas

A
  1. Hypoglycemia
  2. Neuroglycopenic symptoms
  3. Relief upon parenteral glucose administration
136
Q

Pancreatic islet cell tumor
Hypergastrinemia
Severe peptic ulceration (jejunum)
Usually malignant

A

Gastrinoma

137
Q

Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor
Secretes VIP
Presents as WDHA Syndrome
(Watery diarrhea, Hypokalemia, Achlorhydia)

A

Verner-Morrison Syndrome

138
Q

Most common cause of Cushing Syndrome

A

Exogenous Steroids

iatrogenic

139
Q

Most common endogenous cause of Cushing Syndrome

A

Corticotrophic pituitary adenoma (70%)

Also known as Cushing Disease

140
Q

Homogenous, pale, basophilic cytoplasm characteristic of ACTH-secreting cells

A

Crooke-hyaline change

141
Q

Bilateral diffuse or nodular hyperplasia of the zona fasciculata and reticularis
Dexamethasone suppression observed at high doses in PITUITARY pathologies

A

ACTH-dependent Cushing Syndrome

142
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Bilateral idiopathic hyperplasia

143
Q

MoA of secondary hyperaldosteronism in pregnancy

A

Estrogen induces an increase in plasma renin substrates

144
Q

Expected finding of Fludricortisone suppression test in primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Suppression

145
Q

Most common enzyme deficiency in congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

146
Q

Types of CAH

A

Salt-wasting
(Total 21-hydroxylase deficiency; (-) Gluco, Mineralo)

Simple Virilizing
(Sufficient mineralocorticoids, (-) Gluco)

Late-Onset
(Partial 21-hydroxylase deficiency; asymptomatic)

147
Q

Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage secondary to disseminated bacterial infection (N. meningitides)

A

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen Syndrome

148
Q

Most common cause of Addison Disease

A

Autoimmune adrenalitis

149
Q

Primary chronic adrenal insufficiency
Decreased: Mineralo, Gluco
Collateral MSH increase (hyperpigmentation)
Irregularly shrunken adrenals with lymphoid infiltrates
(-) ACTH stimulation test

A

Addison Disease

150
Q

Hormone deficiencies usually seen in secondary adrenal insufficiency

A

Glucocorticoid

Androgen

151
Q

Hyperadrenalism usually seen in adrenal adenomas

A

Hyperaldosteronism, Hypercortisolism

152
Q

Hyperadrenalism usually seen in adrenal carcinomas

A

Virilization

153
Q

Cytogenetic origin: Chromaffin Cells

Surgically-correctible hypertension

A

Pheochromocytoma

154
Q

Rule of 10’s (Pheochromocytoma)

A

10% Extra-adrenal
10% Bilateral
10% Malignant
10% without hypertension

155
Q

Syndrome:

Prolactinoma
Primary Hyperparathyroidism
Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (PP, Insulinomas)

A

MEN 1

Wermer Syndrome

156
Q

Syndrome:

Pheochromocytoma
Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma
Parathyroid Hyperplasia

A

MEN 2A

Sipple Syndrome

157
Q

Syndrome:

Pheochromocytoma
Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma
Neuromas
Ganglioneuromas
Marfanoid Habitus
A

MEN 2B

158
Q

Separation of nail from nail bed

A

Onycholysis

159
Q

Diffuse epidermal hyperplasia

A

Acanthosis

160
Q

Discontinuity of the skin showing incomplete epidermal loss

A

Erosion

161
Q

Keratinization with retained nuclei in the stratum corneum

A

Parakeratosis

162
Q

Intercellular edema of the epidermis

A

Spongiosis

163
Q

Thickening of the stratum corneum

A

Hyperkeratosis

164
Q

Hyperplasia of the stratum granulosum

A

Hypergranulosis

165
Q

Intracellular edema of the epidermis

A

Hydropic Swelling

166
Q

Mutations associated with Dysplastic Nevi

A

CDKN2A
(disruption in cell cycle control)

TERT
(telomerase)

167
Q

MoA: Benign nature of Melanocytic Nevi

A

Intact p16 suppression despite RAS* mutation

*pro-growth signalling

168
Q

Stages of progression

Melanoma

A

Lentigo (Basal layer of Epidermis)

Dysplastic Nevus (Epidermal atypia; some dermal involvement)

Early Melanoma (Epidermis and superficial dermis)

Advanced Melanoma (Structures beyond dermis)

169
Q

Most important risk factor for melanoma

A

Sun Exposure

170
Q

Skin condition arising from a defect in endonuclease activity in epithelial cells, reducing the capacity of the skin to repair cellular damage associated with UV exposure

A

Xeroderma Pigmentosum

171
Q

Growth phase pattern in melanoma that provides the greatest risk of metastasis

A

Vertical Growth

versus radial growth

172
Q

Special stain used for melanoma

A

Melanin stain

silver-based

173
Q

On hand lens inspection:

Small pore-like ostia impacted with keratin

A

Seborrheic Keratosis

174
Q

Rapid increase in number of seborrheic keratoses;

often seen in paraneoplastic syndromes of GIT tumors

A

Leser-Trelat Sign

175
Q

Horn Cysts

A

Small keratin-filled cysts

176
Q 
Thickened, hyperpigmented skin
Velvet-like texture
Flexural areas
Hyperkeratosis
Basal cell hyperpigmentation WITHOUT melanocytic hyperplasia
A

Acanthosis Nigricans

177
Q

Sun-damaged skin
Premalignant lesion to SCCA
Cutaneous horn
Atypical dyskeratotic cells in basal epidermis with intercellular bridges (no bridges in SCCA)

A

Actinic Keratosis

178
Q

Second most common tumor arising in sun-exposed sites
Associated with Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Plaques to nodules with ulceration
More metastatic than locally aggressive

A

SCCA

179
Q

Most common invasive cancer in humans
Associated with Gorlin Syndrome (Nevoid BCCA)
Pearly papules with telangiectasia, rodent ulcer
More locally aggressive than metastatic

A

BCCA

180
Q

Wart-like lesions caused by HPV 5 and HPV 8

A

Epidermodysplasia Verruciformis

181
Q

Increase in dermal microvascular permeability, clinically presenting as wheals

A

Urticaria

182
Q

Type 4 HSR of the skin

Hallmark: Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, and spongiosis

A

Acute Eczematous Dermatitis

183
Q

Type 4 HSR of the skin (CD8+ T-cell)
Separation of skin layers at the dermal-epidermal junction (DEJ)
Target Lesion:
1. Red macule or papule with a pale, vesicular, or eroded center
2. Superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate
3. Dermal edema

A

Erythema Multiforme

184
Q

Spectrum of Erythema Multiforme

A

Steven-Johnson Syndrome
(<10% BSA, with mucosal and systemic involvement)

SJS-TEN Overlap
(10-30% BSA)

Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
(>30% BSA)

185
Q

Site of separation between skin layers in Reiter Disease (Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome)

A

Stratum granulosum

186
Q

Type 4 HSR of the skin
Salmon-colored plaques with loosely adherent silver scales
Acanthosis with elongation of rete ridges (test tubes on a rack appearance)
Thinned/absent stratum granulosum

Auspitz Sign
Koebner Phenomenon
Spongiform pustules of Kogoj
Munro microabscesses

A

Psoriasis

187
Q

Auspitz Sign

A

Pinpoint bleeding when lifting a scale

188
Q

Koebner Phenomenon

A

Emergence of the lesion at new sites post-trauma

189
Q

Abscesses formed in the stratum corneum;

associated with psoriasis

A

Munro microabscesses

190
Q

Macules and papules on an erythematous-yellow, greasy base with extensive scaling and crusting
Associated with Malassezia infections

A

Seborrheic Dermatitis

191
Q 
Type 4 HSR of the skin
Pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules and plaques  (6 P's)
Wickham Striae
Civatte/colloid bodies
Epidermal hyperplasia Keratosis
Sawtoothing of DEJ
A

Lichen Planus

192
Q

Whitish lines visible on papules and plaques in Lichen Planus and other dermatophytoses

A

Wickham Striae

193
Q

Eosinophilic hyaline bodies associated with Lichen Planus

A

Civatte Bodies

194
Q

Pathophysiology: Epidermolysis bullosa

A

Defects in keratin, laminin, and Type VII collagen

195
Q

Chronic inflammation of pilosebaceous unit
Hallmark: Comedogenesis
Pathogen: Propinibacterium sp.

A

Acne vulgaris

196
Q

Pruritic pink to skin-colored papules with central umbilication
Pox Virus

A

Molluscum Contagiousum

197
Q

Large ellipsoid, homogenous cytoplasmic inclusions in the stratum granulosum and stratum corneum
Associated with Pox Virus

A

Molluscum Bodies

198
Q

Localized problems in migration and condensation of mesenchyme

A

Dysostoses

199
Q

Most common skeletal dysplasia

A

Achondroplasia

200
Q

Most common lethal form of dwarfism

A

Thanatophoric Dysplasia

201
Q

Brittle bone disease
Defect in collagen type 1 synthesis
Brittle Bone Disease
Most lethal subtype: Type II

Most common inherited disorder of connective disorder

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

202
Q 
Impaired osteoclast function
Marble Bone Disease
Diffuse symmetric skeletal sclerosis
First disorder to be treated with hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
Absence of medullary canal
Erlenmeyer Flask Deformity
A

Albers-Schonberg Disease

Osteopetrosis

203
Q

Hallmark of Osteoporosis

A

Histologically normal bone, but decreased in quantity

204
Q

Increased but disordered and structurally unsound bone mass
Primarily a disease of the elderly
Commonly affects the axial skeleton and proximal femur
Bone pain from microfractures

A

Paget Disease

Osteitis Deformans

205
Q

Phases of Paget Disease

A

Osteoclastic Phase
Mixed
Osteoblastic Phase

PLE 2017: Pathology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions