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PLE 2017: Pathology > Pathology (Sections 11-15) > Flashcards

Pathology (Sections 11-15) Flashcards

1
Q

Pattern of sarcomere formation associated with COVERLOAD?

A

Parallel

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2
Q

Pattern of sarcomere formation associated with VOLUME OVERLOAD?

A

Series

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3
Q

Heart Failure Cells

A

Hemosiderin-laden Macrophages

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4
Q

Nutmeg Liver

A

Centrilobular congestion and ischemia

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5
Q

Most common genetic cause of congenital heart defects

A

Trisomy 21

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6
Q

Marker of irreversibility in Congestive Heart Disease

A

Pulmonary Hypertension

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7
Q

Most common type of ASD

A

Secundum (90%)

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8
Q

Timetable for PFO Closure

A

Closed in 80% of individuals by 2 years

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9
Q

Most common Congenital Heart Disease

A

VSD

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10
Q

Most common type of VSD?

A

Perimembranous (90%)

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11
Q

Size of defect in non-restrictive VSD

A

> 10mm

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12
Q

Factors involved in PDA closure

A

Increased:
Oxygen Tension

Decreased:
Pulmonary Vascular Resistance
Prostaglandin E2

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13
Q

Components of ductus arteriosus in preterm infants that are ABSENT in term infants?

A

Mucoid Epithelium

Muscular Media

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14
Q

Most common cyanotic CHD

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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15
Q

Primary defect in ToF

A

Anterosuperior displacement of infundibular septum

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16
Q

Mild pulmonary stenosis in ToF; clinically resembles isolated VSD

A

Pink ToF

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17
Q

Ventriculoarterial Discordance

CXR: Egg-on-the-side, Apple-on-a-stem

A

TGA

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18
Q

Absence of direct communication between RA and RV

A

Tricuspid Atresia

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19
Q

Coarctation found proximal to the PDA
Lower extremity cyanosis
RVH/Biventricular

A

Infantile Type

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20
Q 
Coarctation distal to the arch vessels
Upper extremity HPN
Ribnotching
Increased blood flow to intercostal vessels
LVH
A

Adult Type

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21
Q

Vessels most commonly involved in MI

A 
Left Anterior Descending (40-50%)
Right Coronary (30-40%)
Left Circumflex (15-20%)
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22
Q

Myocardial Infarction Progression:

Pale zone seen with triphenyltetrazolium chloride

A

2 to 3 hours

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23
Q

Myocardial Infarction Progression:

Conversion to a pale, soft, tan infarct

A

12 to 24 hours

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24
Q

Myocardial Infarction Progression:

Conversion to a fibrous scar

A

10 days to 2 weeks

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25
Q

Myocardial Infarction Progression:

Microscopically apparent coagulative necrosis

A

6 to 12 hours

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26
Q

Myocardial Infarction Progression:

Acute inflammation; neutrophilic predominance

A

1 to 3 days

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27
Q

Myocardial Infarction Progression:

Macrophagocytic predominance

A

3 to 7 days

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28
Q

Most sensitive and specific cardiac biomarkers for MI

A

Troponin T, Tropinin I

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29
Q

Biomarker used to assess possible rinfarction

A

CK-MB

returns to normal levels within 2 to 3 days

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30
Q

Pathophysiology: Dressler Syndrome

A

Fibrinous pericarditis in a post-MI setting

Also known as:
Postmyocardial infarct syndrome

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31
Q

Most common CAUSE of Sudden Cardiac Death

A

Coronary Artery Disease (80%)

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32
Q

Most common MECHANISM of Sudden Cardiac Death

A

Lethal Arrhythmia

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33
Q

Most common cause of arrhythmias

A

Ischemic injury

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34
Q

Earliest histologic change in hypertensive heart disease

A

Increased transverse diameter of cardiac myocytes

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35
Q

Most common valvular heart disease

A

Calcific Aortic Stenosis

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36
Q

Aschoff Bodies

A

Foci of T-Cells, Plasma Cells, and Anitschkow Cells

Pathognomonic of Rheumatic Fever

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37
Q

Anitschkow Cells

A

Enlarged macrophages found in Aschoff Bodies

Also called Caterpillar Cells

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38
Q

Fequency of involvement of valves in RF

A

Decreasing frequency:

Mitral
Aortic
Tricuspid
Pulmonic

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39
Q

MacCallum Plaques

A

Irregular subendocardial thickenings seen in regurgitant processes

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40
Q

Small cardiac vegetations seen along lines of closure, overlying fibrinoid necrosis

A

Verrucae

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41
Q

Deformity seen in calcification and fibrous bridging of valvular commisures

A

Fish Mouth / Button Hole

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42
Q

Major manifestations of RF

A

Mnemonic: J<3NES

Joints (Arthritis)
Heart (Carditis)
Nodules (Subcutaneous)
Erythema Marginatum
Sydenham Chorea
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43
Q

Hallmark of infective endocarditis

A

Vegetations

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44
Q

Most commonly affected valves in infective endocarditis

A

In general: Left-sided (Mitral, Aortic)

IV Drug Users: Right-sided (Pulmonic, Tricuspid)

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45
Q

Small-medium sized vegetations on BOTH sides of the valve leaflet

A

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis

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46
Q

Small, BLAND vegetations attached to the lines of closure

A

Nonbacterial Thrombotic Endocarditis

Previously known as Marantic Endocarditis

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47
Q

Flushing
Diarrhea
Dermatitis
Bronchoconstriction

A

Carcinoid Syndrome

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48
Q

Glistening white, intimal, plaque-like thickenings in endocardium

Usually affects right side of the heart

Associated with massive hepatic metastases

A

Carcinoid Heart Disease

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49
Q

Cardiomyopathy with systolic dysfunction
(EF < 40%)

Titin defect (in 20% of cases)

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

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50
Q

Massive, assymetric myocyte hypertrophy with myofiber disarray and interstitial fibrosis

Associated with defective Beta Myosin Heavy Chain

Diastolic dysfunction; EF may be preserved

A

Hypertrophc Cardiomyopathy

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51
Q

Cardiomyopathy secondary to excess catecholamines from psychologic stress

A

Tako-tsubo Cardiomyopathy

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52
Q

Pathophysiology: Arrhythmogenic RV Cardiomyopathy

A

Defective desmosomes

Severely thinned RV myocardium with fatty infiltrates and fibrosis

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53
Q

Pathophysiology: Naxos Syndrome

A

Plakoglobin Mutation

SSx of ARVC + Hyperkeratosis of plantar and palmar skin surfaces

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54
Q

Most common infectious cause of myocarditis

A

Viral (Coxsackie A and B, Enterovorus)

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55
Q 
Atrial involvement (LA > RA)
Ball-valve Obstruction
Solitary, sessile/pedunculated mass mottled with hemorrhage

Most comkon primary cardiac tumor in adults

A

Myxoma

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56
Q

Ventricular involvement
Multiple gray-white masses
Spider cells

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

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57
Q

Beck Triad

A
  1. Increased JVP
  2. Arterial hypotension
  3. Muffled Heart Sounds
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58
Q

Systolic retraction of the rib cage and diaphragm and pulsus paradoxus in the setting of CHRONIC pericarditis

A

Adhesive mediastinopericarditis

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59
Q

Single most important long-term limitation of cardiac transplantation

A 
Allograft arteriopathy
(Diffuse intimal proliferation of coronary arteries leading to ischemia)
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60
Q

Clinically significant neutropenia (< 500/mm^3)

Most common cause: Drug Toxicity

A

Agranulocytosis

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61
Q

Lymphadenitis histologically composed of:

  1. Light zone of Centrocytes
  2. Dark zone of Centroblasts
  3. Tingible Body Macrophages
A

Follicular Hyperplasia (B-Cell)

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62
Q

Lymphadenitis histologically composed of:

  1. Immunoblasts
  2. Hypertrophic sinusoidal and vascular endothelial cells
A

Parafollicular Hyperplasia (T-Cells)

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63
Q

Lymphadenitis histologically composed of an increased number of macrophages and cells lining lymphatic sinusoids

A

Sinus Histiocytosis / Reticular Hyperplasia

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64
Q

Congenital form of Neutropenia

A

Korstmann Syndrome

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65
Q

Most common cancer in children

A

Acute Lymphocytic blastic Leukemia

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66
Q

Most common leukemia of adults in the western world

A

Chonic Lymphocytic Leukemia,

Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma

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67
Q

Most commonly n ndolent lymphoma in adults

A

Follicular Lymphoma

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68
Q

Most common lymphoma of adults

A

Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma

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69
Q

Most common form of Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma

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70
Q 
Early childhood
Presents as BM Failure
Hypercellular marrow with lymphoblasts
Immunostain: TdT (95%)
Metastases: Meninges, Testes (sanctuary site)
A

B-Cell Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

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71
Q 
Adolescent males
Presents as thymic masses
NOTCH-1 Mutation (70%)
Hypercellular marrow with lymphoblasts
Immunostain: TdT (95%)
Metastases: Meningeal, Testes (sanctuary site)
A

T-Cell Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

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72
Q

Poor prognostic factors in ALL

A
  1. Age less than 2 and greater than 10 years

2. WBC > 100,000

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73
Q

Favorable prognostic factors in ALL

A
  1. Age 2-10
  2. WBC < 100,000
  3. Hyperdiploidy
  4. Trisomy 4, 7, and 10
  5. T(12;21) mutation
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74
Q

60 years, M > F
Hypogammaglobulinemia
PBS: Small lymphocytes, Smudge Cells
Peripheral lymphocytosis: > 5,000/mm^3

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

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75
Q

Difference between Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) and Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma (SLL)

A

Peripheral Blood Lymphocytosis

CLL: > 5,000 / mm^3
SLL: < 5,000 / mm^3

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76
Q

Pathophysiology: Richter Syndrome

A

Transformation of CLL into more aggressive lymphomas, usually Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma

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77
Q

Middle Age
Painless, generalized lymphadenopathy
BCL2/t(14;18) Mutation in 90%
BMA: Paratrabecular Lymphoid Aggregates (85%)

Histologically similar to B-Cell Hyperplasia WITHOUT Tingible Body Macrophages

Incurable

A

Follicular Lymphoma

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78
Q

60 years, M > F
Rapidly enlarging nodal or extranodal mass
BCL6, BCL2 Mutation (10-20%)
Aggressive, rapidly fatal

A

Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma

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79
Q

Immunostians used in DLBCL

A
  1. CD45 (lymphoid)
  2. CK (Epithelial)
  3. Vimentin (mesenchymal)
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80
Q 
Mandibular mass
Latent EBV Infection in ALL cases
MYC t(8:14) Mutation
"Starry Sky" Pattern
Aggressive but treatable
A

Endemic Burkitt Lymphoma

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81
Q 
Ileocecal or peritoneal mass
Latent EBV Infection in 10-20% 
MYC t(8:14) Mutation
"Starry Sky" Pattern
Aggressive but treatable
A

Sporadic Burkitt Lymphoma

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82
Q 
"Punched-out" bony lesions
Pain, Hypercalcemia, Recurrent Infections
Cyclin overexpression
Histology: Russel Bodies, Dutcher Bodies
Bence-Jones Proteinuria (Ig light-chain)
M Proteins (monoclonal antibodies)
A

Multiple Myeloma

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83
Q

Indicator of poor prognosis in Multiple Myeloma

A

Elevated IL-6

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84
Q

“Solitary MM”

Most progress to multiple myeloma within 7-10 years

A

Solitary Plasmacytoma

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85
Q

Same presentation as CLL/SLL
Plasma Cell Differentiation
Hyperviscosity Syndrome
No bone manifestations

A

Lymphoplasmacytic Lymphoma

Waldenstrom Macroglobulnemia

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86
Q

Features: Hyperviscosity Syndrome

A
  1. Visual Changes
  2. Neurologic Deficits
  3. Bleeding
  4. Cryoglobulinemia
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87
Q

Painless lymphadenopathy
Naive B-Cell origin
No prolymphocytes, centroblasts
Poor prognosis

A

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

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88
Q

Seen in tissues with CHRONIC inflammation
Memory B-Cell origin
Regresses when inciting agent is removed

A

Marginal Zone Lymphoma

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89
Q 
Splenomegaly
B-Cell Origin
Associated with atypical mycobacteria
"Dry Tap"
Excellent prognosis
A

Hairy Cell Leukemia

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90
Q

T-Cell Origin
Hallmark: Large anaplastc cells with horseshoe-shaped nuclei
(+) CD30, ALK

A

Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma

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91
Q

CD4+ T-Cell Origin
Cloverleaf Cells (multilobulated nuclei)
HTLV-1 (retrovirus) infection
Poor prognosis

A

Adult T-Cell Leukemia/Lymphoma

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92
Q

CD4+ Helper T-Cell Origin in skin
Pautrier Microabscesses
Sezary Syndrome

A

Mycosis Fungoides

Also known as Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma

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93
Q

Pautrier Microabscess

A

Infiltration of epidermis and upper dermis by Sezary Cells

Seen in Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma

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94
Q

Pathophysiology: Sezary Syndrome

A

Generalized exfoliative erythroderma with leukemia of Sezary Cells

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95
Q

T-Cells with cerebriform nuclei

Seen in Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma

A

Sezary Cells

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96
Q

Reed-Sternberg Cells

A

“Owl-eye Nuclei”

Diagnostic of Hodgkin Lymphoma

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97
Q

Lymphoma more often localized to single axial group of nodes
Contiguous Spread
Rare extranodal presentation

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

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98
Q

Sexual predisposition of HL

A

M > F

except Nodular Sclerosis-type; M=F

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99
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma most commonly associated with HIV

A

Lymphocyte Depleted HL

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100
Q

FAB M3 Mutation
Faggot Cells
Associated with DIC
Treatable: ATRA

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia

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101
Q

Cells with multiple needle-like azurophilic granules (Auer Rods)

Seen in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia

A

Faggot Cells

102
Q

Defective hematopoietic maturation
Bone Marrow Failure
Poor prognosis

Ringed Sideroblasts (erythroid)
Pseudo-Pelget-Huet Cells (granulocytic)
Pawn Ball (megakaryocytic)
A

Myelodysplastic Syndrome

103
Q

Erythroblasts with Prussian Blue (+) iron-laden mitochondria

Seen in MDS

A

Ringed Sideroblasts

104
Q

PMN’s with only 2 lobes

Seen in MDS

A

Pseudo-Pelget-Huet Cells

105
Q

Megakaryocytes with single, multilobulated nuclei OR multiple, separated nuclei

Seen in MDS

A

Pawn Ball Megakaryocyte

106
Q

BCR-ABL t(9;22)

A

Philadelphia Chromosome

Seen in CHronic Myelogenous Leukemia

107
Q

Preferential proliferation of granulocytic and magakaryocytic lines
Philadelphia Chromoosome
Hypercellular marrow with sea-blue histiocytes

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

108
Q

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
10-19% Myeloblasts
Increasing splenomegaly

A

Accelerated Phase

109
Q

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
>20% Myeloblasts
Large cluster of blasts in BMA
Chloroma (focus of leukemia outside BM)

A

Blast Crisis

110
Q

Plethoric
Erythromelalgia
JAK2 Mutation in most cases
Increase in all cell lines, esp. erythroid

A

Polycythemia Vera

111
Q

Increase in megakaryocyte cell line
Erythromelalgia
Giant platelets in peripheral blood
JAK2 Mutation in HALF of cases

A

Essential Thrombocytosis

112
Q 
Extensive, non-neoplastic deposition of collagen in BM
Hepatosplenomegaly
Decreased Erythroid line
Leukoerythroblastosis
Dacryocytes
A

Primary Myelofibrosis

113
Q

Tear-drop Cell
Abnormally-shaped poikilocyte

Seen in Myelofibrosis

A

Dacryocyte

114
Q

Proliferative disorder of Dendritic Cells

Birbeck Granules

A

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

115
Q

Racket-shaped cytoplasmic organelles found exclusively in Langerhans Cells

Contain Langerin Proteins

A

Birbeck Granules

116
Q

Most common Thymic Malignancy

117
Q

Intrinsic type of hemolysis with INTRAVASCULAR hemolysis

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
(Intrinsic)

G6PD
(Mixed)

118
Q

Autosomal Dominant
Spherical cells without central pallor
Elevated MCHC

Diagnostic: Osmotic Fragility Test

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

119
Q 
X-Linked Recessive
Reduced NAPH for glutathione reduction
Heinz Bodies in asplenic patients
Bite Cells
Protective against Malaria

Diagnostic: NBS

A

Glucose-6-phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency

120
Q

Autosomal Recessive
Mutation in 6th codon of Beta-Globulin gene (Glu to Val)
Target Cells (Codocytes)
Howell-Jolly Bodies (in asplenic patients)
Protective against Malaria

Diagnostic: Hemoglobin Electrophoresis

A

Sickle Ccell Anemia

121
Q

Heinz Body

A

Intracellular inclusion in RBCs composed of denatured hemoglobin

Seen in G6PD Deficiency

122
Q

Howell-Jolly Bodies

A

Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs

Seen in Sickle Cell Anemia

123
Q

Major hemoglobins of Beta-Thalassemia

A

Major:
HbF (a2y2)

Minor:
HbA2 (a2d2)

124
Q

Major hemoglobins of Alpha-Thalassemia

A

Newborns:
Barts (y4)

Older:
HbH (b4)

125
Q 
PIGA Mutation
Decreased DAF (CD55), CD59, C8 Binding Protein
MAC-mediated intravascular hemolysis
Mechanism enhanced by acidic nocturnal blood pH

Diagnostic: Flow Cytometry

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

126
Q

Hemolysis characterized by partial phagocytosis and conversion of RBCs to spherocytes

A

Warm Hemolysis

127
Q

Cold Hemolysis

A

Hemolysis characterized by opsonization via C3b

128
Q

Common function of Folic Acid and Cobalamin

A

Conversion of homocysteine to methionine during tetrahydrofolate regeneration

129
Q

MoA: decreased transferrin in Anemia of Chronic Disease

A

IL-6 upregulates Hepcidin;

Hepcidin promotes intracellular storage of Iron, and inhibits its GIT absorption

130
Q

Infectious etiology of Pure Red Cell Aplasia

A

Parvovirus B19

131
Q

Pathophysiology: Myelophthisic Anemia

A

Anemia from ANY space-occupying lesion that replaces normal marrow elements

132
Q

Autoantibodies involved in ITP

A

Antibodies (IgG) against Gp IIb/IIIa and Gp Ib-IX (80%)

133
Q

Pathophysiology: Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia

A

Type I:
Direct aggregating effect of Heparin

Type II:
Platelet activation and aggregation initiated by antibodies directed against Heparin-Platelet Factor 4 Complex

134
Q

Most common hematologic manifestation of HIV

A

HIV-associated Thrombocytopenia

135
Q 
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Renal Failure
Fever
Neurologic Manifestations

Decreased ADAMTS13 (metalloproteinase that degrades vWF)

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic Purpura

136
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Renal Failure
Normal ADAMTS13

Associated with EHEC infections (Typical variant)

A

Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome

137
Q

True or False?

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia presents with Thrombocytopenia

138
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

vWF Disease

Autosomal Dominant

139
Q

Types of vWF Disease

A

Type 1: Mild, Quantitative
Type 2: Qualitative
Type 3: Severe, Quantitative

140
Q

Most common hereditary syndrome associated with life-threatening bleeding

A

Hemophilia

X-linked Recessive

141
Q

X-linked Recessive
Factor VIII Deficiency

Diagnostic: Factor Assay

A

Hemophilia A

142
Q

X-linked Recessive
Factor IX Deficiency

Diagnostic: Factor Assay

A

Hemophilia B

Christmas Disease

143
Q

Hemophilia Severity

A

Mild: 6-50%
Moderate: 2-5%
Severe: < or = 1%

144
Q

Pathophysiology: Transfusion-related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)

A

Activation of PMNs in the lung vasculature

145
Q

Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage secondary to fibrin thrombi

A

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen Syndrome

146
Q
  1. Large vascular tumors
  2. Thrombocytopenia
  3. Consumptive Coagulopathy
A

Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome

147
Q

Histologic manifstation of ARDS

A

Diffuse alveolar damage

148
Q

Type of emphysma involving the respiratory bronchioles and the alveoli.

Deficiency in anti-proteases dictate pathogenessis

A

Panacinar

versus Centriacinar

149
Q

Curschmann Spirals

A

Whorls of shed epithelium

Seen in Status Asthmaticus

150
Q

Charcot-Leyden Crystals

A

Eosinophilic crystals seen in Status Asthmaticus

151
Q

Pathophysiology: Kartagener Syndrome

A

Prmary ciliary dyskinesia

152
Q

Earliest lesion in interstitial pneumonia

A

Fibroblast Focus

153
Q

Late lesion in Interstitial Pneumonia

A

Honeycomb Fibrosis

154
Q

Nonneoplastic lung reaction to inhaled organic/inorganic dust, usually in the workplace

A

Pneumoconioses

155
Q

Coal macules (macrophages) within a collagen fiber network

A

Coal Nodules

156
Q

Most commonly implicated: Quartz
Increased susceptibility to TB
CXR: Eggshell Calcifications

157
Q

Carcinogenic mechanism of Asbestos

A
  1. Amphibole geometric form
  2. Free radical generation
  3. Surface for adhesion of other carcinogenic substances
158
Q

Most common malignancy associated with Asbestos

A

Lung carcinoma

159
Q

Mean PA pressure at rest

160
Q

Most common cause of CAP

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

161
Q

Most common bacterial cause of acute COPD exacerbation

A

Hemophilus influenzae

162
Q

Second most common bacterial cause of acute COPD exacerbations

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

163
Q 
Organism associated with:
Post-viral pneumonia
Pneumonia in IV drug users
HCAP
Lung Abscesses
Empyema
A

Staphylococcus aureus

164
Q

Most common cause of gram negative bacterial pneumonia

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

165
Q

Pontiac Fever

Legionnaire’s Disease

A

Legionella pneumophila

166
Q

Major cause of pandemic and epidemic viral pneumonia

A

Influenza A Virus

Orthomyxovirus

167
Q

Cardinal histologic change in Lung Abscesses

A

Suppurative destruction of parenchyma within the cavitation

168
Q

Most common lung carcinoma
Peripherally located
Female, Non-smokers
No paraneoplastic syndromes

A

Adenocarcinoma

169
Q

Second most common lung carcinoma
Centrally located
Males, Smokers
Paraneoplastic: Hypercalcemia

A

Squamous Cell

170
Q 
Third most common lung carcinoma
Either central or peripheral
Strongest association with smokers
Paraneoplastic: SIADH, Cushing
No precursor lesions
A

Small Cell

171
Q

Azzopardi Effect

A

Basophilic staining of vascular walls, indicating adherent DNA from necrotic cells

172
Q

Pathophysiology:

Lambert Eaton Myesthenic Syndrome

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of autoantibodies against presynaptic calcium channels in the NMJ

173
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Pancoast tumors

A

Horner Syndrome

174
Q

Low-grade malignant epithelial neoplasm
Neuroendocrine origin
Intraluminal polypoid mass in mainstem bronchi
“Collar Button” Lesion

A

Carcinoids

175
Q

Volume of pleural fluid

176
Q

Light Criteria

A
  1. Pleural fluid to serum protein ratio > 0.5
  2. Pleural fluid to serum LDH ratio > 0.6
  3. Pleural fluid greater than 2/3 the normal upper limit in serum

If suspecting transudative fluid, difference between serum and pleural fluid protein >31 g/dL

177
Q

Pneumothorax sufficient to cause compression of the mediastinal structures

178
Q

Pulmonary tumor
Dense fibrous tissue with occasional cysts
Whorls of reticulin and collagen with spindle cells
CD34 (+)
Keratin (-)

A

Solitary Fibrous Tumor

179
Q

Pulmonary Tumor
Thick, soft, gelatinous, pink tumor
Histology: Epithelioid (60%), Sarcomatoid, Mixed

Strong association with Asbestos

A

Malignant Mesothelioma

180
Q

Main cause of tooth loss before age 35

A

Dental carries

181
Q

Calcified dental plaque

182
Q

Inflammation of periodontal ligaments, alveolar bone, and cementum

A

Periodontitis

183
Q

Common pathogens for Periodontitis

A

Actinobacillus
Porphyromonas
Prevotella

184
Q

Painful, shallow oral ulcers
Most common during first 2 decades of life
Associated with Behcet Disease
Regresses in 7-10 days

A

Aphthuous Ulcer

185
Q

High risk of recurrence is an indication for complete excision to the level of the periosteum

A

Pyogenic Granuloma

186
Q

HSV 1 Infection
Gingival involvement
Painful ulcerations with serous vesicles/bullae
Intracellular and intercellular edema (Acantholysis)

Diagnostic: Tzanck Smear

A

Acute Herpetic Gingivostomatitis

187
Q

HSV 2 Infection
Reactivation of latent infection
Site of primary inoculation and areas sharing same innervation
Painful ulcerations with serous vesicles/bullae
Intracellular and intercellular edema (Acantholysis)

Diagnostic: Tzanck Smear

A

Recurrent Herpetic Stomatitis

188
Q

Most common oral fungal infection

A

Candidiasis

189
Q

Histologic manifstation of ARDS

A

Diffuse alveolar damage

190
Q

Type of emphysma involving the respiratory bronchioles and the alveoli.

Deficiency in anti-proteases dictate pathogenessis

A

Panacinar

versus Centriacinar

191
Q

Curschmann Spirals

A

Whorls of shed epithelium

Seen in Status Asthmaticus

192
Q

Charcot-Leyden Crystals

A

Eosinophilic crystals seen in Status Asthmaticus

193
Q

Pathophysiology: Kartagener Syndrome

A

Prmary ciliary dyskinesia

194
Q

Earliest lesion in interstitial pneumonia

A

Fibroblast Focus

195
Q

Late lesion in Interstitial Pneumonia

A

Honeycomb Fibrosis

196
Q

Nonneoplastic lung reaction to inhaled organic/inorganic dust, usually in the workplace

A

Pneumoconioses

197
Q

Coal macules (macrophages) within a collagen fiber network

A

Coal Nodules

198
Q

Most commonly implicated: Quartz
Increased susceptibility to TB
CXR: Eggshell Calcifications

199
Q

Carcinogenic mechanism of Asbestos

A
  1. Amphibole geometric form
  2. Free radical generation
  3. Surface for adhesion of other carcinogenic substances
200
Q

Most common malignancy associated with Asbestos

A

Lung carcinoma

201
Q

Mean PA pressure at rest

202
Q

Seen in EBV Infections

White, confluent, hyperkeratotic plaques that cannot be scraped off

A

Hairy Leukoplakia

203
Q

Comprise 95% of head and neck cancers

Tumors associated with smoking and alcoholism (Classical) have worse prognoses than thos associated with HPv 16

A

Squamous Cell CA

204
Q

True cyst
Usually solitary
Associated with impacted third molar
Recurrence in incomplete resection

A

Dentigirous Cyst

205
Q 
True Cyst
Keratinized
Solitary (80%), posterior mandible
Locally aggressive; recurs with incomplete excision
Associated with Gorlin Syndrome
A

Kertatocystic Odontogenic Tumor

Odontogenic Keratocyst

206
Q

Pathophysiology: Gorlin Syndrome

A

Inherited multisystemic disorder characterized by an increased risk of developing non-melanoma skin cancer

207
Q

Most common epithelial odontogenic tumor

A

Ameloblastoma

208
Q

Pathophysiology: Schneiderian Papilloma

A

Histologically benign, biologically aggressive nasopharyngeal tumor.

Associated with HPV 6 and HPV 11

209
Q

Most radiosensitive type of nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

Undifferentiated

210
Q

Single or multiple laryngeal nodules
Squamous cortex with loose myxoid core
Associated with smoking and voice straining
No risk of malignancy

A

Reactive Nodules

211
Q

Elderly males (60’s)
Persistent hoarseness, dysphagia, dysphonia
Hyperplasia-dysplasia-carcinoma sequence
Most common type: Squamous Cell

A

Laryngeal Carcinoma

212
Q

Most common causes of acute bacterial otitis media

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. Haemophilus influenzae, non-typable
  3. Moraxella catarrhalis
213
Q

Common site of Otosclerosis

A

Rim of the Oval Window

214
Q

Remnant of the second branchial arch
Presents as lateral neck mass along SCM
True cysts

A

Branchial Cleft Cyst

Also known as
Cervical Lymphoepithelial Cyst

215
Q

Remnant of embryonic thyroid descent
True cyst
Presents as midline neck mass

Most common congenital anomaly of the Thyroid

A

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst

216
Q

Types of Paragangliomas by location

A

Paravertebral (Sympathetic)

Aorticopulmonary Chain (Parasympathetic)

217
Q

Histologic features of Paragangliomas

A

Zellballen with delicate vascular septae
Salt-and-pepper Chromatin
No Atypia

218
Q

Most common cause of Xerostomia

219
Q

Most common type of salivary gland lesion

220
Q

True cysts associated with sublingual duct damage

221
Q

Most common form of viral sialadenitis

222
Q

Most commonly affected gland in sialolithiasis

A

Submandibular

223
Q

Most common site of salivary gland tumors

A

Parotid Gland

224
Q

Most common salivary gland tumor

A

Pleiomorphic Adenoma

225
Q

Most common primary malignant salivary gland tumor

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

226
Q

Second most common bengn tumor of the salivary glands
Almost exclusively involves Parotids
Associated with smoking

A

Warthin Tumor

Also known as:
Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

227
Q

Seen in EBV Infections

White, confluent, hyperkeratotic plaques that cannot be scraped off

A

Hairy Leukoplakia

228
Q

Comprise 95% of head and neck cancers

Tumors associated with smoking and alcoholism (Classical) have worse prognoses than those associated with HPV 16

A

Squamous Cell CA

229
Q

True cyst
Usually solitary
Associated with impacted third molar
Recurrence in incomplete resection

A

Dentigirous Cyst

230
Q 
True Cyst
Keratinized
Solitary (80%), posterior mandible
Locally aggressive; recurs with incomplete excision
Associated with Gorlin Syndrome
A

Kertatocystic Odontogenic Tumor

Odontogenic Keratocyst

231
Q

Pathophysiology: Gorlin Syndrome

A

Inherited multisystemic disorder characterized by an increased risk of developing non-melanoma skin cancer

232
Q

Most common epithelial odontogenic tumor

A

Ameloblastoma

233
Q

Pathophysiology: Schneiderian Papilloma

A

Histologically benign, biologically aggressive nasopharyngeal tumor.

Associated with HPV 6 and HPV 11

234
Q

Most radiosensitive type of nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

Undifferentiated

235
Q

Single or multiple laryngeal nodules
Squamous cortex with loose myxoid core
Associated with smoking and voice straining
No risk of malignancy

A

Reactive Nodules

236
Q

Elderly males (60’s)
Persistent hoarseness, dysphagia, dysphonia
Hyperplasia-dysplasia-carcinoma sequence
Most common type: Squamous Cell

A

Laryngeal Carcinoma

237
Q

Most common causes of acute bacterial otitis media

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. Haemophilus influenzae, non-typable
  3. Moraxella catarrhalis
238
Q

Common site of Otosclerosis

A

Rim of the Oval Window

239
Q

Remnant of the second branchial arch
Presents as lateral neck mass along SCM
True cysts

A

Branchial Cleft Cyst

Also known as
Cervical Lymphoepithelial Cyst

240
Q

Remnant of embryonic thyroid descent
True cyst
Presents as midline neck mass

Most common congenital anomaly of the Thyroid

A

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst

241
Q

Types of Paragangliomas by location

A

Paravertebral (Sympathetic)

Aorticopulmonary Chain (Parasympathetic)

242
Q

Histologic features of Paragangliomas

A

Zellballen with delicate vascular septae
Salt-and-pepper Chromatin
No Atypia

243
Q

Most common cause of Xerostomia

244
Q

Most common type of salivary gland lesion

245
Q

True cysts associated with sublingual duct damage

246
Q

Most common form of viral sialadenitis

247
Q

Most commonly affected gland in sialolithiasis

A

Submandibular

248
Q

Most common site of salivary gland tumors

A

Parotid Gland

249
Q

Most common salivary gland tumor

A

Pleiomorphic Adenoma

250
Q

Most common primary malignant salivary gland tumor

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

251
Q

Second most common bengn tumor of the salivary glands
Almost exclusively involves Parotids
Associated with smoking

A

Warthin Tumor

Also known as:
Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

PLE 2017: Pathology (4 decks)

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