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Pathology Exam 2 Material Flashcards

1
Q

What is the brown pigment present in this fresh intestine from a dog?

A

Lipofuscin

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2
Q

T/F: Fibrin is typically associated with chronic processes

A

False!

You don’t see fibrin in chronic processes because by then it should already by phagocytosed. You will however see fibrous tissue

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3
Q

Acute inflammatory processes are partially characterized by the emigration of white blood cells to the sites of inflammation. Which type of cells make up most of these WBCs?

A

Neutrophils

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4
Q

Would this image be more accurately described as acute or chronic?

A

Chronic

Note the presence of fibrous tissue

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5
Q

Name the cytokines induced when PAMPs and TLRs bind:

A

IL-1, TNF-a, and Interferon (IFN)

*has been a test question*

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6
Q

Name the toll-like receptor (TLR) associated with LPS (Gram-negative):

A

TLR4

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7
Q

Name the toll-like receptor (TLR) associated with lipotheicoic acids (Gram-positive):

A

TLR4

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8
Q

Name the toll-like receptor (TLR) associated with lipoarabinomannon (Mycobacteria):

A

TLR2 and TLR4

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9
Q

When neutrophils cannot engulf a particle due to size, it will spew out contents in an attempt to neutralize it, then it is eaten by macrophages.

What is this process known as?

A

Frustrated phagocytosis

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10
Q

What is the ‘main cell’ in the acute inflammatory response?

A

Neutrophils

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11
Q

Inflammatory sites rich in neutrophils are referred to as _________ and __________

A

Inflammatory sites rich in neutrophils are referred to as suppurative and purulent

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12
Q

Avian species do not have neutrophils. Instead, they have:

A

heterophils

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13
Q

Which cell type do you expect to be more abundant in inflammatory diseases of immunologic, parasitic, or allergic origin?

A

Eosinophils!

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14
Q

Name the 7 major chemoattractants associated with eosinophils:

A
  1. Histamine
  2. c5a
  3. CCL-5
  4. CCL-11
  5. IL-4
  6. IL-5
  7. IL-13
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15
Q

Name the etiology associated with the image.

The EDx?

A

Etiology: Habronema spp.

EDx: Habronemal dermatitis/coronitis

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16
Q

EDx?

A

Habronemal balanoposthitis

(balanoposthitis is inflammation of the foreskin and head of the penis)

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17
Q

T/F: lymphocytes and plasma cells are commonly seen in innate immune responses

A

False

lymphocytes and plasma cells are commonly seen in adaptive immune responses

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18
Q

Name the tachykinin responsible for inducing degranulation of mast cells, basophils, eosinophils and release of their histamine

A

Substance P

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19
Q

Which complement product functions in opsonization?

A

C3b

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20
Q

Histamine is present in tissues, basophils, and platelets, but primarily in ____________

A

mast cells

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21
Q

Which cytokines play the biggest role in hematopoiesis?

A

IL-3, G-CSF

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22
Q

TNF and IL-1, the two major cytokines in acute inflammation, are produced primarily by:

A

activated macrophages

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23
Q

What is the primary cytokine associated with fever?

A

IL-1

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24
Q

The pathologic state characterized by weight loss and anorexia that accompanies some CHRONIC infections and neoplastic diseases is known as:

A

Cachexia

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25
Q

T/F: Chemokines are produced by all nucleated cells

A

True

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26
Q

If you see fibrin, you automatically know that the process is __________

(acute or chronic)

A

acute

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27
Q

Inflammation of the **lymph nodes **is known as:

A

lymphadenitis

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28
Q

Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is known as:

A

lymphangitis

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29
Q

LPS from gram negative bacteria can stimulate the release of inflammatory mediators.

The receptor that recognizes LPS is:

A

TLR-4

TLR-4 is a pattern recognition receptor that recognize PAMPs such as LPS, lipotechoic acid, and lipoarabinominnon.

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30
Q

T/F: Fibrosis is a sign of acute inflammation.

A

False.

Fibrin deposition may be seen in acute inflammation. Fibrosis is an indication of chronic inflammation

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31
Q

The formation and development of collagen rich fibrous tissue is termed:

A

Desmoplasia

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32
Q

T/F: A papilloma is a benign lesion located on mucosal surfaces

A

False.

A polyp is on mucosal surfaces. Papillomas are on epithelial surfaces.

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33
Q

T/F: Classification of a neoplastic lesion based on size, spread to lymph nodes, and degree of hematogenous metastasis is referred to as staging.

A

True

Staging uses the TMN system and is more useful in classifying tumors. Grading is based on degree of differentiation (anaplasia).

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34
Q

T/F: Blockage of COX-2 will result in anti-inflammatory effects

A

True

COX-2 is up-regulated in inflammatory and neoplastic conditions. Blockage of COX-1 will result in disruption of the microcirculation and may lead to ischemia

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35
Q

All of the following are pre-neoplastic conditions except:

  • Hyperplasia
  • Metaplasia
  • Dysplasia
  • Hypertrophy
A

Hypertrophy

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36
Q

Petechiae and ecchymoses associated with terminal hypoxia are known as

A

agonal hemorrhage

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37
Q

How would you describe the hemorrhage in the image?

A

petechial

Petechia – up to 1-2 mm in size; especially on skin, mucosal, serosal surfaces

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38
Q

The pathological form of hemostasis is __________

A

The pathological form of hemostasis is thrombosis, in which a clot forms within a vessel that is not injured or is mildly injured

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39
Q

Pulmonary thrombosis is common when there is significant loss of ____________, usually due to protein-losing nephropathy

A

antithrombin III

(antithrombin III is the major inhibitor of thrombin)

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40
Q

Saddle thrombosis in a cat is shown in the image. What structure is affected?

A

abdominal aorta

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41
Q

Caused by S. vulgaris - what is the etiological diagnosis?

A

Verminous/parasitic thrombosis

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42
Q

Which histological stain would you use to demonstrate fibrin within glomerular capillaries?

A

PTAH

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43
Q

Is shock characterized by systemic HYPOperfusion or systemic HYPERperfusion?

A

shock is characterized by systemic **HYPOperfusion **(hypotension and hypoxia) caused by decrease in CO or decreased circulating blood volume

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44
Q

Blisters are an example of which type of exudate?

A

Serous exudate

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45
Q

The ulcerative mammillitis shown in the image is a distinct characteristic for which viral infection?

A

Bovine herpesvirus 2 (BHV-2)

46
Q

Which cell type produces mucin?

A

goblet cells

47
Q

Monezial enteritis, shown in the image, provides an example of what type of exudate?

48
Q

An exudate composed of high concentrations of plasma proteins and little to no WBCs would be considered a __________ exudate

49
Q

“Shipping disease” in cattle is caused by ______________, which produces fibrinous exudate over the ventral lung lobes

A

Mannheima haeomolytica

50
Q

What is the EDx for the image shown, caused by Bovine Herpesvirus 1 [BHV-1]?

A

Viral rhinotracheitis

51
Q

What is the EDx for the image shown (Glasser’s Disease in pigs)?

A

Bacterial polyserositis/peritonitis

Etiological agent: Haemophilus parasuis

Commonly found in association with PRRS virus and to a lesser extent PCV-2

52
Q

What is a suppurative exudate composed of?

A

pus; high numbers of WBCs (neutrophils)

53
Q

What is the most common bacteria associated with pyometra?

A

Escherichia coli

54
Q

MDx?

A

Purulent meningitis

55
Q

What is the name of this condition?

Etiological agent?

EDx?

A

Name: Johne’s Disease

Etiological Agent: Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis

Edx: Mycobacterial ileitis

56
Q

The image shown is an example of chronic active inflammation and is caused by Rhodococcus equi.

What is the EDx? MDx?

A

EDx: rhodococcal lymphadenitis

MDx: pyogranulomatous lymphadenitis

57
Q

T/F: This enteritis in a pig, caused by Lawsonia intracellularis and similar to Johne’s disease in cattle, is an example of granulomatous inflammation

A

False!!

While this is similar to Johne’s disease in cattle (which is granulomatous), this demonstration in pigs is an example of proliferative enteritis, characterized by extensive proliferation of crypt epithelium

58
Q

_________ abscess formation is often associated with foreign bodies

(septic or sterile)

59
Q

T/F: In some instances, cellular regeneration can still take place if the basement membrane is damaged

A

False.

If the basement membrane of a cell is damaged, no regeneration will occur (won’t be able to replicate)

60
Q

MDx for this tissue in a horse?

A

Diffuse chronic proliferative gastritis

61
Q

This hypertrophic scarring is known as ___________ in horses

A

“proud flesh”

62
Q

Teratomas arise from ____________ cells

A

Teratomas arise from totipotent germ cells

63
Q

These nasty horse balls are an example of a mixed tumor. What type?

64
Q

This pig kidney is an example of a mixed tumor. What type?

A

Nephroblastoma (Wilms’ tumor)

65
Q

What’s that?

A

thyroid adenoma

66
Q

___________ is the hallmark of malignancy since benign neoplasms do not metastasize

A

Metastasis is the hallmark of malignancy since benign neoplasms do not metastasize

67
Q

What stain would be used to show invasive carcinoma cells originating from the gastric epithelium?

A

Alcian blue

68
Q

Specific stain for calcium?

A

Alzarin stain

69
Q

What is a general stain used for phosphates and carbonates?

A

Von Kossa Staining

70
Q

Is mineralization in the basement membrane of a cell dystrophic or metastatic?

A

metastatic

71
Q

MDx?

A

Multifocal necrotizing hepatitis with intralesional parasites (Fascioloides)

72
Q

EDx for the image? (caused by Fascioloides magna)

What is the black pigment in the photo?

A

EDx: Hepatic trematodiasis

Black pigment is parasite hematin

73
Q

What is the yellow pigment in this siderotic plaque of the spleen?

To review: siderotic plaques are considered incidental findings in which species?

A

Yellow pigment is hematoidin (derived from the breakdown of Hg)

dogs

74
Q

What is the major pigment found in bile?

A

bilirrubin

derived from hemoglobin (Hg) but contains no iron!!!

75
Q

yellow discoloration of the tissues is known as _________ and is a common clinical disorder caused by:

A

yellow discoloration of the tissues is known as jaundice and is a common clinical disorder caused by excess of bilirrubin pigment within cells and tissues

76
Q

What was likely used in this young animal that caused the yellowing of the teeth?

A

tetracyclines

77
Q

The majority of albinism cases are caused by lack of __________

A

tyrosinase

78
Q

What is the most common light-absorbing pigment found in the animal kingdom?

79
Q

Which stain would you use to differentiate between melanocytes and macrophages?

A

Masson-Fontana

Melanocytes will stain black/brown

80
Q

I say ‘wear and tear pigment,’ you say:

A

lipofuscin

81
Q

T/F: You can use PAS as a stain for lipofuscin

82
Q

Which stain would you use to confirm hemosiderin?

A

Prussian blue

will stain hemosiderin bright blue (can also use Perl’s stain)

83
Q

What are ‘heart failure cells’?

A

macrophages that contain hemosiderin

When there is hemorrhage present, macrophages come in and clean up, and take in Fe –> Hemosiderin

84
Q

Hemochromatosis is an inherited disease with overloads of hemosiderin in parenchymal cells such as the liver

This is common in which breed?

A

Salers cattle

85
Q

T/F: Bilirubin contains iron

86
Q

Congenital erythropoietic porphyria in calves is due to a defect in heme synthesis by deficiency of:

A

Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthetase

87
Q

Pink tooth is the accumulation of porphyrins in _________

88
Q

T/F: Dystrophic calcification is characterized by excessive influx of calcium, resulting in very high amounts of serum calcium

A

False

In dystrophic calcification, there is normal serum calcium.

Dead and dying cells cannot regulate the influx of Calcium into their cytosol and this will accumulate in the mitochondria

89
Q

Name the stain. What is it staining for?

A

Alzarin stain

Calcium

90
Q

T/F: Metastatic calcification is characterized by an increase in serum calcium and/or phosphate

91
Q

T/F: Fibrin and platelets are the two major components of a thrombus

92
Q

T/F: A carcinoma-in-situ refers to a cancer within an epithelial surface that has penetrated the basement- membrane

A

FALSE

A carcinoma-in-situ refers to a cancer within an epithelial surface that has not penetrated the basement- membrane

93
Q

The pigment seen in the heart of this aging dairy cow is more than likely:

A

lipofuscin

94
Q

This non-oxygenation Hb that gives a bluish appearance to skin and tissues is known as:

95
Q

When there is an excess (local or systemic) of iron, ferritin forms ______________

A

hemosiderin granules

96
Q

Iron is transported normally by transferrins. Where are transferrins made?

97
Q

Name the stain

A

Prussian blue

98
Q

MDx?

A

Eosinophilic cheilitis

99
Q

In Johne’s Disease, the thickening of the lamina propria is attributed to the high numbers of which cell type?

A

macrophages

100
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD) is commonly seen in which breed(s)?

A

Holstein Cattle and Irish Setter Dogs

101
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD) is due to a deficiency in:

A

β2 integrins (CD18)

102
Q

Inflammatory reactions associated with eosinophilic infiltrates are called:

A

granulomatous

103
Q

What stain would you use to highlight the granules of mast cells?

What is the stain actually staining?

A

Toluidine Blue

Stains the mucopolysaccharides (such as heparin)

The granules of eosinophils and neutrophils will not stain with toluidine blue because they do not contain mucopolysaccharides

104
Q

What type of exudate is composed of mucus & mucins from a mucous membrane, and pus?

A

Catarrhal/mucopurulent exudate

105
Q

Which of these factors does not tend toward repair via fibrosis?

  • Severe prolonged stimulus
  • Ulceration
  • Large exudative amounts
  • Erosion
  • Lack of renewable cell population
A

Erosion

Because this does not destroy the basement membrane

106
Q

What are the main actions of kinins?

A

increase vascular permeability and pain

107
Q

When we use COX inhibitors, what is it that we’re actually blocking?

A

COX-blockers block the cyclooxygenase pathway of AA metabolism (prostaglandin production)

108
Q

Which cytokine contributes to cachexia?

109
Q

Which chemokine activates neutrophils and has a chemotactic effect on neutrophils?

110
Q

Name two C-C chemokines that attract eosinophils

A

Eotaxin (CCL11) and RANTES (CCL5)

RUSVM Pathology 1 (3 decks)

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