Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a typical presentation of UTI?

A

Dysuria, frequency increased, smelly urine

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2
Q

Presentation of UTI in very young?

A

Unwell, failure to thrive

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3
Q

Presentation of UTI in very old?

A

Incontinence, off their feet

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4
Q

What is the content of normal urine?

A

Low pH, high osmolality and high ammonia

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5
Q

Is the urinary tract sterile?

A

Yes except for the term a urethra

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6
Q

Why is a initial urine sample not useful?

A

Because initial urine is heavily contaminated by urethral floral bacteria

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7
Q

What type of urine sample do we use?

A

MSSU (mid-stream specimen of urine0

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8
Q

How is MSSU cultured?

A

Sent to a museum hahah jk I’m losing my mind

Dip slide method (agar and moist sponge) 24hr incubation at 37degrees

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9
Q

At what level of a MSSU culture is there an infection?

A

10(5) Per ml

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10
Q

Is there an infection in MSSU culture is 10(3)-10(4)

A

If symptoms probably an infection, if no symptoms 50% chance

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11
Q

Problems with MSSU?

A

Difficult to collect in young children and elderly and
Some bacteria species are no not normally present in terminal urethra/ rectal flora and may be pathogenic at low colony numbers

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12
Q

What bacteria commonly causes a UTI?

A

E.coli

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13
Q

What is urethritis

A

Urethra inflammation

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14
Q

What is cystitis

A

Bladder inflammation

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15
Q

What is ureteritis

A

Is inflammation of ureter

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16
Q

What is acute pyelonephritis?

A

Inflammation of kidney

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17
Q

What are the predisposing factors to a UTI?

A

Stasis of urine, pushing bacteria up urethra from below, generalised predisposition to infection

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18
Q

What causes stasis of urine?

A

Obstruction or loss of “feeling” of full bladder

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19
Q

What are causes of pushing bacteria up urethra from below?

A

Sexual activity in females and catheterisation

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20
Q

Why is stasis of urine a predisposing factor to UTI?

A

Because bacteria that get higher up don’t get flushed out

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21
Q

What happens int he urinary system if there is a urethra obstruction?

A

There is upper urethral and bladder dilatation, causing bilateral hydroureter causing bilateral hydronephrosis and eventually chronic renal failure

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22
Q

What are consequences of obstruction within the urinary system?

A

Proximal dilatation, there is slowed urine flow causing bacteria not being able to be flushed out and causing an infection, sediments also form due to slowed urine flow creating calculous which cause additional obstruction

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23
Q

Major renal tract abnormality causing a UTI in a child?

A

Vesicoureteric reflux

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24
Q

What is vesicoureteric reflux?

A

Decreased angulation of ureter entering the bladder

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25
Q

Common cause of obstruction of renal tract in adult male?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

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26
Q

Common cause of obstruction of renal tract in adult female?

A

Uterine prolapse

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27
Q

Common cause of obstruction of renal tract in both sexes?

A

Tumours and calculus

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28
Q

Why does a spinal cord/ brain injury cause stasis of urine?

A

There is decreased sensation, so there is no sense of when to micturate and no sense of when bladder is completely empty soo urine in bladder (residual volume) causing stasis of urine

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29
Q

Why is the female sex predisposed to getting UTIs from bacteria being pushed up the urethra from below?

A

Short urethra,
Lack of prostatic bacteriostatic secretion,
Closeness of urethral orifice to rectum,
Sexual activity,
Pregnancy (puts pressure on ureters and bladder0

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30
Q

Acute complication of a UTI?

A

Severe sepsis and septic shock

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31
Q

Chronic complication of UTI

A

Chronic pyelonephritis which can cause hypertension and chronic renal failure

Or calculi can cause obstruction, causing hydronephrosis, which will cause hypertension and chronic renal failure

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32
Q

What are mesangial cells?

A

“Tree-like” group of cells that support capillaries

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33
Q

What does the efferent arteriole contain ?

A

Plasm, unfiltered proteins such as albumin and antibodies

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34
Q

What is glomerulonephritis?

A

Disease of the glomerulus

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35
Q

What are the 4 common presentations of glomerulonephritis?

A

Haematuria, heavy proteinuria, slowly increasing proteinuria, acute renal failure

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36
Q

Main causes of haematuria?

A

UTI, urinary tract stone, urinary tract tumour, glomerulonephritis

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37
Q

Investigations for haematuria?

A

Urine culture, ultrasound, check results then check his clotting and proceed to renal biopsy

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38
Q

What is IgA glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA is stuck within the mesangium, clogging up with mesangium with IgA, the IgA irrritates the mesangial cells causing them to proliferate and produce more matrix

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39
Q

In IgA glomerulonephritis what would you expect to see in light microscopy?

A

Acccumulation of pink mesangial matrix and too many mesangial cells

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40
Q

In IgA glomerulonephritis what would you expect to see in immunoflourescence?

A

IgA immunoglobulin and complement component C3 in mesangial area of all glomeruli

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41
Q

In IgA glomerulonephritis what would you expect to see in electron microscopy?

A

Deposits of IgA with prominent mesangial cells, the IgA cause increased proliferation of mesangial cells

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42
Q

What is IgA nephropathy prognosis?

A

Return to normal as usually self-limiting, a small % go onto develop chronic renal failure via continued deposition of matrix

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43
Q

What is membranous glomerulonephritis

A

Thickened glomerular basement membrane due to IgG deposits between basal lamina and podocyte, causing protein in the urine

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44
Q

What does membranous glomerulonephritis look like on light microscopy?

A

Thickened glomerular basement membrane

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45
Q

What does membranous glomerulonephritis look like on silver stain microscopy?

A

Spikes of new basement membrane matrix material underneath podcytes

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46
Q

What does membranous glomerulonephritis look like on electron microscopy?

A

Deposits of IgG, basal lamina spike and thickened membrane

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47
Q

What affect does IgG have between the basal lamina and podocyte?

A

IgG activates complement (C3) which punches holes in the filter, creating a leaky filter that allows albumin to be filtered into urine causing nephrotic syndrome

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48
Q

Cause of diabetic glomerulonephritis?

A

There is glycated molecules causing matrix deposition in basal lamina underlying the endothelium and in mesangial matrix, this causes thickened but leaky basement membranes and the mesangial matrix compresses the capillaries

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49
Q

What would diabetic nephropathy look like on light microscopy

A

Small compressed capillary lumens, adhesions to Bowmans capsules, thickened capillary wall which is leaking albumin, increased mesangial matrix (which compresses capillaries), thickened narrowed arterioles (reduced blood flow to glomerulus)

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50
Q

What is nodules of mesangial matrix a sign of?

A

Kimmelsteil-Wilson lesion

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51
Q

What does rapidly rising creatinine represent/

A

Acute renal failure

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52
Q

What does crescentic glomerulonephritis look like in histology

A

Early endothelial damage with fibrin deposition, cellular proliferation and influx of acrophages (forming a crescent) around glomerular tuft, within the Bowman’s space

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53
Q

What are the causes of crescentic glomerulonephritis?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, microscopic polyarteritis, antiglomerular basement membrane disease, other forms of glomerulonephritis

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54
Q

What is granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A

A form of vasculitis which affects vessels in the kidneys, nose and lung

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55
Q

What antibodies can you test for in granulomatosis with polyangiiits?

A

Presence of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA)

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56
Q

What do anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies do within the body/

A

They are directed against proteinase 3 and myeloperoxidase, antibodies produce tissue damage via interaction with primed neutrophils and endothelial cells

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57
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis prognosis?

A

Fatal if left untreated, 75% complete remission with cyclophosphamide

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58
Q

What staging criteria is used for ACute Kidney Injury?

A

RIFLE

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59
Q

Definition of risk of acute kidney injury?

A

Increase in serum creatinine level (1.5x) or decrease in GFR by 25% or UO <0.5ml/kg/h for 6 hours

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60
Q

Definition of Injury of kidneys, a stage in acute kidney injury/

A

Increase in serum creatinine level (2x) or
decrease in GFR by 50% or
UO<0.5mL/kg/h for 12 hours

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61
Q

Definition of failure of kidneys, in acute kidney injury?

A

Increase in serum creatinine level (3x) or
Decrease in GFR by 75% or
Serum creatinine level >355umol/l with acute increase of >44umol/L or
<0.3ml/kg/h for 24 hours or
Anuria for 12 weeks

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62
Q

define the loss stage of acute kidney injury?

A

Persistent ARF or complete loss of kidney function >4 weeks

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63
Q

Define the end-stage kidney disease stage of acute kidney injury?

A

Complete loss of kidney function >3 months

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64
Q

Presentation of chronic renal failure

A

Asymptomatic, tiredness, anaemia, oedema, high blood pressure, bone pain due to renal bone disease, pruritus, n/v, dyspnoea, pericarditis, neuropathy, coma

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65
Q

Infection of ureter

A

Ureteritis

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66
Q

Iatrogenic/ trauma disease that can occur to ureter?

A

Inadvertently cut or tied during hysterectomy or colon resection

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67
Q

Neoplasia disease of the ureter?

A

TCC of ureter, TCC of bladder obstructing the VUJ, prostate cancer obstructing VUJ, pelvic malignancy, pelvic or para-aortic lymphadenopathy

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68
Q

Hereditary diseases of the ureter?

A

PUJ obstruction, VUJ reflux

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69
Q

Obstruction disease of the ureter?

A

Intra-luminal (stone, blood clot), intra-mural (scar tissue, TCC), extra-luminal (pelvic mass, lymph nodes)

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70
Q

Presentation of ureter diseases?

A

Pain, pyrexia, palpable mass, haematuria, renal failure

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71
Q

Infection disease of bladder?

A

Cystitis

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72
Q

Inflammation disease of the bladder?

A

Interstitial cystitis, Colombo diverticulitis resulting in colo-vesical fistula

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73
Q

Iatrogenic/ trauma diseases of the bladder

A

Bladder rupture, bladder injury from hysterectomy (resulting in vesisco-vaginal fistula)

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74
Q

Neoplasia disease of the bladder/

A

TCC of bladder, SCC of bladder

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75
Q

Idiopathic conditions of the bladder?

A

Overactive bladder syndrome

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76
Q

Degenerative diseases of the bladder?

A

Chronic urinary retention

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77
Q

Neurological diseases of the bladder

A

Neurogenic bladder dysfunction

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78
Q

Presentation of bladder disease

A

Pain, pyrexia, haematuria, lower urinary tract symptoms, recurrent UTIs, chronic urinary retention, urinary lark from vagina (vesico-vaginal fistula), pneumaturia (colo-vesical fistula)

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79
Q

What are storage LUTS

A

Frequency, nocturia, urgency, urge incontinence

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80
Q

What are voiding LUTS

A

Poor flow, intermittency, terminal dribbling

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81
Q

What are the common causes of LUTS

A

Bladder pathology, bladder outflow obstruction, pelvic floor dysfunction, neurological causes

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82
Q

What are some neurological causes of LUTS?

A

Supra-pontine lesions (stroke, Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s),
infra-pontine supra-sacral lesions (spinal cord injury, disc prolapse, spina bifida),
Infra-sacral (multiple sclerosis, diabetes, causes equine compression, surgery to retroperitoneum)

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83
Q

Systemic disorders that can cause LUTS?

A

Chronic renal failure, cardiac failure, diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus

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84
Q

What controls bladder sesnsation and conscious inhibition of micturation?

A

The cortical centre

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85
Q

What is known as the micturation centre?

A

Pons

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86
Q

What are the sacral segments uncontrolled of micturation?

A

S2-S4

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87
Q

Relaxation of internal urethral sphincter is via what nerves?

A

S2-S4 autonomic- sympathetic

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88
Q

Relaxation of external urethral sphincter is via what nerves?

A

Somatic n.

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89
Q

Contraction of detrusor muscle is via what nerves?

A

Autonomic- parasympathetic

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90
Q

What are the 2 stages within the micturation cycle?

A

Storage/ filling phase ans voiding phase

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91
Q

Types of infection/ inflammation diseases of bladder outflow tract?

A

Prostatitis, balanitis

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92
Q

Iatrogenic/ trauma disease of the bladder outflow tract?

A

Pelvic floor damage after traumatic vaginal delivery or hysterectomy, urethral injury from catheterisation or pelvic fracture

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93
Q

Neoplasia of bladder outflow tracts?

A

Prostate cancer, penile cancer

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94
Q

Idiopathic diseases of the bladder outflow tracts?

A

Chronic pelvic pain syndrome

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95
Q

Obstruction disease of bladder outflow tract?

A

Primary bladder neck obstruction, benign prostatic enlargement causing obstruction, urethral stricture, mental stenosis, phimosis

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96
Q

Presentation of bladder outflow tract diseases?

A

Pain, pyrexia, haematuria, voiding LUTS (hesitancy, intermittency, poor flow, terminal dribbling, incomplete bladder emptying), overflow incontince, stress urinary incontinence, recurrent UTIs, acute urinary retention, chronic urinary retention

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97
Q

Why is voiding LUTS causes in bladder outflow tract disease?

A

Because of bladder outflow obstruction

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98
Q

Why is overflow incontinence a symptom of bladder oputflow tract diseases

A

Due to high pressure chronic urinary retention

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99
Q

Define acute urinary retention

A

Painful inability to void with a palpable and percussible bladder

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100
Q

What are the residuals of acute urinary retention

A

Vary from 500ml to 1 litre

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101
Q

What are some risk factors of acute urinary retention?

A

Benign Prostatic Obstruction, UTI, urethral stricture, alcohol excess, post-operative causes, acute surgical or medical problems

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102
Q

Patients with acute urinary retention due to BPO are usually triggered because of what/

A

Constipation, alcohol excess, post operative causes, urological procedure

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103
Q

What is treatment of acute urinary retention

A

Catheterisation

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104
Q

Define chronic urinary retention

A

Painless, palpable and percussible bladder after voiding

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105
Q

What are the chronic urinary retention residuals?

A

400ml to >2 litres

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106
Q

What is the main aetiological factor of chronic urinary retention?

A

Detrusor underactivity

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107
Q

How does chronic urinary retention present?

A

Can be asymptomatic,
LUTS,
Or as complications (UTI, bladder stones, overflow incontinence, post-renal or obstructive renal failure)

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108
Q

In chronic urinary retention when the bladder reaches full capacity and bladder pressure is in excess of 25cm water what symptoms can be expected/

A

Overflow incontinence, renal allure

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109
Q

What is the immediate treatment of chronic urinary retention?

A

Catheterisation

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110
Q

What are some subsequent treatment methods of chronic urinary retention?

A

CISC- clean intermittent self catheterisation

TURP- transurethral resection of prostate (if due to benign prostatic obstruction)

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111
Q

What is required to diagnosis UTI?

A

Microbiological evidence and symptoms/ signs

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112
Q

What microbiological evidence is neeeded to diagnose a UTI?

A

Bacterial count of 10(4)cfu/ml from MSSU specimen with no more than 2 species of micro-organisms

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113
Q

What symptoms/ signs are required to diagnose UTI?

A

At least one of the following:

Fever >38, loin/flank pain or tenderness, suprapubic pain or tenderness, urinary frequency, urinary urgency, dysuria

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114
Q

What are the 2 types of UTI?

A

Uncomplicated (young sexually active females) or Complicated (everyone else)

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115
Q

What types of organisms can cause UTIs?

A

E.coli, staph. Saprophyticus, klebsiella, proteus, pseudomonas, staph aureus

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116
Q

What complications can occur from UTIs?

A

Infection: sepsis (especially in pyelonephritis), perinephric abscess, renal failure, bladder malignancy (SCC), acute urinary retention, frank haematuria, bladder of renal stones

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117
Q

What investigations are used to diagnose a UTI?

A

MSSU/ CSU
Lower tract- flow studies, residual bladder scan, cystoscopy
Upper tract- USS kidneys, IVU/CT- KUB, MAG-3 renogram, DMSA scan

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118
Q

Name some emergencies related to urinary tract diseases?

A

Acute renal failure, sepsis due to UTI, renal colic, severe haematuria, metastatic disease causing metabolic derangements, acute urinary retention, chronic high-pressure urinary retention, iatrogenic injury/ trauma, testicular torsion, paraphimosis, priapism

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119
Q

What are the methods for measuring excretory renal function

A

Inulin clearance, isotope GFR, 24hr urine collection plus blood test, GFR estimating equations

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120
Q

What is creatinine generated from?

A

Breakdown of muscle

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121
Q

What factors need to be taken into account when measuring the GFR with serum creatinine?

A

Age, ethnicity, gender, weight, other isssues eg liver disease

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122
Q

What is the formula for COckgroft Gault

A

{[140-age]x weight x 1.23)/ SCr x (0.85 if female)

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123
Q

What is the formula for MDRD 4 variable equation?

A

175 x SCr/88.4 x age x (0.742 if female) x (1.212 if black)

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124
Q

If someone has a GFR of >90ml/min/1.73m2 what stage are they at on the international CKD classification system?

A

Stage 1:

Kidney damage/ normal or high GFR

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125
Q

If someone has a GFR of 60-89ml/min/1.73m2 what stage are they at on the international CKD classification system?

A

Stage 2

Kidney damage/ mild retention in GFR

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126
Q

If someone has a GFR of 45-59ml/min/1.73m2 what stage are they at on the international CKD classification system?

A

Stage 3a

Moderately impaired

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127
Q

If someone has a GFR of 30-44ml/min/1.73m2 what stage are they at on the international CKD classification system?

A

Stage 3b

Moderately impaired

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128
Q

If someone has a GFR of 15-29ml/min/1.73m2 what stage are they at on the international CKD classification system?

A

Stage 4

Severely impaired

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129
Q

If someone has a GFR of <15ml/min/1.73m2 what stage are they at on the international CKD classification system?

A

Stage 5

Advanced or on dialysis

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130
Q

What can freely cross the GBM?

A

Water, electrolytes, urea, creatinine

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131
Q

What crosses the GBM but is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule?

A

Glucose, low molecular weight proteins (alpha2 microglobulin)

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132
Q

What does not cross the GBM?

A

Cells (RBC, WBC), high molecular weight proteins (albumin, globulins)

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133
Q

How can you assess kidney filtering function

A

Urinalysis (dipstick), protein quantification (PCR, ACR)

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134
Q

Define Chronic kidney disease?

A

Presence of kidney damage (abnormal blood, urine or x-ray findings) or
GFR<60ml/min/1.73m2
That is present for >/= to 3 months

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135
Q

Name some common aetiology of CKD?

A

Diabetes, glomerulonephritis, hypertension, renovascular disease, polycystic kidney disease

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136
Q

What is the clinical approach taken to chronic kidney disease?

A

Detection of the underlying aetiology:
-treat the specific disease
Slowing the rate of renal declin:
-genetic therapies
Assessment of complications related to reduced GFR:
-prevention and treatment
Preparation for renal replacement therapy

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137
Q

Symptoms of chronic kidney disease?

A

Anaemia-pallor, hypertension, SOB, itch and cramps, cognitive changes- language and attention, anorexia, vomiting, taste disturbance, uraemia odour, polyuria or oliguria, nocturia, haematuria, proteinuria, peripeheral oedema

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138
Q

With someone with chronic kidney disease, what could the kidney look like on ultrasound?

A

Bilaterally small with thinned cortices suggesting intrinsic disease (eg glomerulonephritis),
Unilateral small Kidney which may indicate renal arterial disease,
Clubbed calyces and cortical scars suggesting reflux with chronic infection or ischameia,
Enlarged cystic kidneys suggesting cystic kidney disease

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139
Q

How would you manage slowing the rate of renal decline, in someone with chronic kidney disease?

A
BP control,
Control proteinuria (ACE inhibitors/ ARBs), treat underlying cause
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140
Q

What are some complications that are related to reduced GFR?

A

Acidosis, anaemia, bone disease, CV risk, death and dialysis, electrolytes, fluid overload, gout, hypertension, iatrogenic issues

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141
Q

How to manage the complications related to reduced GFR?

A

Acidosis- bicarbonate
Anaemia- Erythropoietin and iron
Bone disease- diet and phosphate binders
CV risk- BP, aspirin, cholesterol, exercise, weight
Death and dialysis- counsel and prepare
Electrolytes- diet and consider drugs
Fluid overload- salt and fluid restriction, diuretics
Gout- optimise +/- meds
Hypertension- weight, diet, fluid balance, drugs

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142
Q

Preparation needed for end stage renal disease and renal replacement therapy

A

Education and information, selection of modality (HD, PD, transplant), planning access, deciding when to start RRT and MDT

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143
Q

what is glomerulonephritis?

A

An inflammatory disorder of the kidney which is classified based on morphology

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144
Q

Glomerulonephritis common features?

A

Haematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, renal insufficiency

145
Q

What can be the source of haematuria?

A

Kidney, ureter, bladder, prostate, urethra

146
Q

In which condition could you expect to see haematuria more? Nephrotic or nephritic?

147
Q

Is renal insufficiency and hypertension more common in nephritic syndrome or nephrotic?

148
Q

Describe the presentation of nephritic state?

A

Active urine sediment- haematuria, dysmorphic RBCs, cellular casts,
Hypertension,
Renal impairment

149
Q

Describe the presentation of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Oedema, proteinuria >3.5g/day, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, can be caused by primary or secondary glomerular diseases

150
Q

Name some differential diagnosis of nephrotic suyndrome?

A

Congestive heart failure- however will have normal albumin

Hepatic disease- however no proteinuria

151
Q

What are the 2 categories that glomerulonephritis can be split into?

A

Proliferative or non-proliferative

152
Q

What does diffuse, focal, global and segmental nomenclatures mean in relation to the glomerulus?

A

Diffuse >50% of glomeruli affected
Focal <50% of glomeruli affected
Global- all glomerulus affected
Segmental- part of the glomerulus affected

153
Q

What are the different classes of proliferative glomerulonephritides?

A

Diffuse proliferative (eg post-infective nephritis), focal proliferative (eg mesangial IgA disease), focal necrotising (crescentic nephritis), membrano-proliferative nephritis

154
Q

What can you expect from post infective glomerulonephritis in microscopy?

A

Congested cells, immune deposits and lumps

155
Q

When is it common to get a post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

10-21 days after infection typically of throat or skin

156
Q

What is the most common group that causes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Lance field group A streptococci

157
Q

What genes can cause a genetic predisposition to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

HLA-DR, -Dp

158
Q

How would you treat post-infective glomerulonephritis?

A

Antibiotics (debatable), loop diuretics (eg frusemide) for oedema, vasodilator drugs (eg amlodipine) for hypertension

159
Q

What kind of proliferative glomerulonephritis is post-infection nephritis?

A

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

160
Q

What kind of proliferative glomerulonephritis is IgA nephropathy

A

Focal proliferative

161
Q

How is IgA nephropathy characterised?

A

IgA deposition in the mesangium + mesangial proliferation

162
Q

How does IgA nephropathy present?

A

Microscopic haematuria + proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome and IgA crescentic glomerulonephritis

163
Q

What is the prognosis for IgA nephropathy?

A

Up to 40% can progress to end stage kidney disease

164
Q

Causes of crescentic glomerulonephritis/

A

Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)(microscopic polyangiitis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis) or
Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) eg anti_GBM nephritis or Goodpasture’s syndrome or
Others- IgA vasculitis, post-infective glomerulonephritis, SLE

165
Q

How to treat Crescentic glomerulonephritis?

A

High dose steroids, cyclophosphamide, plasma exchange

166
Q

How does anti-GBM disease present?

A

Nephritis (anti-GBMM glomerulonephritis) and nephritis + lung haemorrhage (Goodpasture’s sydnrome)

167
Q

How is anti-GBM disease diagnosed?

A

Anti-GBM antibodies in serum and kidney

168
Q

How is Anti-GBM disease treated?

A

Aggressive immunosuppressive: steroid, plasma exchange, cyclophosphamide

169
Q

How is crescentic glomerulonephritis treated?

A

Immunosuppresion- corticosteroids, plasma exchange, cytotoxic eg cyclophosphamide, B-cell therapy eg rituximab, complement inhibitors

170
Q

Name the types of non-proliferative glomerulonephritis?

A

Minimal change disease, focal and segmental glomerulonephritis, membranous nephropathy

171
Q

How to you generally treat nephr0tic syndrome with regards to the common symptoms/

A

Loop diuretics + salt and fluid restriction (for oedema), Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-blockade (for hypertension), Heparin or warfarin (reduced risk of thrombosis), pneumococcal vaccine (for reduced risk of infection), statins (to treat dyslipidemia)

172
Q

How is minimal change nephrotic syndrome characterised?

A

Common in children, sudden onset of oedema in days, proteinuria

173
Q

Is there a high relapse rate in minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

A

Yes, 2/3rd of patients relapse

174
Q

How is minimal change disease treated/

A

Prednisolone (1mg/kg for up to 16 weeks), once remission is achieved there is a slow taper over 6 months.
The initial relapse is treated with further steroid course, however if relapse again, it is treated with:
Cyclophosphamide, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, rituximab

175
Q

What is minimal change disease’s prognosis?

A

Relapse common but risk of end stage kidney disease is low,

Steroid toxicity can occur due to multiple exposure to steroids

176
Q

What is normal serum albumin levels?

177
Q

How does focal and segmental glomerulonephritis present?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

178
Q

What does pathology reveal for focal and segmental glomerulonephritis

A

Reveals focal and segmental sclerosis with distinctive patterns:
Tip lesion, collapsing, cellular perihilar

179
Q

What is the prognosis of focal and segmental glomerulonephritis?

A

High chance of progression to end stage kidney disease

180
Q

What is the treatment of focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis?

A

General mesasure, trail of steroids (gerneally steroid resistant), cyclosporin, cyclophosphamide, and rituximab

181
Q

What is membranous nephropathy

A

Commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults, can be idiopathic or associated with other infections/ diseases. Renal biopsy shoes diffuse global subepithelial deposits within the glomerulus

182
Q

What are the serological markers of membranous nephropathy?

A

Anti-phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) antibody positive,

THrombospondin type 1 domain containing 7A (THSD7A)

183
Q

What are some possible secondary causes of membranous nephropathy?

A

Malignancies, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, drugs (NSAIDs, gold, penicillamine)

184
Q

How to treat membranous nephropathy?

A

General measure for at least 6 months, use immune suppression if symptomatic nephrotic syndrome or rising proteinuria or deteriorating renal function,
Cyclophosphamide and steroids (alternate months) for 6 months, cyclosporin,
Rituximab

185
Q

What is the prognosis of membranous nephropathy?

A

Resolved spontaneously in a third of patients,
Good in treated patients whose proteinuria resolves
About 25% are on dialysis at 10 years and
Can recur in renal transplants

186
Q

Define acute renal failure?

A

Rapid loss of glomerular filtration and tubular function over hours to days, resulting in the retention of urea/ creatine and sometimes oliguria

187
Q

Define AKI stage 1 using KDIGO criteria?

A

Increase in serum creatinine:
1.5-1.9 times baseline in the past 7 days OR
>/=26.5umol/l increase

AND

<0.5ml/kg/h urine output for 6-12hours

188
Q

Define AKI stage 2 using KDIGO criteria?

A

Increase in serum creatinine:
2.0-2.9 times baseline in the past 7 days

AND

<0.5ml/kg/h urine output for >/=12hours

189
Q

Define AKI stage 3 using KDIGO criteria?

A

Increase in serum creatinine:
3.0 times baseline in the past 7 days OR
>/=354umol/l increase OR
Initiation of renal replacement therapy

AND

<0.3ml/kg/h urine output for >/=24hours OR
Anuria for >/12 hours

190
Q

What are the dangerous consequences of AKI?

A
Acidosis
Electrolyte imbalance
Intoxication 
Overload 
Uraemic complications 

(AEIOU)

191
Q

What are the 3 groups of causes of AKI?

A

Pre-renal (blood flow to kidney)
Renal (damage to parenchyma)
Post-renal (obstruction to urine exit)

192
Q

Name some intrinsic causes of AKI?

A
Acute tubular injury:
Prolonged pre-renal AKI, rhabdomyolysis, haemoglobinuria, nephrotoxins
Tubulointerstitial injury,
Glomerulonephritis,
Myeloma,
Vasculitis:
Lupus, ANCA associated,
Acute tubular necrosis
193
Q

Pre-renal causes of AKI?

A

Sepsis, hypovolaemia (haemorrhage, burns, vomiting/ diarrhoea, diuretics, dehydration), hepatorenal syndrome, cardiac failure, hypotension (medications), shock, liver failure, arterial occlusion, vasomotor (NSAIDs/ACE inhibitors)

194
Q

Post-renal causes of AKI?

A

Obstruction:
Intraluminal- calculus, clot, sloughed papilla

Intramural- malignancy, ureteric stricture, radiation fibrosis, prostate disease

Extramural- RPF, malignancy

195
Q

What are the risk factors for Radiocontrast nephropathy

A

DM, renovascular disease, impaired renal function, paraprotein, high volume of radiocontrast

196
Q

What presentation can you expect from renal dailure in myeloma?

A

Cast nephropathy, light chain nephropathy, amyloidosis, hypercalcaemia, hyperuricaemia

197
Q

Blood tests to be completed for AKI?

A

U&Es, bicarbonate, LFTs, bone, FBC, clotting

198
Q

What are the risk factors for AKI?

A
Age >75, 
Previous AKI,l
Heart failure, 
Liver failure,
Chronic kidney disease,
DM, 
Vascular disease,
Cognitive impairement
199
Q

What are some risk events of AKI?

A

Sepsis (eg pneumonia, cellulitis, UTI),
Toxins (eg X-ray contrast, NSAIDs, gentamicin, herbal remedies)
Hypotension (eg relative to baseline blood pressure),
Hypovolaemia,
Major surgery

200
Q

What is the STOP AKI prevention care bundle?

A

S- sepsis
T- toxins: avoid (eg Gentamicin, NSAIDs, IV iodinated contrast)
O- optimise BP and volume status
P- prevent harm (daily U&Es, fluid balance and medication review

201
Q

If sepsis is suspected, what steps are suggested?

A
Sepsis 6,
Blood cultures,
urine output monitoring and U&amp;Es,
Fluids,
Antibiotics,
Lactate level,
Oxygen saturation monitoring
202
Q

If a patient is hypovolaemic, what fluids would you suggest?

A

IV fluids- resuscitation fluids 250-500mls IV crystalloid bolus over 15 mins and review response

203
Q

If the AKI is a post-renal problem what is a good starting management?

A

A catheter

204
Q

What are the 5Rs for IV prescribing?

A

Rescuscitation- urgent to restore circulation

Routine maintenance- If cannot take orally

Replacement- additional to maintain

Redistribution- abnormal internal fluid resdistribution

REASSESSMENT

205
Q

What is normal fluid intake and output?

A

2500ml intake

2100-2600 output

206
Q

What is an early sign of hyperkalaemia on an ECG?

A

Peaked T waves

207
Q

What are signs of hyperkalaemia on an ECG?

A
Peaked T waves,
P wave widens and flattens,
PR segment lengthens,
P waves eventually disappear,
Prolonged QRS internal,
High grade AV block,
Conduction block,
Sinus bradycardia
208
Q

Hyperkalaemia treatment?

A
Calcium gluconate (stabilise myocardium)
Salbutamol and insulin-dextrose (to shift K+ intracellularly)
Diuretics, dialysis, anion exchange resins (to remove)
209
Q

How to treat intoxication from AKI?

A

Morphine, digoxin

210
Q

Advantages of HD?

A

Rapid solute removal,
Rapid volume removal,
Rapid correction of electrolyte disturbances,
Efficient treatment for hypercatabolic patient

211
Q

Disadvantages of HD?

A

Haemodynamic instability,
Concern if dialysis associated with hypotension,
Fluid removal only during short treatment time

212
Q

Advantages of CRRT?

A

Slow volume removal associated with greater haemodynamic stability,
Absence of fluctuation in volume and solute control over time,
Greater control over volume status

213
Q

Disadvantages of CRRT

A

Need for continuous anticoagulation, may delay weaning/ mobilisation, may not have adequate clearance in hypercatabolic patient

214
Q

Define End-stage renal disease

A

Irreversible damage to a persons kidneys so severely affecting their ability to remove or adjust blood wastes that, to maintain life, they must have either dialysis or a kidney transplant

215
Q

What is the syndrome of advanced CKD called?

216
Q

How big is anormal prostate?

A

15cc, increases with age

217
Q

Wha are the McNeal’s Prostatic zones?

A

Transition, central, peripheral and anterior fibromusclar stroma zones

218
Q

What is Benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Fibromuscular and glandular hyperplasia of the prostate, predominantly affecting the transition zone, it is part of aging process in men

219
Q

Symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Moderate to severe LUTS in 50% of men

220
Q

What do they look at in the international prostate symptom score sheet?

A

Incomplete emptying, frequency, intermittency, urgency, weak stream, straining, nocturia

221
Q

What is classed as mild, moderate and severe in the international prostate symptom score sheet?

A

Mild: 0-7,
Moderate: 8-19
severe: >/=20

222
Q

How can you assess LUTS?

A

Symptom scoring systems, frequency volume charts

223
Q

Symptoms of voiding LUTS

A

Hesitancy, poor stream, terminal dribbling, incomplete emptying

224
Q

Symptoms of storage LUTS?

A

Frequency, nocturia, urgency +/- urge incontinece

225
Q

If you believe someone has a prostate problem what examinations would you complete?

A
Abdomen:
? Palpable bladder
Penis:
? External urethral mental stricture,
? Phimosis
DRE:
Assess prostate size and consistency,
? Suspicious nodules or firmness
Urinalysis:
? Blood,
? Signs of UTI
226
Q

Investigations if you beleive someone has a prostate problem?

A
MSSU,
FLow rate study,
Post-void bladder residual USS,
Bloods- PSA, urea and creatinine,
Reanal tract USS,
Flexible cytoscopy,
Urodynamic studies,
TRUS-guided prostate biopsy
227
Q

At was level of Qmax do you have a big chance of BOO?

A

Qmax <10ml/s

90% chance of BOO

228
Q

Treatment of uncomplicated BPO?

A
Waiting,
Alpha blockers,
5 alpha reductase inhibitors,
TURP,
Open retro public or transvesical prostatectomy,
Endoscopic ablative procedures
229
Q

How do alpha blockers work in BPO?

A

The sympathetic alpha-adrenergic nerves innervate the smooth muscle of bladder neck and prostate, so the alpha blockers cause smooth muscle realisation and antagonise the “dynamic” element to prostatic obstruction

230
Q

What are the types of alpha blockers?

A

Non-selective: phenoxybenzamine
Selective short acting: prazosin, indoramin
Selective long acting: alfuzosin, doxazosin, terazosin
Highly selective: tamsulosin

231
Q

How do 5a-reductase inhibitors work?

A

5a-reductase converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
So 5a reductase inhibitors block this and reduce prostate size and reduce risks of progression of BPE, reduce LUTS and reduce prostatic bleeding

232
Q

Side effects of 5a-reductase inhibitors?

A

Impaired sexual function, breast growth

233
Q

Name the 2 5a-reductase inhibitors currently available?

A

Finasteride (5AR type II inhibitor)

Dutasteride (5AR type I and II inhibitor)

234
Q

What is TURP?

A

Transurethral resection of prostate

235
Q

complications of TURP?

A

Bleeding, infection, retrograde ejactulation, stress urinary incontinence, prostatic regrowth causing recurrrent haematuria or BOO

236
Q

Alternative surgical procedures used for BPO?

A

Transurethral laser vaporisation, urolift

237
Q

Complications of BOO?

A

Progression of LUTS, acute urinary retention, chronic urinary retention, urinary incontinence (overflow), UTI, bladder stone, renal failure from obstructed ureteric outflow due to high bladder pressure

238
Q

Treatment of Complicated BOO?

A

Cystolitholapaxy and TURP (BPO and bladder stones),

Long term urethral or suprapubic catheterisation, clean intermittent self-catheterisation

239
Q

Treatment of acute urinary retention?

A

Catherterisation, if no renal failure alpha blocker and remove catheter in e days

240
Q

Complications from acute urinary retention?

A

UTI, post-decompression haematuria, pathological duresis, renal failure and electrolyte abnormalities

241
Q

What is the main aetiological factor causing chronic urinary retention?

A

Detrusor underactivity

242
Q

Complications of chronic urinary retention/

A

UTI, post0decompression haematuria, pathological diuresis, electrolyte abnormalities, persistent renal dysfunction

243
Q

What are the features of pathological diuresis?

A

Urine output >200ml/hr + postural hypotension+ weight loss + electrolyte disturbance

244
Q

Intrinsic causes of obstructuion at PUJ?

A

Stone, ureteric tumour, blood clot,fungal ball

245
Q

Extrinsic causes of obstruction at PUJ?

A

Crossing vessels au PUJ, lymph nodes (tumour), abdominal mass (tumour)

246
Q

Intrinsic causes of a obstruction at the ureter

A

Stone, ureteric tumour, scar tissue, blood clot, fungal ball

247
Q

Extrinsic causes of a obstruction at the ureter

A

Lymph nodes (tumour, retroperitoneal fibrosis), iatrogenic, abdominal/ pelvic mass (tumour, pregnant uterus)

248
Q

Intrinsic causes of a obstruction at the VUJ?

A

Stone, bladder tumour, ureteric tumour

249
Q

Extrinsic causes of a obstruction at the VUJ

A

Cervical tumour, prostate cancer

250
Q

Symptoms of upper urinary tract obstruction?

A

Pain, frank haematuria, symptoms of complications

251
Q

Signs of upper urinary tract obstruction?

A

Palpable mass, microscopic haematuria, signs of complications

252
Q

Complications of upper urinary tract obstruction?

A

Infection and sepsis, renal failure

253
Q

Treatment of Upper urinary tract obstruction?

A

Emergency treatment of obstruction; percutaneous nephrostomy insertion or retrograde stent insertion

treat underlying cause:
Stone- ureteroscopy and laser lithotripsy +/- basketing or ESWL
Ureteric tumour- radial nephro-ureterectomy
PUJ obstruction- laparoscopic pyeloplasty

254
Q

What is a nephrostomy?

A

Percutaneous puncture + tube

255
Q

Describe a ureteric stent?

A

Silicone, polyurethane, nickel titanium stent inserted into ureter, causing dilation

256
Q

Lower urianry tract obstruction presentation?

A

LUTS, acute urinary retention, chronic retention, recurrent UTI and sepsis, frank haematuria, formation of bladder stones, renal failure

257
Q

Emergency treatment of lower urinary tract obstruction

A

Urethral/ suprapubic catheterisation

258
Q

Definitive treatment of lower urinary tract obstruction?

A
Treat underlying cause:
BPE-TURP,
Urethral stricture- optical urethrotomy,
Meatal stenosis- meatal dilatation,
Phimosis- circumcision
259
Q

High pressure chronic urinary retention presentation?

A

Painless, incontinent, raised creatinine, bilateral hydro-nephrosis

260
Q

Low pressure chronic urinary retention?

A

Painless, dry, normal creatinine, normal kidneys

261
Q

Complications of urinary retention?

A

Decompression haematuria, post obstructive diuresis

262
Q

Describe decompression of haematuria?

A

Shearing of small vessels due to differing compliance of tissue layers, self limiting

263
Q

Describe post obstructive diuresis?

A

Greater than 200ml/hr, can lead to life threatening Na and H2O depletion

264
Q

Most common site of urothelial tumours?

A

Bladder- 90%

265
Q

Risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder

A

Smoking, aromatic amines, non-hereditary genetic abnormalities

266
Q

Risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma

A

Schistosomiasis (S.haematobium only), chronic cystitis, cyclopjosphamide therapy, pelvic radiotherapy,

Adenocarcinoma- urachal

267
Q

Bladder cancer presentation?

A

Painless visible haematuria,
Symptoms due to invasive or metastatic disease
Haematuria may be frank or microscopic,
Recurrent UTI,
Storage bladder symptoms- dysuria, frequency, nocturia +/- urge incontinence, bladder pain- suspect CIS

268
Q

Investigations of haematuria?

A

Urine culture, CT urogram (IVU), ultrasound scans, cystourethroscopy, urine cytology, BP and U&E’s

269
Q

If someone has frank haematuria within wheat time should they have a flexible cystourethroscopy?

A

Within 2 weeks

270
Q

If someone has microscopic haematuria within what time should they have a flexible cystourethroscopy?

A

Within 4-6 weeks

271
Q

Describe the grades of TCC

A

G1- well diff- commonly non-invasive,
G2- mod diff- often non-invasive,
G3- poorly diff- often invasive,
Carcinoma in situ

272
Q

A what T stages of bladder TCC is it muscular invasive?

A

T2a and above

273
Q

Low grade non-muscular invasive bladder cancer treatment?

A

Endoscopic resection + single insillation of intravesical chemotherapy within 24hours,

Need endoscopic follow up,

Can consider prolonged course of intravesical chemotherapy

274
Q

High grade non-muscle invasion bladder cancer or CIS treatment

A

Endoscopic resection not sufficient,
Consider intravesical BCG therapy,
If refractory to BCG- need radical surgery

275
Q

Muscle invasive bladder cancer treatment?

A

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy, followed by…
Radical radiotherapy and/or,
Radical cystoprostatectomy (men) or anterior pelvic exenteration with urethrectomy (women), with extended lympahdenectomy and/ or

Radical surgery combined with i continent urinary diversion (ileal) conduit, continent diversion (bowel pouch with catheterisable stoma) or orthotopic bladder substitution

276
Q

Upper tract TCC presenting features?

A
Frank haematuria, 
unilateral ureteric obstruction, 
Flank or loin pain,
Symptoms of nodal or metastatic disease:
Bone pain, hypercalcaemia, lung, brain
277
Q

Upper tract TCC diagnostic investigations?

A

CT-IVU (CT urogram), urine cytology, ureteroscopy and biopsy

278
Q

How does a CT-IVU Diagnosis a upper tract urothelial cancer?

A

It shows a filling defect in the renal pelvis

279
Q

Treatment for Upper Tract Urothelial cancer

A

Nephro-ureterectomy

280
Q

Indications fo nephron-sparing endoscopic treatment in upper tract urothelial cancer?

A

If unfit for nephro-ureterectomy or has bilateral disease,
So get ureteroscopy can lasers ablation
Will needed regular surveillance ureteroscopy

281
Q

Why do all cases of upper tract urothelial cancer need surveillance cystoscopy?

A

Because there is a high risk of synchronous and metachronous bladder TCC

282
Q

Types of benign renal tumours?

A

Oncocytoma, angiomylipoma

283
Q

Histological subtypes of renal adenocarcinoma?

A

Clear cells, papillary, chromophobe, Bellini type dictaphone carcinoma

284
Q

Risk factors of renal adenocarcinoma?

A

Family history (vHL, familial clear cell RCC, hereditary papillae RCC), smoking, anti-hypertensive medication, obesity, end-stage renal failure, acquired renal cystic disease

285
Q

Presentation of renal adenocarcinoma?

A

Asymptomatic- 50% present
Flank pain, mass and haematuria- 10% present
Paraneoplastic syndrome: anorexia, cachexia, pyrexia, hypertension, hypercalcaemia and abnormal LFTs, anaemia, polycythaemia and raised ESR - 30%
MEtastatic disease: bone, brain, lungs, liver -30%

286
Q

TNM staging of renal cancer

A

T1- tumour <7cm confined within the renal capsule

T2- tumour >7cm and confined within capsule

T3- Local extension outside capsule
T3a-into adrenal or peri-renal fat
T3b- intro renal vein or IVC below diaphragm
T3c- Tumour thrombus in IVC extends above diaphragm
T4- tumour invades beyond Gerota’s fascia

287
Q

Renal adenocarcinoma spread methods?

A

Direct spread (invasion) through the renal capsule, venous invasion to renal vein and vena cava, haematogenous spread to lungs and bones and lymphacic spread to paracaval nodes

288
Q

Renal adenocarcinoma investigations?

A

CT scan of abdomen and chest, provides radiological diagnosis and complete TNM staging, assess contra lateral kidney

Bloods: U+Es, FBC, LFTs,

Ultrasound, DMSA or MAG-3 renogram

289
Q

Treatment of renal adenocarcinoma?

A

Laparoscopic radial nephrectomy,

Palliative cytreductive nephrectomy

290
Q

Renal adenocarcinoma with metastases treatment?

A

RCC is radioresistant and chemoresistant so treat with multitargeted receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors (suntinib, sorafenib, panzopanib, temsirolimus),
Immunotherapy (interferon alpha, interleukin-1)

291
Q

What muscle do the ureters pass by?

A

Psoas major

292
Q

What is the trig one in the bladder?

A

A triangular area between the ureteric and urethral orifices

293
Q

Indications for renal imaging?

A

Renal colic and renal stone disease, haematuria, suspected renal mass, UTIs, hypertension

294
Q

Contrast imaging studies used to view KUB?

A

IV urogram, Pyelography, micturating cystourethrography

295
Q

What is a pyelography?

A

Injection of contrast into the ureters

296
Q

What would you use a Doppler ultrasound for?

A

Renal artery stenosis

297
Q

Isotope scans used for renal diseases, and why they are used?

A

DMSA- to look for renal scarring
MAG3- assess renal function and drainage
Bone scan- metastatic disease

298
Q

What is the best imaging modality to diagnose renal tract stones and stage renal tumours?

299
Q

Types of urinary stones?

A

Calcium oxalate, calcium oxalate + phosphate, “triple phosphate”, calcium phosphate, Utica acid, cystine

300
Q

What is the most common type of urinary stone?

A

Calcium oxalate

301
Q

Symptoms and signs of urinary stones?

A
Renal pain, 
ureteric colic (radiating to groin),
Dysuria/ haematuria/ testicular or vulval pain,
Urinary infection,
Loin tenderness,
Pyrexia
302
Q

Investigations for urinary stones?

A
Blood tests- FBC, U&amp;E, creatinine,
Calcium, albumin, urate,
Parathormone,
Urine analysis and culture,
24hr urine collections,
Radiology- ultrasound KUB, IVU, CT KUB,
303
Q

Indications for surgical treatment for urinary stones?

A
Obstruction, 
Recurrent gross haematuria,
Recurrent pain and infection,
Progressive loss of kidney function,
Patient occupation
304
Q

Types of surgical treatment for urinary stones?

A

Open surgery, endoscopic surgery, Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL), Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)

305
Q

Indications for open surgery for urinary stones?

A

Non functioning infected kidney with large stones,

For technical reasons cannot be managed another way

306
Q

Types of o[pen surgery for urinary stone removal?

A

Simple pyelolithotomy, simple radial partial or total nephrotomy

307
Q

When would toy complete a simple partial or total nephrectomy for urinary stones?

A

If
A non functioning kidney with large staghorn stones or
Elderly frail patients with complex stones and normal contralateral kidney

308
Q

Indications for a percutaneous nephrolithotomy?

A

Large stone burden, associated PUJ stenosis, infundibular stricture, calyceal diverticulum, morbid obesity or skeletal deformity, ESWL resistant stones eg cystine

309
Q

Contraindications for PCNL

A

Uncorrected coagulopathy, active UTI, obesity or unusual body habitus unsuitable for X-ray tables, relative contraindications include small kidneys and severe perirenal fibrosis

310
Q

Local complications of PCNL?

A

Pseudoaneurysm or AV fistula,

UT injury: pelvic tear, ureteral tear, stricture of PUJ

311
Q

Injury’s that can occur to adjacent organs due to PCNL?

A

Bowel injury,

Pneumothorax,

312
Q

Systemic complications of PCNL?

A

Fever, sepsis, MI

313
Q

What is ESWL?

A

Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy

314
Q

When is ESWL not effective?

A

Stones >2cms,
Less effective for lower pole stones,
Not effective after 2 treatments,
Ineffective for treating cystine stones

315
Q

Indications for ureteroscopy?

A
Sever obstruction, 
uncontrolled pain,
Persistent haematuria, 
Lack of progression, 
Failed ESWL,
Patient occupation
316
Q

Minor complications of ureteroscopy?

A

Haematuria, fever, small ureteric perforation, minor vesico-ureteric reflux

317
Q

Major complications of ureteroscopy?

A

Major ureteric perforation,
Ureteric avulsion,
Ureteral necrosis and stricture formation

318
Q

Bladder stones presentation?

A
Suprapubic/groin/ penile pain,
Dysuria, frequency, haematuria,
Urinary infection persistent,
Sudden interruption of urinary stream,
Usually secondary to outflow obstruction
319
Q

Name the types of aorta/large vessel arteritis

A

Takayasu arteritis, giant cell arteritis

320
Q

Name the types of medium artery vasculitis?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa,

Kawasaki disease

321
Q

Name the types of small vessel vasculitis?

A

Granulomatosis polyarteritis,
Microscopic polyarteritis,
Churg-Strauss syndrome

322
Q

Describe granulomatosis polyangiitis?

A

A granulomatous inflammtion in the respiratory tract, type of focal necrotising inflammation with crescents, more common in males and the age group 40-60y

323
Q

Describe the systems affect3ed by granulomatosis polyangiitis and the subsequent symptoms?

A

Upper Resiratpry tract- epistaxis, basal deformity, sinusitis, deafness
Lower respiratory tract- cough, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, pulmonary haemorrhage
Kidney- glomerulonephritis
Joints- arthralgia, myalgia,
Eyes- scleritis
Heart- pericarditis
Systemic- fever, weight loss, vasculitic skin rash

324
Q

Diagnostic tests for vasculitis

A

Urine (blood/proteins),
Renal function (raised urea/creatinine)
Biochemistry (raised alkaline phosphate, CRP, low albumin)
Haematology (anaemia, thrombocytosis, leukocytosis)
Immunology (hyperglobulinaemia, positive ANCA)
renal biopsy

325
Q

The ANCA that’s diagnosis for granulomatosis polyangiitis?

326
Q

The ANCA that’s diagnosis for microscopic polyarteritis

327
Q

Infections that cause infective endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Vivian’s streptococci, enterococci

328
Q

How does infective endocarditis lead to affecting the kidney

A

It leads to glomerulonephritis +/- vessel vasculitis due to immune complex function

329
Q

If a patient has infective endocarditis, how can you tell that the renal system is affected?

A

Abnormal urea/creatinine
Haematuria, red cell casts,
Reduced complement levels

330
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

A monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells producing an excess of immunoglobulins and light chains

331
Q

What are the clinical features of multiple myeloma?

A
Markedly elevated ESR,
Anaemia,
Weight loss,
Fractures,
Infections,
Back pain/ cord compression
332
Q

How is multiple myeloma diagnosed?

A

Bone marrow aspirate >10% clonal plasam cells,
Serum paraprotein +/- immunoparesis
Urinary Bence-Jones protein,
Skeletal survey- lytic lesion

333
Q

Presentation of renal failure in myeloma

A
Cast nephropathy- “myeloma kidney”
Light chain nephropathy,
Amyloidosis,
Hypercalcaemia,
Hyperuriacaemia
334
Q

What history points could make you suspect systemic disease with renal involvement?

A

Fever, malaise, weight loss, arthralgia, myalgia, skin rash, gritty eyes, breathlessness, haemoptysis, epistaxis, haematuria, oedema

335
Q

What signs would you expect if you suspected systemic disease with renal involvement?

A

Hands- splinter haemorrhages, purpura, Raynaud’s
Face- scleritis, uveitis, nasal cartilage deformity, retinal vasculitis, hypertensive retinopathy
Skin- vasculitic rash, scleroderma
CVS- hypertension, murmur
Chest- crepitations, haemoptysis,
Locomotor- joint swelling, tenderness
CNS- stroke, enccephalopathy

336
Q

Peak age group for prostate cancer?

337
Q

What is the diagnostic triad of prostate cancer?

A

PSA, DRE, TRUS-guided prostate biopsies

338
Q

What is the normal serum range of PSA?

A
0-4.0ug/ml
<50 yrs- 2.5 is upper limit,
50-60 - 3.5,
60-70- 4.5
>70- 6.5
339
Q

What can cause elevation in PSA?

A
UTI,
Chronic prostatitis,
Instrumentatio eg cateterisation)
Physiological (eg ejaculation)
Recent urological procedure 
BPH
Prostate cancer
340
Q

What is the half life of PSA?

341
Q

What is the Gleason Grading of prostate cancer?

A

Score biggest and second biggest area of tumour a score of 3-5 (well to poorly differentiated) and add together the scores

342
Q

What are the 4 stages of prostate cancer?

A

Localised stage, locally advanced stage, metastasic stage, hormone refractory stage

343
Q

How would you stage a localised prostate cancer?

A

DRE, PSA, transrectal US guided biopsies, CT, MRI

344
Q

Treatment of localised prostate cancer?

A
Watchful waiting, 
Radiotherapy (external-beam, brachytherapy)
Radical prostatectomy (open, laparoscopic, robotic)
345
Q

Treatment of locally advanced prostate cancer?

A

Watchful waiting,
Hormone therapy followed by surgery,
Hormone therapy followed by radiation,
Hormone therapy alone

346
Q

Types of hormonal therapy for prostate cancer?

A
Surgical castration:
Bilateral orchidectomy 
Medical castration:
LHRH analogues- goserelin, leuprorelin 
LHRH antagonists
Anti-androgens
Oestrogens- diethylstilboestrol
347
Q

How does oestrogens help on prostate cancer?

A

Inhibitots LHRH and testosterone secretion,
Inactivates androgens
Direct cytotoxic effect on prostatic epithelial cells

348
Q

What is the PSA level at localised, locally advanced and metastatic prostate cancer?

A

localised <20
Locally advanced 20-100
Metastatic- >100

349
Q

How does testicular cancer nornmally present?

A

Painless lump

350
Q

What are some other presentations of testicular cancer other than painless lump?

A

Tender inflamed swelling, history of trauma

351
Q

Risk factors of testicular cancer?

A

3rd decade, Caucasians
Testicular maldescent, infertility, strophic testis, previous cancer in contrallateral testis,
Testicular germ cell neoplasia in situ is a precursor lesion

352
Q

What are the types of testicular cancer tumour markers?

A

AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) (teratoma)
BHCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin)(seminoma)
LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)

353
Q

Testicular cancer investigations?

A

MSSU, testicular ultrasound scan and CXR, tumour markers

354
Q

Treatment of testicular cancer?

A

Radical orchidectomy

355
Q

Lymphatic drainage of testis?

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

356
Q

Types of testicular germ cell tumours?

A
Seminomatous GCT (classical, spermatocytic or anaplasic)- normally affects 30- 40yrs
Non seminomatous GCT (teratoma, yolk sac, choriocarcinoma, mixed GCT)-normally affects 20-30yrs
357
Q

Types of testicular cancer non-GCT?

A

sex cord/ stromal

Leydig, sertoli, lymphoma

358
Q

What are the 4 stages of testicular cancer?

A

Stage 1- disease is confined to the testis
Stage 2- infradiaphragmatic nodes involved
Stage 3- supradiaphragmatic nodes involved
Stage 4- extralymphatic disease