Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Most common salivary gland tumor

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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2
Q

Salivary gland tumor that is surrounded by stromal tissue with lymphoid germinal centers and multiple papillae

A

Warthin’s tumor (papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum)

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3
Q

Most common malignant salivary tumor

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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4
Q

Affected muscle in Zenker’s diverticulum

A

Inferior pharyngeal constrictor (cricopharyngeal part)

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5
Q

A Schatzki ring can present with dysphagia to which type of food

A

Solids

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6
Q

Triad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A
  • Glossitis
  • Dysphagia due to esophageal webs
  • Iron deficiency anemia
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7
Q

Most common type of esophageal cancer in the US

A

Adenocarcinoma

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8
Q

Pathology that presents with diffuse hyperplasia of surface mucus-secreting cells and decrease of parietal cells (in the stomach)

A

Ménétrier disease

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9
Q

Ménétrier disease is associated to which pathologies

A
  • Protein-losing gastropathy

* Hypochloridia

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10
Q

Growth factor that is increased in Ménetrier disease

A

TGF-alpha

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11
Q

Food intake relieves pain caused by which type of ulcers

A

Duodenal ulcers

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12
Q

Name the 2 places of distant metastases seen in gastric carcinoma

A
  • Left supraclavicular lymph nodes (Virchow’s sentinel nodes)
  • Ovaries (Krukenberg tumors)
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13
Q

HLAs associated with celiac sprue

A

DQ2 and 8

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14
Q

Characteristic endoscopic appearance of the duodenum in patients with celiac sprue

A

“Cracked-mud” appearance of the mucosa

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15
Q

Characteristic biopsy finding of the intestine in Whipple disease

A
  • Lamina propria infiltrated with macrophages

* Intracellular gram + organisms

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16
Q

Microbiologic characteristics of Trophyrema whipplei

A
  • PAS positive
  • Gram positive
  • Rod-shaped bacillus
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17
Q

First line treatment of Whipple disease

A

Ceftriaxone followed by 1 year of TMP/SMX

*Penicillin or streptomycin in case of sulfa allergy

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18
Q

Most common site of presentation of ulcerative colitis

A

Rectum

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19
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease that develops pseudopolyps

A

Ulcerative colitis

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20
Q

Complication seen in ulcerative colitis

A

Toxic megacolon

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21
Q

HLA associated with ulcerative colitis

A

HLA-B27

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22
Q

Adverse effects of infliximab

A
  • Fever and hypotension

* Increased risk of infection (reactivation of latent TB); do PPD screening before use

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23
Q

Areas at risk in ischemic bowel disease

A
  • Watershed areas

* Splenic flexure of the colon

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24
Q

Risk factors for intestinal angiodysplasias

A
  • Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome

* CREST syndrome

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25
Q

Etiology of melanosis coli

A

Laxative abuse

26
Q

Typical macroscopic presentation of right-sided adenocarcinoma of the colon

A

Polypoid mass

27
Q

Most accurate test for the diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis

A

Secretin test

28
Q

Pancreatic tumor associated with migratory necrolytic dermatitis and diabetes

A

Glucagonoma

29
Q

Pancreatic tumor associated with diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achloridia

30
Q

Urobilinogen levels are increased in which jaundice pattern

31
Q

Difference between Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndromes

A

Black pigmentation of the liver

32
Q

Biopsy findings in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

PAS positive, diastase-resistant eosinophilic globules within hepatocytes

33
Q

Theoretical pathophysiology of Reye syndrome

A

Toxins induce mitochondrial dysfunction, leading to inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation and fatty acid beta oxidation

34
Q

Rare, benign hepatic tumor that is associated with oral contraceptive use

A

Hepatocellular adenoma

35
Q

Most common type of tracheoesophageal anomaly

A

Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula

36
Q

Part of the duodenum that is encircled by an annular pancreas

37
Q

Signet-ring cells are characteristic of which type of gastric carcinoma

A

Diffuse adenocarcinoma

38
Q

Symptom that suggest a malginant salivary gland tumor

A

Facial pain or paralysis due to involvement of CN 7

39
Q

Histological characteristics of a pleomorphic adenoma

A

Chondromyxoid stroma and epithelium

40
Q

Macroscopic characteristics of HSV-1 and CMV ulcers in the esophagus

A
  • HSV-1 ulcers are punched-out

* CMV ulcers are linear

41
Q

Pathophysiology of Curling ulcers

A

“Stress ulcers”, due to hypovolemia that leads to mucosal ischemia (eg, burns)

42
Q

Pathophysiology of Cushing ulcers

A

A brain injury leads to increase in vagal stimulation, leading to increase parasympathetic input and increase HCl production

43
Q

H. pylori increases risk of developing which type of gastric cancer

A

MALT lymphoma

44
Q

Type of adenomatous polyp with greater malignant potential

A

Villous type

45
Q

Aminotransferase that is more elevated in alcoholic liver disease

46
Q

Mallory bodies are found in which pathology

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

47
Q

Histologic description of Mallory bodies

A

Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of damaged keratin filaments

48
Q

Arsenic and vinyl chloride are associated with which liver tumor

A

Angiosarcoma

49
Q

Treatment for Criggler-Najar syndrome type 2

A

Phenopbarbital (increases liver enzyme synthesis)

50
Q

Layer of the cornea in which copper is deposited in Wilson disease

A

Descement membrane, leads to Kayser-Fleischer rings

51
Q

HLA that is associated with hemochromatosis

52
Q

p-ANCA positive biliary tract disease

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

53
Q

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies are associated to which biliary tract disease

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

54
Q

Lymph nodes affected in esophageal carcinoma

A
  • Upper third: cervical nodes
  • Middle third: mediastinal or tracheobronchial nodes
  • Lower third: celiac and gastric nodes
55
Q

Autoimmune chronic gastritis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity

56
Q

Chromogranin positive tumor of the small intestine

A

Carcinoid tumor

57
Q

Increase in which enzyme is associated to progression from adenoma to carcinoma

A

Cyclooxigenase

*Therefore, aspirin is protective

58
Q

What is a Rokitansky-Aschoff sinus

A

Herniation of gallbladder mucosa into the muscular wall

59
Q

Conditions associated to familial adenomatous polyposis in Gardner syndrom

A
  • Osteomas
  • Lipomas
  • Fibromatosis
  • Epidermal inclusion cysts
60
Q

Syndrome that includes familial adenomatous polyposis with central nervous system tumors (gliomas)

A

Turcot syndrome

61
Q

Triad of somatostatinoma

A
  • Diabetes
  • Steatorrhea
  • Gallstones
62
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome predisposes patients to develop which type of esophageal cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus