Pathology Flashcards
1
Q
What is pannus formulation
A
granulation tissue of Rheumatoid arthritis (Des affected)
Bilateral, symmetrical erosions fo ulnar styloid
2
Q
What antibodies are made to double stranded DNA
A
SLE (malar rash, photophobia, kideny failure)
Feltys Syndrome, chronic RA increase
3
Q
What antibodies are made to Ach receptors
A
Myasthenia Gravis, afternoon, end of day
4
Q
What are the name of the nodes at the distal interphalangeal joints in RA
A
Heberdings
5
Q
DIP, PIP, MCP
A
Heberdings (DIP), Buschards (PIP), Haygaurd (MCP)
6
Q
What is it called when there is too much aldosteron
A
Chans?
7
Q
What is it called when they is claudication in the legs of young men and heavy smokers
A
Buergers Disease (thromboangina obliterans)
8
Q
What is it called when there is multilaminated onion skin of the periosteum
A
Ewings sarcoma (inc. in children)
9
Q
What is the deficincy in Vitamin B1 called
A
Beri Beri
10
Q
Human Leukocyte Antigen positive
A
Reiters Disease
11
Q
What is the most common symptom of carcinoma
A
painless blood hematuria
12
Q
What is another name for Ebstein Bar Virus
A
mononucleosis
13
Q
What hypertrophy does emphysema cause
A
Right Ventricular hypertrophy
14
Q
What disease is caused by hyperplasia and decreased T cells for thymus
A
DiGeorge syndrome
15
Q
What cells are the most radiosensitive
A
Bone marrow
16
Q
What vitamin is responsible for failure of thrombocytes to function properly
A
Menadione, Vitamine K3
17
Q
A streptococcal organism is most likely to produce pathological effects on which cardiac valve
A
mitral valve
Mcullen’s patch
18
Q
Huntingtons chorea affects caudate nucleus and _____
A
putamen
19
Q
What do you call the caudate and putamen nuclei
A
Corpus striatum
20
Q
What do you call the putamen and globus pallidus
A
lentiform nucleus
21
Q
What is the only sense that does not go to the thalamus
A
Smell (lymbic system)
22
Q
When do you see claw hand due to tight skin
A
scleroderma
23
Q
What causes scalded skin syndrome
A
Staph
24
Q
Describe the following tests, HLVA 27, ANA, and Latex test
A
HLVA 27: genetic test
ANA: blood test
Latex test: blood test _> sero(+)
25
What causes the crystals in pseudogout
calcium
26
What is another name for pseudogout
Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disorder (CPDD)
27
What makes up the crystals found in gout
uric acid
28
What WBC elevates in Listeria monocytogenes
neutrophils
| eiosinophils-parasite
29
What WBC elevates in vacclria? (pox virrus)
Lymphocytes
30
Platybasia is observed in what condisiton
Osteitis Deformans (Paget's)
31
What WBC elevates in Trypanosomiasis
Eosinophil (its a parasite)
32
Paralysis with loss of esophageal muscle tone is a finding in what condition
Achalasia (loss of muscle tone)
33
Which of the following is responsible for production of old age pigment
Lipfuscin
34
What is characterized as a form of metaplasia
Myositis ossifigon?
35
What is characterized as a form of dysplasia
Barrets
36
What bone tumor is associated with pain
osteoid osteoma (pain at night, relieved by aspirin)
37
What causes pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles
Duchennes Dystrophy
38
What condition is esophageal varices and portal hypertension commonly seen in
Alcoholism (Mallory Weiss Syndrome)
39
What does Tetrology of Fallot not include
Atrial septal defect
40
What is another name for enchondromatosis
Olliers Disease
41
When do you get Caisson's disease
Benz from snorkling
42
What condition is linked to alpha-1-trypsin
Emphysema
43
Is Huntington's Disease autosomal dominant or recessive
Dominant
44
Is Hemophilia autosomal dominant or recessive
Recessive
45
What sign/symptom is found with dermatomyositis
proximal muscle weakness
46
Infection of blood vessels is most commonly seen in what condition
Hepatitis C (bloodborn screening)
47
What are kidney stones most common from
calcium oxalate
48
What is the mechanism by which digitalis (drug for heart failure) changes frunction in the body
Calcium influx
49
Charcot Marie tooth disease is what kind of disease
Hereditary
50
Where is the most common location for rhabdomyoma
heart (striated)
51
What is the most common cause of death at the work place
Falls
52
If a patient exhibits both intentional tremors and nystagmus, what part of the brain is dysfunctional
Cerebrum (brain)
53
What is an onion bulb tumor of foot called
Mortons Neuroma
54
What is the shock that is most common in burn victoms
Hypovelemic
55
What is the leading cause of infertility in women
polycystic ovarian syndrome
56
Which type of thrombus forms on the wall of the heart
Mural endothelial on the wall of vein
57
Necrosis of brain tissue results in:
- Coagulative degeneration
- Liquefactive degeneration
- Caseous degeneration
- Enzymatic degeneration
Liquefactive degeneration
58
Enlargement of airspaces primarily caused by smoking can result in:
- chronic bronchitis
- asthma
- emphysema
- pneumothorax
Emphysema
59
This 5 yo boy has SPK 300 times, pseudohypertrophy of the calf muscles and his prognosis is very poor:
- Erb-Duchenne
- Becker
- Facioscapulohumeral
- Myotonic
Erb-Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
60
All of the following are characteristics of myasthenia gravis except:
- autoimmune disease of ACH receptors
- Symptoms include ptosis and diplopia
- Primarily affects females
- Primarily affects males
EXCEPT: Primarily affects males
61
Which of the following is correct regarding Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy Syndrome:
- Also known as Landry's Paralysis
- Caused by fluid filled cavities, present at birth
- Causes staccato speech, intention tremors and nystagmus
- Causes anhydrosis
Causes anhydrosis
62
Wallerian degeneration of axon occurs:
- segmentally
- proximal to distal
- distal to proximal
- proximal only
distal to proximal
63
Where would you find the tophi of gout patient:
- knee only
- hands only
- helix of the ear
- buccal mucosa
Helix of the ear
64
A patient that present with a "pannus" formation has:
- RA
- Degenerative arthrits
- Osteoarthritis
- arthrosis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
65
Which of the following malignant tumors presents with a "sunburst" periosteal reaction:
- Ewing's sarcoma
- glioblastoma
- Krukenberg's tumor
- osteosarcoma
Osteosarcoma
66
Which of the following is most common primary malignancy of bone
- multiple myeloma
- osteogenic sarcoma
- chondrosarcoma
- Ewing's Sarcoma
Multiple myeloma
67
Which of the following is most common primary malignancy of bone in children
- multiple myeloma
- osteogenic sarcoma
- chondrosarcoma
- Ewing's Sarcoma
Osteogenic sarcoma
68
Which of the following antibodies activates the classic complimentary pathway, is the first response and largest immunoglobulin:
- IgA
- IgG
- IgE
- IgM
IgM
69
The MOST clinically significant progression of Osteitis Deformans is:
- Ivory white vertebra
- Osteosarcoma
- Canal stenosis
- Hearing loss
Osteosarcoma
70
This malignancy is found in a child's kidney
- Glioblastoma
- Wilm's tumor
- Krukenberg's tumor
- Medulloblastoma
Wilm's Tumor
71
Longstanding RA is termed:
- Still's disease
- Charcot Joint
- CPPD
- Felty's Syndrome
Felty's syndrome
72
Prinzmetal angina is caused by:
- activity
- emotional excitement
- increased cardiac work
- vasospasm of the coronary artery
vasospasm of the coronary artery
73
The patient is very tall, has arachnodactyly hyperextensibility, and aortic arch fragility:
- Sydenham's Chorea
- Cerebral palsy
- marfans
- Hyperadrenalism
Marfans
74
Patients with a pheochromocytoma would:
- Exhibit "sympathetic rushes"
- Need a referral to an oncologist
- have excruciating bone pain
- show difficulty in balance while standing
Exhibit "sympathetic rushes"
75
All of the following can cause pelvic inflammatory disease EXCEPT:
- Neisseria gonorrhea
- E. coli
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Anthracosis
Anthracosis
76
One cell type changing to another is termed:
- anaplasia
- hyperplasia
- metaplasia
- aplasia
metaplasia
77
"Skip Lesions" are associated with which of the following diseases:
- Celiacs
- Whipples disease
- Regional enteritis
- IBS
Regional enteritis "Chron's"
78
Multiple Myeloma has which of the following periosteal responses:
- onion skin
- sunburst
- parrallel
- no response
NO response
79
Which of the following leukocytes increases with a viral infections:
- neutrophil
- basophil
- eosinophil
- lymphocyte
Lymphocyte
80
An increase in adrenocorticotropic hormone will cause a moon face, hirsutism, purple striae and a buffalo hump:
- Grave's
- Addison's
- Myxedema
- Cushing's
Cushing's
81
Hypoadrenocorticotropic hormone can result in bronze skin and hypotension:
- cushing's
- addison's
- Myxedema
- Graves
Addison's
82
Which of the following is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex?
- Aldosterone
- epinephrine
- cortisol
- serotonin
Aldosterone
83
What does aldosterone absorb? Excrete?
Absorbes-sodium
| Excretes-potasium
84
Damage to the liver can lead to:
- decrease lipid and protein metabolism
- decreased lipid digestion
- decreased lipid metabolism
- decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulation
decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulation
85
Which of the following are the quickest adapters:
- Pacinian corpuscle
- Meissner's corpuscle
- Merkel's corpuscle
- hair follicles
Pacinian corpuscles
86
Which of the following is "inhibitory":
- norepinephrine
- glutamate
- nitric oxide
- dopamine
dopamine
87
Decreased intrapleural pressure causes:
- expiration
- inspiration
- hypoventilation
- hyperventialaion
Inspiration
88
What controls the pace of the heart
- AV node
- SA node
- purkinje fibers
- Myocardium
SA node
89
What produces the first beat of the heart:
- Semilunar valve closing
- AV valves opening
- AV valves closing
- Semilunar valve openins
AV valves closing
90
What is the function of surfactant:
- Increase surface tension
- Decrease surface tension
- Reduce intrapleural pressure
- increase tidal volume
Decrease surface tension
91
Oxytocin stimulates:
- milk let down and growth of the corpus luteum
- milk let down and breast development in pregnancy
- Milk let down and secondary sexual characteristics
- Milk let down and uterine contraction
milk let down and uterine contraction
92
According to the Frank-Straling law, the critical factor controlling stroke volume is:
- Degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract
- heart rate
- stroke volume amplitude
- autonomic nervous system regulation
Degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract
93
What point on the myosin protein does ATPase attach
- Tail
- head
- body
- hillock
head
94
Vital capacity includes:
- Function respiratory capacity and tidal volume
- Inspiratory capacity and residual volume
- inspiratory reserve and residual volume
- inspiratory reserve and tidal volume and expiratory reserve
inspiratory reserve and tidal volume and expiratory reserve
95
Which of the following characteristics are similar for smooth and skeletal muscle:
- length of actin filaments
- Contracts in response to action potentials, which begin following stimulation by motor neurons
- Calcium ions are crucial to contraction
- Strength of contraction per cross sectional area of muscle
Calcium ions are crucial to contraction
96
The myocardium plateau is due mainly to the:
- delayed influx of calcium
- calmodulin present in myocardium
- sodium-calcium exchange channels
- summation of repetitive action potentials from the sinoatrial node
Sodium-calcium exchange channels
97
In which portion of the renal tubules does the majority of absorption take place:
- Collecting duct
- loop of Henle
- Proximal convoluted tubule
- Distal convoluted tubule
Proximal convoluted tubule
98
An influx in sodium causes:
- repolarization
- hyperpolarization
- depolarization
- no polarzation
depolarization
99
What blood test finding best describes respiratory acidosis:
- Increased pH
- no change in pH
- decreased pH
- very little change in pH
Decreased pH
100
Post synaptic contraction of skeletal muscle is due to:
- Release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum
- calcium influx into the cell at the myo-synaptic junction
- influx of sodium
- efflux of potassium
Release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum
101
The juxtagolmerular apparatus releases renin in response to:
- decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole
- constriction of the efferent arteriole
- decreased sodium in the proximal convoluted tubules
- decreased potassium in the proximal convoluted tubules
decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole
102
Chromaffin cells are developed from___ and are associated with the ___ part of the autonomic nervous system:
- Neural crest; parasympathetic
- neural crest; sympathetic
- mesoderm; sympathetic
- mesoderm; parasympathetic
neural crest; sympathetic
103
Hyperventilation will cause:
- respiratory alkalosis
- respiratory acidosis
- metabolic acidosis
- metabolic alkalosis
respiratory alkalosis
104
The peptide believed to be an import CNS neurotransmitter in pain sensation pathways is:
- bradykinin
- enkephalin
- substance P
- dopamine
substance P
105
Stenosis of the mitral valve can result in hypertrophy of the ____, due to increased mechanical resistance during contraction:
- Left atrium
- Right atrium
- Left ventricle
- Right ventricle
Left atrium
106
All of the following are regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system EXCEPT:
- Sudoriferous glands
- exocrine glands
- mucosal glands
- sublingual glands
Sudoriferous glands
