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NBE I > Microbiolgy > Flashcards

Microbiolgy Flashcards

1
Q

What is penicillin’s primary action

A

To stop cell wall synthesis, stops petidoglycan

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2
Q

Describe the ribbon that produces proglottidis

A

tapeworm

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3
Q

What kind of virus is SARS

A

coronavirus

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4
Q

Is Variola eradicated

A

Yes, Variola (small pox) was eradicated in 1977

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5
Q

What is reverse transription

A

RNA -> DNA, Nucleous-> brain DNA -> leaves
HIV or Retrovirus Delbeccio, Baltimore

DNA talks to outside by ER (RNA come out) is translated into linear Amino acids

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6
Q

What is another name for thrush

A

Candida Albicans

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7
Q

Where do we get Aspergillus and Histoplasmosis

A

Aspergillus=farmers (grains and nuts), Histoplasmosis=chicken coup

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8
Q

Bacillus Calmette Guerin

A

TB

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9
Q

What is the most prevalent Arbovirus

A

EEE/West Nile virus

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10
Q

How many forms are there of ebola

A

5

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11
Q

what is another name for ebola

A

hemorhagic fever

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12
Q

Describe free DNA

A

Transduction, bacteria is injected, its free

when uptake=transformation

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13
Q

Where are plastids most commonly found

A

fungi

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14
Q

Where does green/photosynthesis happen

A

chloroplast, chlorophorm

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15
Q

What is immunity in newborns called

A

natural passive (breatmilk), IgA

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16
Q

what are fomites

A

inanimate objects

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17
Q

what is the name of the vaccine that prevents shingles

A

VZV

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18
Q

What is least likely to transmit cytomegalovirus

A

urine

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19
Q

What is the globulin involved with atopic hypersensitivity

A

IgE, Type I

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20
Q

What organization is involved with control, prevention, and education

A

CDC

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21
Q

What are the microorganisms capable of blocking NT at myoneural junction

A

clostridium tetani

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22
Q

what did the 2002 pandemic iradicate

A

SARS

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23
Q

In the compliment system, what is the terminal compiment

A

C3B

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24
Q

What is the most accurate way to diagnose AIDS

A

Western Blot

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25
Q

Describe the process in diagnosing AIDS

A

AIDS-> HIV CD4 decrease in number in the 1st test = screening ELsa Test (immunophoresis)
if its positive, they do a 2nd test -> Western Blot
After 2nd test, they are confirmed (diagnosed)

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26
Q

What are type Vi hypersensitivity reactions mediated by

A

lymphocyte, organ transplant rejection, contact dermitits

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27
Q

How do mumps, orchits, and paratidits relate

A

orchitis -> mumps -> parotitis

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28
Q

what is the most common STD to cause PID

A

Neisria Gonorrhea, gam negative, Clap, ghonecoccal arthritis

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29
Q

What type of organism is trichimonas vaginalis

A

protozoa (frothy, smelly fish)

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30
Q

Give a couple examples of liquefactive necosis

A

mycobacterium lepri and acahansens bacillis

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31
Q

what vaccine is used to prevent whooping cough

A

DTaP (diptheria, tetanus, and pertusis (whooping))

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32
Q

What organism is most common spread live to people

A

rickettsia quintana

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33
Q

Where do you get burnettii and riekettsii

A

burnettii (milk) and rickettsii (RM spotted fever)

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34
Q

What is the most common way to spread hepatitis C

A

Skin contact, and tatoos

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35
Q

What organism is yersinia pestis transmitted by

A

flea-rat

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36
Q

What is it called if a baby has a congenital absence of both T and B cells

A

Combined Immunity Deficiency

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37
Q

What is it called if a baby has a congenital absence of T helper cells

A

AIDS

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38
Q

What is it called if a baby has a congenital absence of thymus

A

DeGeorge’s Syndrome

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39
Q

What is it called if a baby has a congenital absence of no B cells

A

Brutons Syndrome

40
Q

Having a rabbit as a pet with increase the chances of contracting what disease

A

Tularemia

41
Q

Having a parrot as a pet with increase the chances of contracting what disease

A

Psitticosis, chlymidial disase, not STD

42
Q

Which antibody is found in the intestinal lumen

A

IgA

43
Q

Is bacterium a prokaryote or eukaryote

A

prokaryote

44
Q

Sydenhem’s corea occurs in Rheumatic fever

A

Beta hemolytic streptococcus

45
Q

Where do we see Aschoff Bodies

A

Rheumatic fever, beta hemolytic streptococcus

46
Q

What is the number one cause of cystitis in women

A

cystitis (bladder infection) is caused by E. Coli

47
Q

Describe the signs of Reiter’s Disease

A

Can’t see, Can’t pee, Can’t dance with me, arthritis, conjunct, urethritis

48
Q

What is the medium used to culture a virus

A

tissue culture

49
Q

What is the scotch tape test used for

A

Pinworm, enteromebius virticularis

50
Q

Where do we find Herpes Zoster

A

Cranial never five (trigeminal nerve) opthalmic, mandibular, and maxillary

51
Q

How is Hepatitis A spread

A

It is spread through foods

52
Q

What can happen with a strep infection complication

A

glomerulonephritis

53
Q

What organism causes dental cavities

A

Strep mutans

54
Q

Where is helicobacter pylori most common

A

MC in pyloris?, resistant to chlorination

55
Q

How is EEE spread

A

EEE is spread by a mosquito

56
Q

Who discovered Mad Cow disease

A

Pisner Prion

57
Q

What organization is responsible for epidemiological stats

A

CDC

58
Q

Which causes ringworm of the scalp

A

tinea capitis

59
Q

Which organism is grown in an environment with high carbon dioxide

A

Escherichia Ferment (E coli)

60
Q

What antibiotic has the greatest effect on streptococcus

A

Penicillin

61
Q

What disease would you think a rabbit hunter with a fever has

A

tularemia

62
Q

How is toxoplasmosis spread

A

cat feces and under cooked meats

63
Q

How is botulism spread

A

raw honey

64
Q

What disease would you contract from a bird

A

Psittascosis

65
Q

How is pertussis caused

A

It is caused by Bordetella

66
Q

What organism is a Trematode

A

Fluke

67
Q

What organism is a nematode

A

roundworm

68
Q

What flagella is lophotrichus

A

multiple at one end

69
Q

What is a cestode

A

it is like a tapeworm

70
Q

Major histocompatibility complex I and II are recognized by…

A

B cells

71
Q

What makes Interleukin I

A

macrophages

72
Q

What makes Interleukin II

A

CD4

73
Q

What makes Interleukin III

A

Bone marrow

74
Q

A “grapelike-odor” with tissue color change to “blue-green” pus, in a burn victim:

  • Brucellosis
  • Legionella
  • Coliforms
  • Pseudomonas
A

Pseudomonas

75
Q

Class II Histocompatibility complex proteins inform helper T cells problems that exist:

  • inside the cell
  • outside the cell
  • during phagocyte ingestion
  • during a type I hypersensitivity reaction
A

Outside the cell

76
Q

Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct EXCEPT:

  • Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium
  • Both gram (-) rods and cocci have lipopolysaccharide in their cell wall
  • Polysaccharide capsules retard the ability for phagocytosis
  • Flagella are nonantigenic in humans because they resemble human flagella in their chemical composition
A

Flagella are nonantigenic in humans because they resemble human flagella in their chemical composition

77
Q

The main host defense agains bacterial exotoxins:

  • Activated macrophages secreting proteases
  • IgG and IgM antibodies
  • Helper T cells
  • Changes in the host cell receptors in response to the toxin
A

IgG and IgM antibodies

78
Q

Which of the following cells are missing in DiGeorge’s syndrome

  • Helper T
  • Mast
  • Basophils
  • Eosinophils
A

Helper T

79
Q

Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions would indicate pernicious anemia

  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV
A

Type II

80
Q

The most important function of antibody in host defenses against bacteria is:

  • Activation of lysozyme-degrades cell wall
  • Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
  • Facilitation of phagocytosis
  • Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
A

Facilitation of phagocytosis

81
Q

Approximately what percentage of adults smoke?

  • 15%
  • 25%
  • 35%
  • 45%
A

25%

82
Q

Latency is an outcome particularly characteristic of which viral group

  • poliovirus
  • herpesvirus
  • rhinovirus
  • influenza virus
A

Herpesvirus

83
Q

Which of the following is the LEAST likely to produce a disease from a virus

  • Cytopathic effect in infected cells
  • Malignant transformation of infected cells
  • Immune response to virus-induced antigens on the surface of an infected cells
  • production of an exotoxin that activated adenylate cyclase
A

Cytopathic effect in infected cells

84
Q

Staphylococcus aureus physical characteristics are best described as

  • Chain-like
  • Rods
  • Cluster-like
  • Spiral-like
A

Cluster-like

85
Q

A newborn will have the most

  • IgG
  • IgM
  • IgA
  • IgE
A

IgG

go go goes across the placenta

86
Q

Each statement concerning class I MHC is correct EXCEPT:

  • They are cell surface proteins on almost all cells
  • They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells
  • They are codominantly expressed
  • They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
A

They are important in the skin test response to mycobacterium tuberculosis

87
Q

which of the following polio vaccines is live and attenuated

  • salk
  • sabin
  • MMR
  • DPT
A

Sabin

88
Q

Consumption of undercook beef causes:

  • Taenia Saginata
  • Taenia Solium
  • Plasmodium falciparum
  • Diphyllobothrium latum
A

Taenia Saginata

89
Q

Necrotic pneumonia, possibly leading to death is caused by this deep mycoses:

  • Piedraia hortae
  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Candida albicans
  • Malassezia Furfur
A

Aspergillus fumigatus

90
Q

The anal cellophane “scotch tape test” is used to discover:

  • If your patient has contracted R. rickettsi
  • If your patient has contracted an allergy to cellophane
  • If your patient has contracted Enterobius vermicularis
  • If your patient has contracted Coxiella Burnettii
A

Enterobius Vermicularis

91
Q

Your patient is 20 yo with severe diarrhea. She just returned from a trip to Peru and at raw shellfish at her farewell party, she had “rice water stools” 20 times a day and fever, weakness, and dizziness. What caused this?

  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • helicobacter pylori
  • bacteroides fragilis
  • Vibrio cholerae
A

Vibrio cholerae

92
Q

The annual cost in US from alcohol abuse:

  • 170 thousand
  • 170 million
  • 170 billion
  • 170 trillion
A

170 billion

93
Q

The most common sexually transmitted disease in the US

  • Gonorrhea
  • Syphilis
  • Chlamydia
  • Rabies
A

Chlamydia

94
Q

Which of the following intracellular protozoa causes a 33% chance of fetal brain damage:

  • Trypanosoma cruzi
  • Plasmodium falciparum
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Leishmania
A

Toxoplasma gondii

95
Q

The list below are paired with their mode of transmission. Which one of the pairings is MOST accurate:

  • Borrelia burgdorferi-mosquito bite
  • R. rickettsii-food
  • Cholera- tick
  • Yersinia pestis- flea
A

Yersinia pestis-flea

96
Q

A 30yo woman with a history of Rheumatic fever has had a fever for 2 wks. Physical exam reveals a new heart murmur. What is the most likely route of transmission?

  • Colon
  • Stomach
  • Large intestine
  • Mouth
A

Mouth

97
Q

Regarding Lyme disease, which of the following is MOST accurate

  • Cuase is a small gram positive rod
  • The deer tick is the cause
  • Fleas are a principle mode of transmission
  • There is no vaccine available to protect people against this disease
A

The deer tick is the cause

NBE I (6 decks)

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