Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSII Unit 1 > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Bartholin’s Cyst

A

Unilateral dilation of the Bartholin gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What virus usually cause Condyloma

A

HPV 6 or 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is koilocytic change

A

Hallmark for HPV infection (nucleus crinkles like a raisin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is lichen sclerosis

A

thinning of the skin
White patch/parchment like skin (super thin)
slightly higher risk for carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is lichen simplex chronicus

A

the opposite of lichen sclerosis—>leather like skin—>due to itching and scratching
no risk for carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hallmark for carcinoma?

A

Keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is adenosis?

A

Persistent of columnar cell at upper 2/3 of vagina—>adenosis increases risks for clear cell adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

malignant proliferation of immature skeletal muscle/defined by the presence of rhabdomyoblast

Can penetrate into peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the types of high risk HPV virus?

A

16 (most common)/18/31/33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does high risk HPV (DNA virus) cause CIN?

A

High risk HPV makes E6 (kills p53) and E7 (kills Rb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is CIN?

A

Dysplasia—>CIN I/II/III—>potential to reverse

CIS—>can’t reverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 risk factors for cervical carcinoma

A

Smoking and immunodeficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is one of the common cause of death in advanced cervical carcinoma?

A

Hydronephrosis—>renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Endometrium grows with?

A

Estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Endometrium is prepared for implantation with?

A

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Asherman syndrome lack of?

A

The basalis layer of the endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the hallmark for chronic endometritis?

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Endometrial polyp can be the side effect of?

A

Tamoxifen (weak pro-esrogenic effect on endometrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Endometriosis of the myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The most common site of involvement for endometriosis is?

A

Ovary (chocolate cyst….yum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Hyperplasia of endometrial glands relative to stroma caused by unopposed estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most important predictor for progression to cancer?

A

Cellular atypia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Difference between leiomyoma and leiomyosarcoma?

A

Leiomyoma is benign and presents with white whorled masses (premenopause)
Leiomyosarcoma is malignant and presents with single lesion of necrosis/hemorrhage (post menopause)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 2 pathways for endometrial carcinoma?

A

Hyperplasia—>expose to estrogen—>look for endometrioid (cancer looks like normal endometrium) (around 50-60 age)
Sporadic—>from atrophic endometrium—>serous papillary—>driven by p53 mutation—>can have psammoma bodies (layered calcification)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hormone and cells in ovary

A

LH stimulates theca cells—>makes androgen—>androgen goes to granulosa cells—>FSH stimulates granulosa cells—>convert androgen to estrodial—>proliferative phase—>ovulation—>secretory phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is follicular cyst?

A

Degenerated follicles—>a few of them is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is polycystic ovarian disease?

A

LH:FSH>2 (increase LH/decrease FSH)

multiple follicular cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the mechanism of PCOD?

A

Increase LH prompts theca cells to make more androgen—>hirsutism—>androgen is converted to estrone in fat—>estrone feedback inhibit FSH—>granulosa cannot convert androgen to estrodial—>follicle degenerates—>cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where are the ovarian tumors derived from?

A

Surface epithelium (coelomic epithelium)/oocyte (germ cell)/sex cord stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cystadenoma

A

Benign ovarian surface epithelial tumor (serous or mucinous)—>single cyst/flat lining
premenopausal woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cystadenocarcinoma

A

Malignant ovarian surface epithelial tumor—>complex cyst/thick shaggy lining/clear invasion of the cell
postmenopausal woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

BRCA1 mutation carrier have increase risk for

A

breast/ovarian cancer(serous cystadenocarcinoma)/fallopian tube serous carcinoma/medullary carcinoma of the breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ovarian surface epithelial endometrioid tumor

A

Malignant tumor/may raise from endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Brenner tumor

A

Ovarian surface epithelial tumor that has urothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is the prognosis of surface epithelial ovarian tumor

A

Poor since they present late/ovarian carcinoma spread locally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Serum marker for monitoring treatment/recurrence for surface epithelial tumor?

A

CA-125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor of the vagina?

A

Carcinoma metastasize from cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is ovarian cystic teratoma?

A

Benign tumor composed of fetal tissues (skin/hair and what not)/most common benign tumor
If there are immature tissues then it might be malignant/or somatic malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Dysgerminoma

A

Malignant ovarian germ cell tumor that resembles oocytes
Elevated LDH
most common malignant tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Endodermal sinus tumor

A

Malignant ovarian germ cell tumor that resembles yolk sac
Most common in children
Elevated AFP (alpha fetal protein)
Schiller-Duval bodies (glomerulus like)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Choriocarcinoma

A

Malignant ovarian germ cell tumor that is from proliferation of trophoblast
Spread early (trophoblast look for blood vessel)
High beta-hCG
Poor response to chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Embryonal carcinoma

A

Composed of primitive cells

Invade aggressively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Granulosa-theca tumor

A

Malignant ovarian sex cord-stroma tumor that produce estrogen excess
Usually don’t metastasize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

A

Sex ovarian sex cord-strome tumor (contain Reinke crystals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Fibroma

A

Benign ovarian sex cord-stroma tumor can cause pleural effusion and ascites (entire complex is Meigs Syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Krukenberg tumor

A

Metastisized mucinous tumor at ovaries (gastric carcinoma)/if bilaterally then it is metastasized from other site/if unilaterally then it is a primary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pseudomyxoma pertionei

A

Abdomen fills with muscus/metastized from mucinous tumor of appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the key risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Scarring (from PID or endometriosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the causes of spontaneous abortion?

A

Chromosomal anomalies/hypercoagulable state (lupus)/infection/teratogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where is the placenta implanted for placenta previa?

A

Lower uterus blocking the os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What happened when the egg is implanted in myometrium of the uterus?

A

Placenta accreta—>placenta got stuck in there—>need hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

HELLP

A

Preeclampsia with Hemolysis/Elevated Liver enzyme/Low platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is complete hydatidiform mole?

A

2 sperms fertilized an empty ovum—>no fetal tissues—>all villi are edematous and swollen—>trophoblast cover the whole of villi—>low risk for choriocarcinoma
beta-hCG is higher and the uterus is larger than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Does choricocarcinoma from the complication of mole response well to chemo?

A

Yes. The one from ovarian germ cell tumor does not response well to chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Is endocervical polyp benign or malignant?

A

Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What kind of cells can HPV infect?

A

Immature basal/metaplastic squamous epithelium (cervix)
Damage to the mature surface can give access to HPV infection
HPV can replicate in mature squamous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Rate ubiquity of cervical carcinoma

A

squamous cell carcinoma>adenocarcinoma>adenosquamous/neuroendocrine carcinoma (poor prognosis)
all caused by high risk HPV

58
Q

When to start Pap smear and HPV test

A

Start Pap smear (scrape around the transformation zone) around 21 and testing for HPV under 30 is not recommended

59
Q

What can granulosa-theca tumor/polycystic ovarian disease cause?

A

Anovulatory cycle

60
Q

What is papillary hidradenoma?

A

Benign vulvar tumor from modified apocrine sweat gland

61
Q

What is galactorrhea and what usually causes it?

A

Milk production outside of lactation. Can be caused by over stimulation of the nipple or prolactoma in AP. Or drugs

62
Q

Which antibiotics is usually used to treat acute mastitis?

A

Dicloxacillin

63
Q

What usually causes periductal mastitis?

A

Smoking—>vitamin A deficiency

64
Q

What is the hallmark for mammary duct ectasia?

A

green-brown nipple discharge

65
Q

What kind of change in breast is characterized by a blue-dome appearance on gross exam?

A

Fibrocystic change (benign)

66
Q

How can you tell the difference between intraductal papilloma and intraductal carcinoma?

A

The finger like projection in intraductal papilloma (benign) is lined by both epithelial and myoepithelial cells, and it is usually common in premenopausal women. The projection in intraductal carcinoma is lined only by epithelial cells and th is common in postmenopausal women.

67
Q

How can you tell phyllodes tumor from fibroadenoma?

A

Phyllodes tumor has the feature of fibrous component overgrowth that is leaf like, it is seen in postmenopausal women instead of premenopausal women in fibroadenoma.

68
Q

What caused achondroplasia?

A

Activating mutation in FGFR3—>inhibit cartilage growth

69
Q

What are the 3 features of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Multiple bone fractures/blue sclera/hearing loss

70
Q

How does osetopetrosis cause anemia/thrombocytopenia/leukopenia?

A

Thickening of the bone (poor osteoclast function)—>replace medullary space—>no hematopoiesis

71
Q

Why does alkaline phosphatase increase for osteomalacia?

A

Alkaline phosphatase makes alkaline environment—>which is necessary for osteoblast to lay down osteoid

72
Q

What kind of environment is necessary for osteoclast function?

A

Acidic environment

73
Q

Are serum Ca/phosphate/PTH/alkaline phosphatase normal in osteoporosis?

A

Yes

74
Q

What are the 3 stages of for paget disease of bone?

A

Osteoclast goes crazy resorbing bone without the permission of osteoblast—>osteoblast then later come in to lay down more bone to counter osteoclast—>osteoclast burn out, leaving osteoblast to lay down as much bone as possible

75
Q

In osteomyelitis, infection affect what part of the children/adult’s bone?

A

Children: metaphysis
Adult: epiphysis

76
Q

What are the differences between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?

A

Osteoblastoma is larger/arises in vertebrae/pain doesn’t respond to aspirin

77
Q

What part of the bone does osteosarcoma usually take place?

A

Metaphysis of long bone

78
Q

What is the only kind of tumor that arises from epiphysis of the bone?

A

Giant cell tumor

79
Q

11;22 translocation is a characteristic of?

A

Ewing sarcoma

80
Q

What is the location difference between chondroma and condrosarcoma?

A

Chondroma arises in small bones of hands and feet

Chondrosarcoma arises in pelvis or central skeleton

81
Q

What is the ‘wear and tear’ disease that degenerate the articular cartilage?

A

Osteoarthritis

82
Q

What is HLA-DR4 associated with?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

83
Q

What is the hallmark of Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Synovitis leading to formation of pannus (granulation tissues)

84
Q

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies lacks of?

A

Rheumatoid factor

85
Q

What causes Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

Deficiency of HGPRT—>which salvage hypoxanthine and guanine—>as a result high uric acid deposit—>mental retardation and self-mutilation

86
Q

What is the characteristics of chronic gout?

A

Tophi/needle-shaped crystals with negative birefringence under polarized light

87
Q

What is the difference between dermatomyositis and polymyositis?

A

Dermatomyositis involves skin—>perimysial inflammation

Polymyositis does not involve skin—>endomysial inflammation

88
Q

What is the characteristic finding of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Calf pseudohypertrophy

89
Q

What are the characteristic cells of liposarcoma and rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

Lipoblas/rhabdomyoblast

90
Q

What are the two causes of vulvar carcinoma?

A

HPV 16/18 or long standing lichen sclerosis

91
Q

What is extramammary paget disease?

A

Malignant carcinoma in situ of the vulva/PAS positive

92
Q

What does DES put women at risk for?

A

Adenosis of the vagina and then clear cell adenocarcinoma/abnormally shaped uterus—>recurrent abortions

93
Q

What causes Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome?

A

Failure of mullerian duct to develop—>no uterus and upper vagina

94
Q

What is Gartner duct cyst?

A

Benign cyst on the lateral wall of the vagina that is from the remnant of woffian duct

95
Q

Is Nabothian cyst benign?

A

It is normal—>endocervical gland orifices got blocked by metaplastic squamous cells

96
Q

What is the characteristics of acute cervicitis?

A

Vaginal discharge/pelvic pain/dyspareunia/caused by C. trachomatis, N. gonorrhea, trichomatis vaginalis, candida, HSV-2, HPV

97
Q

Which bacteria causes follicular cervicitis?

A

C. trachomatis. Germinal center with large lymphoid cells

98
Q

What are superficial/intermediate/parabasal cells from pap smear?

A

adequate estrogen (young nonpregnant women) /adequate progesterone (pregnant women) /lack of estrogen and progesterone (elderly)

99
Q

What is cervical polyp and is it precancerous?

A

It is a benign polyp arises from endocervix. Need to be excised.

100
Q

What is mittelschmerz?

A

Pain during mid cycle (blood from ruptured follicle irritate peritoneum)

101
Q

What are the characteristics of preeclampsia?

A

HTN/proteinuria/edema

102
Q

What is the characteristics of the placenta of the woman who is going to have preeclampsia?

A

Angiogenic changes of implantation does not occur (relative placenta ischemia)

103
Q

What is the difference between hirsutism and virilization?

A

Hirsutism is excess hair in hair bare area and virilization is hirsutism + 2nd male sex characteristics (increase muscle mass/enlarged clitoris)

104
Q

What causes anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

Excess estrogen comparing to progesterone—>absent secretory phase

105
Q

What causes ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

Inadequate maturation of the corpus luteum/persistent luteal phase with continued secretion of progesterone

106
Q

What might cause amenorrhea?

A

Hypogonadism/ovarian disorder—>decreased synthesis of estrogen and progesterone

107
Q

What does leiomyoma depend on?

A

Estrogen. It usually go away during menopause

108
Q

What is consists of carcinosarcoma?

A

Malignant gland and stroma tumor

109
Q

What is Hydatid cyst?

A

Fallopian tube cyst from mullerian remnant

110
Q

What is the gross finding of PID?

A

Hydrosalpnix (fluid filled fallopian tube)

111
Q

What is the disease that is characterized by fallopian tube diverticulosis?

A

Salpingitis isthmica nodosa

112
Q

What is the best screening test for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Beta-hCG with a lesser degree of elevation comparing with real pregnancy

113
Q

What does stromal hyperthecosis cause?

A

Hyperplasia of the theca interna of the ovary increase androgen production—>hirsutism and virilization

114
Q

Nulliparity increase risks of what kind of ovarian cancer?

A

Surface epithelium ovarian cancer

115
Q

What is the name of the malignant tumor that has a mixture of germ cell and sex cord tumor?

A

Gonadoblastoma

116
Q

What is the risk of velamentous insertion?

A

Umbilical cord plant from the placenta edge—>risk for hemorrhage

117
Q

What drug is used to treat eclampsia seizure?

A

Magnesium sulfate

118
Q

Increase/decrease maternal AFP is an indication of?

A

Open neural tube defect/Down syndrome

119
Q

Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio >2 indicates?

A

Adequate surfactant synthesis

120
Q

What is Mondor’s disease of the breast?

A

Overlaying cord that is painful on the breast

121
Q

What drug causes fibroadenoma in women?

A

Cyclosporine

122
Q

When you see bloody discharge you think cancer, but one exception is?

A

Intraductal papilloma (breast and benign)

123
Q

What is estrogen’s role for osteoblast/clast?

A

It promotes osteoblast and inhibit osteoblast

124
Q

IL-1/6 TNF are osteoclast/osteoblast promoting?

A

increase RANKL/RANK—>promote Osteoblast

125
Q

Osteoblast produces ___ to inhibit RANKL/RANK?

A

OPG

126
Q

What age group does osteochondrosis affect?

A

Children

127
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes (limp) disease?

A

AVN of the femoral head ossification center

128
Q

What becomes detached in osteochondritis dissecans?

A

The articular cartilage

129
Q

What age group does Osgood-Schlatter disease affect?

A

Active boys from 11-15

130
Q

Increase hat sized/alkaline phosphatase are markers for ___?

A

Paget disease of the bone

131
Q

Paget disease of the bone increase risk for ___?

A

Osteosarcoma

132
Q

What disease does polystotic bone involvement of firbrous dysplasia associated with?

A

Albright syndrome

133
Q

Poor clot during mucin clot test means ___?

A

Sign of joint inflammation

134
Q

What is the age group that osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma affect?

A

10-20

135
Q

Alkaptonuria can also cause ___?

A

osteoarthritis

136
Q

What enzyme degrade proteoglycan and collage of the cartilage in osteoarthritis?

A

Metalloproteinase

137
Q

Loss of proprioception and deep pain sensation is a result of ____ joint?

A

Charcot joint

138
Q

What is the inflammatory mechanism of gout?

A

Uric acid activate complement system—>release C5/3a—>attract neutrophil—>inflammation

139
Q

CPPD increase with ____ and ____

A

Hemochromatosis and hemosiderosis

140
Q

What test is used to test De Quervain tenosynovitis?

A

Finkelstein test

141
Q

What bone tumor is benign but locally aggressive?

A

Giant cell tumor

MSII Unit 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions