Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LUIV Cheers > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following will cause edema?
A. Hyperalbuminemia
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Blockage of lymphatics by a neoplastic process
D. Both B and C are correct
A

D. Edema is caused by hypoalbuminemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True of edema in inflammation
A. Edema fluid is called a transudate
B. Due to increased capillary permeability
C. Due to renin-angiotensin system activation
D. Both B and C are correct

A

B. Edema fluid is exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
A passive process brought about by obstruction in venous blood flow
A. Hemorrhage
B. Congestion
C. Hyperemia
D. Anasarca
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Morphologic evidence of chronic congestion
A. Presence of hemosiderin laden macrophages
B. Constricted vessels with a reddish hue
C. Disintegrated neutrophils
D. Only A and B are correct

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
True of petechiae
A. May be due to immunologic disorders
B. Measures > 2 mm
C. May be related to platelet or clotting factor defects
D. Seen in subcutaneous tissues
A

C

Petechiae are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Participants in normal hemostasis except
A. Platelets
B. Endothelium
C. Intracellular matrix
D. Coagulation factors
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
Primary hemostasis involves
A. Tissue factor
B. Endothelin
C. Fibrin
D. Thrombin
A

B

Fibrin and thrombin  secondary hemostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Endothelial cells have both anti- and pro-thrombotic properties
B. Prostacyclin and nitric oxide inhibits platelet aggregation
C. Tissue factor activates extrinsic clotting cascade
D. Platelet to platelet adhesion is mediated by von Willebrand factor

A

D

vWF mediates adhesion to underlying ECM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
Deficiency in gp1b
A. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B. May trigger coagulation cascade
C. Will cause an increase in partial thromboplastin time
D. Both A & B
A

A

gp1b mediates binding of vWF to platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
The endothelial cell produces
A. Vasoconstrictors
B. Plasminogen activator inhibitor
C. Tissue factor
D. AOTA
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
It assesses the function of factors XII, II, V, X, and fibrongen
A. PTT assay
B. ARST assay
C. PT assay
D. PPT assay
A

A

PTT is for the extrinsic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
Morphology of true thrombi
A. RBC, platelets, fibrin
B. RBC, WBC, fibrinogen
C.  WBC, plasmin, fibrin
D. WBC, platelets, fibrin
A

A
In heart or aorta: platelets, fibrin, RBC
Arterial: platelets, fibrin, RBC, WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
True of thrombus
A. Endothelial damage is the major cause
B. Laminar blood flow is present
C. Involves inflammation
D. Both A & C
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Sequelae of venous congestion
A. Superficial ulcer
B. Local congestion and pain
C.
D. A & B only
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True of pulmonary embolism
A. Deep venous thrombosis is a major cause
B. Immobilization can cause venous thrombosis in the lower extremities
C. Most pulmonary emboli are not clinically significant
D. Saddle emboli are found at the bifurcation of the pulmonary arteries

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Which of the following is an example of endogenous cell accumulation?
A. Freckles
B. Brown atrophy
C. Hemosiderosis
D. AOTA
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
Most common cause of infarcts
A. Vasospasms
B. Thromboembolic occlusions
C. Torsion
D. Inflammation
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Not usually true of red infarcts
A. May occur in spleen, kidney, or heart
B. Seen in organs with loose tissue support
C. Happens in organs with dual circulation
D. Both B and C

A

A

Infarcts in A are white infarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
Histamine and IgE mediated shock
A. Neurogenic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Anaphylactic
D. Hypovolemic
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True of shock
A. Systemic hypoperfusion due to decreased cardiac output
B. Hypoxia, metabolic acidosis, and cell death
C. Multiple organ failure
D. AOTA

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
One of the most common genetic alterations found in human carcinoma, which when working leads to tumor suppression
A. RAS
B. p53
C. c-myc
D. Bcl-2
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Infection with syphilis predisposes one to the transmission of HIV because
A. Infection has a synergistic effect in down-regulating the immune system
B. Skin lesions represent good portals of entry
C. Visible but nonpainful lesions do not alert the host to potential damage
D. Infection provides live organisms

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
Which of the following causes the least pathologic change in the liver post-infection?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis C
C. E. coli abscess
D. Leptospirosis
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
The virulence factor of H. influenza is:
A. Capsule
B. Plasmid-encoded hyaluronidase
C. Exotoxin
D. Cord factor
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
The first human cells the M. tuberculosis usually first encounters is:
A. oral cavity cells
B. nasal cavity cells
C. pulmonary alveolar macrophages
D. bronchial ciliated cells
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
The earliest diagnostic test to become positive in a dengue infection is:
A. MAC-ELISA
B. NS 1
C. CF test
D. Hemagglutination-inhibition assay
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Incidence of RSV infection is higher in young children and decreases with age. This is probably reflective of:
A. Memory-type response in the form of IgG in the circulation
B. Memory-type response in the form of secretory IgA in the upper respiratory tract
C. Memory-type response in the form of cytotoxic T cells in the circulation
D. Better IgM response in the circulation

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
Pancreatitis with enzymatic fat necrosis is seen in:
A. Mumps
B. dengue
C. Rubella
D. herpes
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
Chorioretinitis may be seen in
A. EBV
B. Herpes
C. CMV
D. Dengue virus
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
Squamous cell carcinoma may follow cervical infection usually with:
A. HPV 16
B. HPV 6
C. HPV 1
D. HPV 2
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
Illness with striking lymphadenopathy with the terminal ileum having the most severe lesions
A. S. typhi
B. Amoeba
C. Shigella
D. Vibrio cholera
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
In about 1% of cases, polio virus invades the CNS and replicates in the:
A. Motor neurons of the spinal cord
B. Cerebellum
C. Purkinje cells
D. Microglia
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Viral damage in host cells will morphologically manifest mostly as:
A. Suppurative inflammation
B. Necrotizing inflammation
C. Granulomatous inflammation
D. Cytopathic-cytoproliferative inflammation

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
Vibrio cholera adhesion and toxins are induced by:
A. Plasmids
B. Diarrhea
C. Proliferation in salt water
D. Iron deprivation
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
These structures are found on many bacteria and mediate adherence
A. Pili
B. Glycoprotein
C. Ground substance
D. Mucin
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A three-year old female patient was brought to the hospital because of moderate to high grade fever of two days duration

If the patient presents with productive cough and runny nose, the most likely etiologic agent is:
A. Influenza virus
B. S. aureus
C. RSV
D. Streptococcus pneumonia
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A three-year old female patient was brought to the hospital because of moderate to high grade fever of two days duration

Upon examination of the patient, small ulcerated mucosal lesions were found at the posterior portion of the oral mucosa, near the molars. Causative agent is most likely a: 
A. Gram (-) intracellular diplococci 
B. Gram (+) cocci arranged in clusters 
C. Enveloped single stranded RNA virus 
D. Single stranded DNA virus
A

C.). The lesions described are Koplik’s spots, which are pathognomic for measles. Measles are caused by Paramyxoviridiae, a negative sense, single-stranded RNA virus. Other members of this viral genus are RSV and the mumps virus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A three-year old female patient was brought to the hospital because of moderate to high grade fever of two days duration

A long term complication of this infection
A. SSPE
B. Chlamydia
C. Varicella
D. Herpes zoster
A

A

Recall: SSPE = subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A three-year old female patient was brought to the hospital because of moderate to high grade fever of two days duration

A few days more after initial hospitalization, the patient developed pneumonia. The following might be found in the exudative material in the lungs:
A. Cowdry-type A nuclear inclusions
B. Warthin-Finkeldey cells
C. Negri bodies
D. Large ovoid dense eosinophilic inclusions

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A three-year old female patient was brought to the hospital because of moderate to high grade fever of two days duration

A routine aerobic bacterial culture was taken from the respiratory specimen of this pneumonia patient. Among the following, the most likely organism that will grow is:
A. S. aureus
B. S. pyogenes
C. S. pneumonia
D. N. meningitides
A

C

41
Q 
Which is not a sign of inflammation?
A. Tumor
B. Rubor
C. Pallor
D. Dolor
A

C

42
Q 
Which is an anti-inflammatory substance?
A. Lipoxin
B. PGE2
C. LTC4 
D. Thromboxane A2
A

A

43
Q 
What is the process of leukocyte movement across the endothelial wall?
A. Chemotaxis
B. Diapedesis
C. Margination
D. Adhesion
A

B

44
Q 
What is responsible for leukocyte rolling?
A. Beta-2 integrin
B. E-selectin
C. CAM 1
D. CD 31
A

B

45
Q

Phagocytosis
A. Recogntion -> phagolysosome -> phagosome -> opsonin
B. Recognition -> phagosome -> phagolysosome -> opsonin
C. Recognition -> phagolysosome -> opsonin -> phagosome
D. Recognition -> opsonin -> phagosome -> phagolysosome

A

D

46
Q 
Characteristic of monocyte
A. More numerous in blood
B. Rapidly response within 24 hours
C.  Seen in Pseudomonas for several days
D. Proliferative within tissue
A

D

47
Q 
A few hours after infection, which is/are expected to be elevated?
A. CRP
B. SAA
C. fibrinogen
D. AOTA
A

A

48
Q 
Acute phase proteins are mostly synthesized in the:
A. Kidney
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. Heart
A

C

49
Q 
Seen in a 50 year old: fever (38.2-38.5), sore throat, myalgia. What mediator is involved?
A. IL 1
B. IL 12
C. IL 6
D. AOTA
A

D

50
Q 
Which of the following does not increase vascular permeability?
A. C5a
B. Histamine
C. C3a
D. TNF
A

B or D

51
Q

Atherosclerosis

A. Acute
B. Chronic acute
C. Chronic

A

C

52
Q

Asthma

A. Acute
B. Chronic acute
C. Chronic

A

B

53
Q

Transplant Rejection

A

A

54
Q

Blister

A. Ulcer
B. Fibrinoid
C. Suppurative
D. Serous

A

D

55
Q

Hyperacidity

A. Ulcer
B. Fibrinoid
C. Suppurative
D. Serous

A

A

56
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease

A. Decreased microbial killing
B. Reduced oxidative burst
C. Mutations of protein involved in lysosomal membrane traffic
D. Mutations in beta chain of CD11/18
E. Mutations in fucosyl transferase
A

A

57
Q

LAD1

A. Decreased microbial killing
B. Reduced oxidative burst
C. Mutations of protein involved in lysosomal membrane traffic
D. Mutations in beta chain of CD11/18
E. Mutations in fucosyl transferase
A

D

58
Q

LAD2

A. Decreased microbial killing
B. Reduced oxidative burst
C. Mutations of protein involved in lysosomal membrane traffic
D. Mutations in beta chain of CD11/18
E. Mutations in fucosyl transferase
A

B

59
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

A

C

60
Q

Myeloperoxidase deficiency

A

E

61
Q

The ff are characteristics of neoplastic growth except:
A. growth ceases when stimulus is removed
B. autonomous
C. Purposeless
D. Exceeds growth of normal tissue

A

A

62
Q 
Which is an example of a benign tumor?
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Melanoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Immature teratoma
A

A

63
Q 
Characterized by pleomorphism, hyperchromatism, increased nuclear:cytoplasm ratio, numerous mitoses
A. Invasion
B. Anaplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. Neoplasia
A

B

64
Q 
What is the most significant factor distinguishing malignant from benign tumors?
A. Invasiveness
B. Proliferation
C. Metastasis
D. Uncontrolled growth
A

C

65
Q 
A carcinoma of the breast may metastasize through which route?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphatic
C. Hematogenous and lymphatic
D. Direct invasion
A

B

66
Q 
Which is properly matched?
A. Hypercalcemia: squamous cell CA of lung
B. SIADH: adenocarcinoma of lung
C. Hypoglycemia: liposarcoma
D. Carcinoid syndrome: renal cell CA
A

A

67
Q

Phenomenon observed in inherited cancer syndrome
A. Unclear mode of inheritance
B. Multiple bilateral tumor
C. Inactivation of tumor suppressor genes
D. Autosomal recessive

A

A

68
Q 
Which is the most likely to become a carcinoma
A. Brain cell
B. Fat cell
C. Transition cell
D. Bone cell
A

C

69
Q

A sequence of epithelial metaplasia to dysplasis to carcinoma-in-situ would be most characteristic for:
A. HPV infection of uterine cervix
B. Retroviral infection of T-lymphocytes
C. Hepatitis B infection of liver
D. Epstein-Barr virus infection of B-lymphocytes

A

A

70
Q

The feature that best distinguishes a neoplasm from a granuloma is the neoplasm’s:
A. Recurrence following excision
B. Rapid increase in size
C. Sensitivity to radiation or chemotherapy
D. Uncontrolled (autonomous) growth

A

D

71
Q 
Not carcinogenic
A. Asbestos
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Saccharin
D. Vinyl chloride
A

C

72
Q

The best example of viral oncogenesis in humans is seen with which of the following neoplasms:
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Small cell anaplastic carcinoma of the lung
C. T-cell leukemia
D. Prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

C

73
Q 
A 40-year old male now has abdominal pain and distension. He has had a 20 kg (44 pound) weight loss along with increasing fatigue over the past year. He develops abdominal distension from bowel obstruction. At laparotomy, a partial resection of the colon is performed, with removal of an encircling mass in the descending colon. Which of the following lab test findings is most likely to accompany the lesion?
A. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
B. Positive antinuclear antibody
C. Elevated alpha-fetoprotein
D. Decreased lactate dehydrogenase
A

A

74
Q

A 56-year old male has a chest x-ray that demonstrates a 6 cm perihilar mass. He has had a chronic cough. A sputum cytology report reads “atypical cells present suggestive of squamous cell carcinoma.” Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be associated with these findings?
A. He has a history of asbestos exposure
B. He had prolonged formaldehyde exposure
C. He was previously treated for lung cancer
D. His wife smokes

A

B

75
Q 
Associated with chokes and bends
A. Air embolism
B. Fat embolism
C. Amniotic embolism
D. Thromboembolism
A

A

76
Q 
Needed for leukocyte rolling
A. Integrins
B. Selectin
C. vW factor
D. GlpIIb/IIIa
A

B

77
Q 
Which describes poor prognosis?
A. Aneuploidy in flow cytometry
B. Positive immunohistochemical testing
C. Well-differentiated cells using histological testing
D. Stage T1 N0 M0
A

A

78
Q

Pre-malignant conditions include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Endometrial hyperplasia following prolonged estrogen therapy
B. Chronic alcoholism leading to micronodular cirrhosis of the liver
C. Chronic ulcerative colitis
D. Multiple leiomyomas of the uterine myometrium

A

D

79
Q 
Among the following characteristics of neoplasms, which of the following indicates a good prognosis?
A. Decreased N:C ratio
B. Aneuploidy
C. Increased laminin receptors
D. Increased cathepsin
A

A

80
Q

A 50 year old man with long standing Epstein-Barr virus infection will probably develop what condition?
A. Kaposi’s sarcoma
B. Small cell anaplastic carcinoma of the lung
C. Thyroid carcinoma
D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

D

81
Q 
Normal stress/pathologic stimuli can lead to the following:
A. Viable cells
B. Cell death
C. Adaptation to a new steady state
D. AOTA
A

D

82
Q 
Which among the following is the most common cause of cellular injury?
A. Genetic changes
B. Infection from biological agents
C. Hypoxia
D. Chemical agents
A

C

83
Q 
Hyperplasia is the typical adaptive response of which of the following tissues?
A. Neurons
B. Squamous epithelium
C. Myocardium
D. Skeletal muscle
A

B

84
Q 
Features of an injured cell except:
A. Decreased ATP
B. Low intracellular calcium
C. Increased membrane permeability
D. Oxygen-derived free radicals
A

B

85
Q 
Not an adaptive cell response
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Hypoplasia
A

D

86
Q

Metaplastic transformation of squamous to glandular epithelium is seen in:
A. Respiratory tract in chronic smokers
B. Endocervical junction in adult women
C. Esophagogastric junction in chronic gastric reflux
D. AOTA

A

C

87
Q 
Steatosis is:
A. Reversible
B. Most often associated with chronic alcoholism 
C. Seen in organs other than the liver
D. AOTA
A

D

88
Q 
Metastatic calcification is:
A. Aortic atherosclerosis
B. Due to elevated serum calcium levels
C. Morphologically different from dystrophic calcification
D. Occurs in previously injured tissue
A

B

89
Q 
A 60-year old woman from India had an ectopic pregnancy 34 years ago and the fetus remained in the abdomen. She complained of pain and a mass was found. Surgery revealed “a mature skeleton encapsulated in a calcified sac.” This is an example of:
A. Dystrophic calcification
B. Metastatic calcification
C. Uterine hypertrophy
D. Dysplasia
A

A

90
Q 
Light microscope finding indicating irreversible
A. blebs
B. Swelling
C. Mitochondrial inclusions
D. Disappearance of nucleus
A

D

91
Q 
Necrosis is:
A. Reversible
B. A mass of dead cells
C. Always due to infection
D. What happens to tissue after it is excised
A

B

92
Q 
Enzymatic fat necrosis is characteristically seen in:
A. Salivary gland infections
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute gastritis
D. Liposuction complications
A

B

93
Q 
Most loss of tissue architecture
A. Gangrenous appendicitis
B. Uninfected ischemic foot in DM
C. Brain infarct
D. Liver infarct
A

C

94
Q 
Caseous or caseation necrosis is descriptive of TB lesions seen:
A) on light micrsocopy 
B) grossly
C) using electron miscroscope
D) AOTA
A

D

95
Q 
Apoptosis
A. Is enzymatic
B. Is never pathologic
C. Is associated with inflammation
D. All of the above
A

A

96
Q 
Removal of apoptotic cells
A. Requires chemical inflammatory mediators
B. Means the cells are shed off
C. Is via phagocytosis
D. Occurs in groups
A

C

97
Q 
Control of cell proliferation is due to:
A. Cell injury
B. Programmed aging
C. Apoptosis
D. AOTA
A

D

98
Q

Which is an example of pathologic hypertrophy?
A. Left ventricular enlargement in chronic hypertension
B. Uterus in pregnancy
C. Cosmetic implants in the breasts
D. Bigger biceps in body builders

A

A

99
Q

A newborn baby died. Upon autopsy, it was found that the left lung was small and underdeveloped while the right lung was larger and heavier than normal. The baby has:
A. Left lung hypoplasia, right lung hypertrophy
B. Left lung atrophy, right lung hypertrophy
C. Left lung hypoplasia, right lung hyperplasia
D. Small left lung, big right lung

A

A

LUIV Cheers (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions