Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LUIV Cheers > OB E3 > Flashcards

OB E3 Flashcards

1
Q

The primary reason why breast conservation surgery is an acceptable alternative to modified radical mastectomy in the treatment of primary operable cancer
A. Better cosmetic outcomes
B. Decreased recurrence rate
C. Increased overall survival rate
D. Lesser cost because of no need for radiotherapy

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
The main treatment modality that is designed to alleviate persistent cough from breast CA metastasizing to the lung parenchyma is:
A. Closed tube thoracotomy 
B. Best supportive care
C. Palliative radiotherapy
D. Palliative chemotherapy
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
The imaging test of choice to confirm clinical finding of possible bone metastasis from breast CA
A. Bone xray
B. Bone scan
C. Bone mineral density scan
D. Bone CT scan
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Biopsy technique that requires a gauge 14-16 caliber needle that provides a core of tissue for histopathologic evaluation is
A. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
B. Frozen section biopsy
C. Excision biopsy
D. Core needle biopsy
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
50/F asymptomatic consulted because of a 2.5 x 1.5 cm hard movable mass without overlying skin ulceration nor palpable axillary or supraclavicular lymph nodes. Core needle biopsy revealed invasive ductal carcinoma. The clinical stage is:
A. IA
B. IIA
C. IIIA
D. IVA
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
The therapeutic strategy for stage IIIC breast CA to downstage the disease prior to treatment with modified radical mastectomy is:
A. Adjuvant chemotherapy 
B. Adjuvant radiotherapy
C. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
D. Induction radiotherapy
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
Type of staging used to determine/guide primary therapy
A. Clinical staging
B. Pathognomonic
C. Retreatment staging
D. Autopsy staging
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
Management of occult metastases
A. Adjuvant chemotherapy
B. Adjuvant radiotherapy
C. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
D. Ionizing (?) radiation
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
The pathologic basis in the diagnosis of peau d’orange skin is
A. Dermal neovascularization
B. Proliferation of inflammatory cells
C. Tumor blockage of dermal lymphatics
D. Invasion of Cooper’s ligament
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
A chromosomal 17 mutation among females that predisposes to about 60-80% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer
A. Cyp D6
B. K-ras
C. BRCA 1
D. BRCA 2
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Histopathologic feature of fibroadenoma that differentiates it from phyllodes tumor
A. Epithelial and stromal proliferation
B. Hypocellular stroma without cellular atypia
C. Mitotic activity >10 per HPF
D. Infiltrative tumor margin

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
Best timing for breast self-examination
A. 7-10 days after 1st day of menstruation
B. 10-14 days before menstruation
C. Day before menstruation
D. Any day
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
Breast abscess is usually caused by what organisms?
A. S. aureus
B. M. tuberculosis
C. S. pyogenes
D. P. aeruginosa
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
A patient has sanguinous nipple discharge with NO palpable mass. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Intraductal carcinoma
B. Intraductal papilloma
C. Paget’s disease of the nipple
D. Ductal ectasia
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
A female patient presents with mastalgia and nodular breast tissue with no dominant mass. There is no axillary node. The primary clinical diagnosis
A. Breast abscess
B. Breast CA
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Fibrocystic changes
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
A lactating female patient palpated a mass on her breast. The mass is about 3 cm in its greatest diameter. There is no erythema. There is no axillary node. Most likely clinical diagnosis
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Breast CA
C. Galactocoele
D. Macrocyst
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
In a 50/F patient with no palpable breast mass but who needs a screening procedure because of a strong family history of breast CA, what is the recommended diagnostic procedure?
A. Needle biopsy
B. Open biopsy
C. Mammography
D. Ultrasound
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Histologic examination of a fungating mass on the glans penis of a 50 year old man will most likely show
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Transitional cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Balanitis xerotica obliterans
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
Most significant risk factor in development of erythroplasia of Queyrat
A. Smoking
B. HPV infection
C. History of hepatic infection
D. Multiple sexual partners
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
Painless, solid, testicular mass in a 30 year old will most probably yield the following histologic diagnosis
A. Embryonal carcinoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Seminoma
D. Leydig cell tumor
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
Based on its pattern of drainage, metastasis from testicular cancer will first spread to the:
A. Spermatic nodes
B. Superficial inguinal nodes
C. Deep pelvic nodes
D. Paracaval and paraaortic nodes
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
Pain, swelling, tenderness of testes associated with scrotal erythema in teenage boy is best managed by
A. Antibiotics
B. Surgery
C. Radiation
D. Chemotherapy
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
Medical management of symptoms associated with benign prostatic hypertrophy aimed to relax smooth muscles of the bladder outlet include
A. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
B. Androgen receptor inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
A 50 year old man presenting with an enlarged prostate on ultrasound but denies any voiding problem should be managed with
A. Medical management
B. Watchful waiting
C. Prophylactic hormone therapy
D. Herbal supplementation
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
In the early stages of obstruction from an enlarged prostate, the following symptoms may be expected because of changes in the bladder
A. Frequency
B. Urinary retention
C. Hesitancy
D. Weak urinary stream
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
1 in 3 men would have the following type of sexual dysfunction
A. ED
B. Retrograde ejaculation
C. Premature ejaculation
D. Decreased libido
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The recommended initial treatment for a 45 year old male complaining of inability to sustain erection with an estimated intravaginal ejaculation latency time (IELT) of less than 1 minute is/are
A. Dapoxetine only
B. PDE5 inhibitors only
D. Dapoxetine + PDE5 inhibitors
D. Dapoxetine + PDE5 inhibitors + psychotherapy

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
The drug of choice in the treatment of premature ejaculation is:
A. Fluoxetine
B. Sertraline
C. Dapoxetine
D. Paroxetine
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dapoxetine inhibits ejaculation by which of the following mechanisms
A. It increases the synaptic levels of serotonin
B. It produces significant penile hypoesthesia thus prolonging the latency time to ejaculation
C. It works by relaxing and dilating the blood vessels to the corpora cavernosa
D. It decrease sensorium to delay ejaculation

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
Occurs during normal erection
A. NO exits cell membrane
B. PDE converts GTP to cGMP
C. Relaxation of penile smooth muscle
D. Increased intracellular Ca2+ causes erection
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following occurs in the flaccid state of the penis?
A. The penile smooth muscle is contracted
B. The helicine arteries are dilated
C. Sinusoidal spaces are filled up with blood
D. The subtunical venous plexuses are compressed

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which suggests an organic cause of ED
A. A patient is unable to sustain his erection in the middle of intercourse with his regular partner but is able to maintain good erections when he is with a different partner
B. Known diabetic with gradual loss of erection for the past 2 years
C. 28 year old who has good erections in 8 out of 10 times of sexual intercourse
D. 40 year old who immediately loses erection after ejaculating less than 1 minute of penetration

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is the best way of diagnosing premature ejaculation?
A. History alone
B. PE
C. PEDT
D. … measurement of IELT with the use of…

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
A 55/M with no known co-morbidities is complaining of decrease in libido and difficulty initiating erection for the past 6 months, accompanied by mood changes, irritability, and easy fatigability. His PE is essentially normal. What will be your next step?
A. Request for serum testosterone
B. Give a trial of tadalafil
C. Administer testosterone undecanoate
D. AOTA
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
Which of the following can be safely prescribed to a patient diagnosed with angina maintained on isosorbide mononitrate complaining of ED?
A. Sildenafil
B. Vardenafil
C. Tadalafil
D. Intraurethral alprostadil
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding priapism
A. It occurs due to excessive sexual stimulation
B. It spontaneously resolves without intervention
C. Penis is painful and tender
D. It can resolve once the patient ejaculates

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

30/M construction worker is consulting due to prolonged painful erection of >4 hours duration when he slipped and hit his perineum against a wood slab. The patient most likely has
A. Overstimulation of the dorsal nerve
B. Fistula formation between the cavernous artery and cavernous corpora
C. Failure of venous blood to drain from
D. Normal erection prolonged secondary to trauma to the perineum

A

B

38
Q

75/M consulted at the ER due to bruising, swelling, and deformity of his penis sustained in the middle of sexual intercourse after taking sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. What would you advise the patient?
A. Complete bed rest until the condition spontaneously resolves
B. Emergency penile surgery
C. Prescribe tranexamic acid to prevent further bleeding
D. Cold compress to prevent further swelling of the penis

A

B

39
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding male sexual dysfunction?
A. Majority of men with ED are properly diagnosed and treated
B. The prevalence of ED is expected to decrease 10 years from now due to new diagnostic and treatment modalities
C. Age itself is the only identifiable cause of ED in the elderly
D. Metabolic syndrome contributes to the development of ED

A

D

40
Q 
What is the accepted diagnosis for the condition with displacement  of lower genitourinary and lower GI tract from their normal anatomical location, which results in a bulge in the female introitus?
A. Pelvic organ protrusion
B. Pelvic organ relaxation
C. Pelvic organ prolapse
D. Pelvic organ mass
A

C

41
Q 
What is the most common risk factor for the development of such (43)?
A. Parity
B. Age
C. Menopause
D. Obesity
A

A and B

42
Q 
It is a device placed in the vagina to hold the uterus in place to prevent it from prolapsing?
A. Vaginal cone
B. Uterine dilator
C. Hegar’s dilator
D. Pessary
A

D

43
Q 
What is the test to determine the pressure/volume relationship of the urinary bladder?
A. Cystometrogram
B. Urinalysis
C. Intravenous pyelography
D. Biodfeedback
A

A

44
Q 
A condition where there is immediate involuntary loss of urine synchronous with \_\_\_\_ on sneezing and coughing
A. Mixed urinary incontinence
B. Urge urinary incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Stress urinary incontinence
A

D

45
Q 
Hormonal changes in perimenopausal women
A. Decreased inhibin
B. Decreased FSH
C. Decreased LH
D. Decreased estradiol
A

A

46
Q

Correct statement regarding principles of HRT use
A. HRT effective in perimenopause to regulate menstrual cycle
B. HRT is still the most effective therapy for vasomotor and estrogen-deficiency related urogenital symptoms
C. Risk and benefits are the same for women around time of menopause and those who are older
D. AOTA

A

B

47
Q

Indication of HRT use as recommended by FDA
A. Prevention of osteoporosis
B. Treatment of mild vasomotor symptoms
C. Treatment of mild LVD
D. Prevention of moderate vaginal dryness

A

A

48
Q 
Absolute contraindication/s to the use of HRT include/s 
A. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
B. Recent myocardial infarction
C. Suspected breast CA
D. AOTA
A

D

49
Q

68/F underwent DEXA screening test showing T-scores of -1.8 at the spine and -2.9 at the hip. The following statements are correct:
A. Since patient is hypoestrogenic, bone remodeling decreases, leading to increased bone resportion
B. Patient has severe osteoporosis
C. Reduction in trabecular bone is greater than in cortical bone at first 20 years of menopause
D. AOTA

A

D

50
Q 
The use of estrogen replacement therapy
A. Protects against endometrial cancer
B. Protects against cervical cancer
C. Protects against colorectal cancer
D. Protects against ovarian cancer
A

C

51
Q

Which is correct?
A. Perimenopause is marked by irregularity of the menstrual cycles
B. The administration of large amounts of estrogen will lower the FSH levels to premenopausal concentrations
C. A BMI of >30 is a risk factor for osteoporosis
D. AOTA

A

A

52
Q

True of use of risedronate for the management of osteoporosis
A. Prevents vertebral fracture
B. Prevents hip fracture
C. Prevents vertebral and hip fracture

A

C

53
Q 
Choose the best route of administration for 60/F with fatty liver, and elevated liver enzymes
A. Oral (tablet)
B. Non-oral (patch)
C. Vagifem (vaginal tablet)
D. Any of the above
A

B

54
Q 
True of the effects of estrogen deficiency from perimenopause to advanced age
A. Early – insomnia
B. Intermediate – psychological symptoms
C. Late – dyspareunia
D. AOTA
A

A

55
Q 
The pathognomonic symptom of menopause
A. Hot flush
B. Menstrual irregularity
C. Low back pain
D. Mood swings
A

A

56
Q

Age of menopause may be determined by
A. Age of menarche of the patient
B. Age of menarche of the patient’s mother
C. Age of menopause of the patient’s mother
D. AOTA

A

C

57
Q

Which statement is correct?
A. HDL cholesterol is the strongest predictor of heart disease in women
B. The lifetime risk of death in postmenopausal women with coronary artery disease is higher compared to the lifetime risk of death in a postmenopausal woman with breast cancer
C. The most prevalent finding in the lipid profile of postmenopausal women is an accelerated rise in total cholesterol
D. AOTA

A

D

58
Q 
Usual imaging modality used to supplement UTZ by providing additional characterization of ascites
A. CT scan
B. KUB-IVP
C. MRI
D. X-ray
A

A

59
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ combined with ultrasound CT scan and MRI is used to diagnose congenital malformations of the female genital tract and mechanical causes of infertility
A. Ductogram
B. Hysterosalpingogram
C. Mammogram
D. Stenogram
A

B

60
Q 
Imaging modality used for 1st trimester obstetric examinations?
A. CT scan
B. MRI
C. Transabdominal UTZ
D. Transvaginal UTZ
A

D

61
Q 
60/M experiences urinary flow problems and pelvic pain. What test should be ordered?
A. CT scan
B. Endoluminal ultrasound
C. MRI
D. Transabdominal ultrasound
A

D

62
Q 
16/F still has not experienced menarche and is experiencing pelvic pain, which imaging modality will be requested?
A. Hysterosalpingogram
B. Transabdominal UTZ
C. Transrectal UTZ
D. Transvaginal UTZ
A

B

63
Q 
A pregnant woman 28 weeks AoG complains of abdominal pain. Best modality to use?
A. Xray
B. KUB IVD
C. Ultrasound
D. MRI
A

C

64
Q 
45/F complains of recurrent bouts of UTI. UTZ shows pelvocaliectasia, what is the cost effective imaging modality that should be requested?
A. CT scan
B. KUB-IVP
C. Plain xray
D. Stenogram
A

B

65
Q 
55/M complains of urinary problem. UTZ shows complex right kidney mass. Modality to assess the lesion before surgery?
A. CT scan
B. KUB-IVP
C. MRI
D. Repeat UTZ
A

A

66
Q 
Recommended screening test for 53 year old women for annual check up EXCEPT
A. Xray
B. CT scan
C. MRI
D. Mammogram
A

C

67
Q 
Additional test for 53/F with small, circumscribed mass
A. Xray
B. CT scan
C. Additional mammographic test
D. MRI
A

C

68
Q 
35/F exhibited clear nipple discharge. What is the best imaging modality to assess her?
A. Breast MRI
B. Ductogram
C. Additional mammographic studies
D. Breast UTZ
A

B

69
Q 
45/F in her younger years had silicon breast injections. What is the cost effective imaging modality that could be ordered?
A. Breast MRI
B. Ductogram
C. Additional mammographic studies
D. Breast UTZ
A

C

70
Q 
What is the screening imaging modality used for infants and children suspected of having a pelvic mass on PE?
A. CT scan
B. MRI
C. Ultrasound
D. X-ray
A

C

71
Q

What is a feature of primary apnea?
A. Spontaneous breathing occurs after stimulation
B. Primary apnea is due to idiopathic cause
C. Aminophylline is the drug of choice in primary apnea
D. Hypotension is an early manifestation of primary apnea

A

A

72
Q

The following are part of the criteria to diagnose perinatal asphyxia EXCEPT
A. Metabolic acidosis with pH

A

D

73
Q

Transition from fetal to neonatal circulation includes the following EXCEPT
A. Closure of patent ductus arteriosus
B. 10x increase in pulmonary blood flow
C. Right to left shunt along foramen ovale
D. Removal of low resistance shunt

A

B

74
Q 
During asphyxia, the body is converted into a 3-organ organism. The organs preserved are the following EXCEPT
A. Heart
B. Kidneys
C. Brain
D. Adrenal gland
A

B

75
Q 
Which of the following features of hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy is associated with good prognosis?
A. Hypotonia
B. Incomplete Moro
C. Dilated pupils
D. Absent myoclonus
A

C

76
Q 
The following are mechanisms of action of therapeutic hypothermia EXCEPT
A. Decrease intracellular acidosis
B. Increase nitric oxide production
C. Prevents protein kinase inhibition
D. Inhibits apoptosis
A

A

77
Q 
With re-establishment of blood flow are hypoxia, injury occurs due to
A. Generation of oxygen radicals
B. Increase in intracellular calcium
C. Activation of lytic enzymes
D. Inhibition of apoptosis
A

A

78
Q 
What is the most important and effective action in a newborn requiring resuscitation
A. Give epinephrine
B. Do chest compression
C. Ventilate the lungs
D. Provide oxygen
A

C

79
Q 
What are the ABCs of resuscitation
A. APGAR, bicarbonate, and chest compression
B. Apnea, blood volume, and care
C. Airway, breathing, circulation
D. Assess, blame, and criticize
A

C

80
Q 
Evaluation and decision making during resuscitation are primarily based on which combination of signs?
A. BP, HR, color
B. Color, HR, RR
C. RR, BP, HR
D. Color, BP, RR
A

B

81
Q 
What needs to be attached to self-inflating bag to deliver 90-100% oxygen?
A. Pressure valve
B. Pop-off valve
C. BOF feeding tube
D. Reservoir bag
A

A

82
Q 
Which routes are used for administration of epinephrine for neonatal resuscitation?
A. IV and subcutaneous
B. Subcutaneous and endotracheal
C. Endotracheal and IV
D. Subcutaneous and IM
A

C

83
Q

When is epinephrine indicated?

A. Persistent HR

A

D

84
Q

You are resuscitating a newborn baby. Despite adequate ventilation, cardiac compressions, and administration of epinephrine, the baby is not improving. What are indications of volume expansion?
A. The baby has strong pulses, although HR is

A

D

85
Q 
Newborn baby with birth weight of 3.6 kg, responding poorly to resuscitative efforts. Maternal history of extensive vaginal bleeding. Baby is pale. How much volume expander should you give?
A. 0.36 ml
B. 3.6 ml
C. 36 ml
D. 360 ml
A

C

86
Q

A newborn is being ventilated with a bag and mask, which are signs of effective ventilation?
A. Improvement in color and tone, spontaneous breathing, increased heart rate
B. Rapid decline in HR, chest movement, audible breath sounds
C. Spontaneous breathing, decreased oral secretions, decreased breath sounds
D. Chest movement, audible sounds over the stomach, improved color

A

A

87
Q 
Which medication should be used during first minute of resuscitation?
A. Calcium
B. Atropine
C. Epinephrine
D. Sodium bicarbonate
A

C

88
Q

What are the appropriate doses of IV and endotracheal epinephrine using ____ concentration?
A. 0.3 to 1 ml/kg IV and 0.1 to 0.3 ml/kg endotracheal
B. 0.1 to 0.3 ml/kg IV and 0.5 to 1 ml/kg endotracheal
C. 1 to 3 ml/kg IV and 0.3 to 1 ml/kg endotracheal
D. 1 to 3 ml/kg IV and 0.5 to 1 ml/kg endotracheal

A

B

89
Q

Acceptable solutions for volume expansion include which of the following?
A. 0.9, NSS, Ringer’s lactate, albumin
B. 0.9, NSS, Ringer’s lactate, pRBC
C. 0.9, NSS, Ringer’s lactate, fresh frozen plasma
D. 0.9, NSS, Ringer’s lactate, NaHCO3

A

B

90
Q 
During which time period should a newborn ideally be intubated?
A. 20 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 40 sec
D. 60 sec
A

B

91
Q 
In resuscitating a newborn, 1700 g, 32 weeks AoG. What size laryngoscope do you use?
A. Number 0
B. Number 0.5
C. Number 1
D. Number 2
A

A

92
Q 
In resuscitating a newborn, 1200 g, 30 weeks. What size endotracheal tube do you use?
A. 2.3 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 3.5 mm
D. 4 mm
A

B

LUIV Cheers (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions