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LUIV Cheers > Micro Para Psych > Flashcards

Micro Para Psych Flashcards

1
Q 
The biopsychosocial model:
A) States of health and illness are attributed to a physiological cause that can be identified
B. Applies the systems approach
C. Is the traditional model
D. AOTA
E. A and B
A

B

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2
Q

The biopsychosocial model:
A. “Every unit is a whole and a part at the same time”
B. In illness, refers to focusing on lab results rather than the whole illness experience
C. In personality, refers to genetic loading for disorders
D. AOTA
E. A and B

A

A

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3
Q

The BPS Model in Health and Disease
A. The state of illness is in a dynamic state
B. Illness is caused by interaction of several factors
C. A person is best understood as composed of distinct entities: body and mind
D. AOTA
E. A and B

A

E

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4
Q

The BPS Model in Mental Health and Illness:
A. Human personality is formed by genetic loading
B. Human personality is determined by inborn temperaments as well as his breeding and environment
C. Psychopathology is all in the mind
D. AOTA
E. A and B

A

No answer

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5
Q

Clinical implications of BPS model in Mental Health and Illness
A. All clinical interventions must be patient-directed
B. To bring about change in a person’s behavior, one must give medications
C. Some interventions can benefit the patient but do not necessarily require direct intervention with the patient
D. AOTA
E. A and B

A

No answer

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6
Q

Among the biological, psychological, and social factors that cause mental illness
A. Psychosocial factors are supreme
B. The person’s psychosocial needs should be addressed first
C. Structural and functional brain defects are not the priority
D. AOTA
E. A and B

A

No answer

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7
Q

The theoretical premises of BPS have evolved into the following clinical hypotheses
A. A patient may be predisposed to developing certain mental illnesses by a combination of biological, psychological, and social factors
B. Multimodal interventions are preferred to a single treatment modality
C. A patient’s problems are caused by biological etiologies
D. AOTA
E. A and B

A

No answer

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8
Q

The BPS model is illustrated in depression
A. The risk factors are a combination of biopsychosocial factors
B. Management is purely psychotherapy
C. Cause is purely biological
D. AOTA
E. A and B

A

No answer

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9
Q

The BPS model of depression
A. Educating the family about the cause of depression is nice but not necessary
B. Management is a combination of pharmacotherapy and psychological intervention
C. Social factors like economic status are not crucial in causation
D. AOTA
E. A and B

A

No answer

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10
Q 
The BPS model
A. Applies to CVD
B. Applies to depression
C. Applies to DM
D. AOTA
E. A and B
A

D

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11
Q

A woman with sexual urges insists that all men are preoccupied with sex

A. Acting Out
B. Displacement
C. Fantasy
D. Introjection
E. Isolation of affect
F. Projection
G. Rationalization
H. Reaction formation
I. Regression
J. Repression
K. Sublimation
A

F. Projection

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12
Q

A preacher who becomes crusader against “loose morals” may be struggling with their own sexual impulses

A

H. Reaction formation

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13
Q

A 32 year old man experiencing serious financial crisis goes home to be cared for by his parents

A

I. Regression

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14
Q

Daydreaming about winning Php 100M in the next lotto draw

A

C. Fantasy

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15
Q

Anger and resentment of the advantage of others can be funneled into an obsession to excel in a lucrative career

A

K. Sublimation

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16
Q

A rape victim cannot recall events of traumatic event when called to provide testimony

A

J. Repression

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17
Q

People talking vividly about war without feeling bad about lots of people dying

A

E. Isolation of affect

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18
Q

A college student claimed that he didn’t want to join his family on a trip to Bali in the first place after he missed the opportunity to go with them

A

G. Rationalization

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19
Q

Wife performs sexual indiscretions to express anger at her husband

A

A. Acting out

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20
Q

A teenager who is unable to express her resentment towards her parents and thus blames herself

A

B. Displacement

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21
Q 
Helminths with intermediate host
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Necator americanus
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Trichuris trichuria
A

C

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22
Q 
25 year old man dude consults for foot rash after going to mega nice beach. You diagnose it as cutaneous larva migrans from dog hookworm. Man dude is what kind of host
A. Accidental
B. Definitive
C. Paretenic
D. Reservoir
A

A

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23
Q 
No pulmonary migration in this helminth’s life cycle
A. Ascaris
B. Ancylostoma
C. Trichuris
D. Strongyloides
A

C

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24
Q

Characteristic of soil-transmitted helminthes
A. Pneumonitis during worm migration through the lungs is seen in whipworm infections
B. Without repeated exposure to filariform larve, the number of adult Strongyloides worms in a human host cannot increase
C. The infective stage of the hookworm is the filariform larvae
D. Strongyloides filariform larve are free-living in the soil

A

C

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25
Q 
Binds to helminth beta-tubulin, preventing uptake of glucose
A. Albendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Praziquantel
A

A

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26
Q

10 year old child is infested with the following organism. (HOOKWORM) What do you expect to find?

A. Cholangitis
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Rectal prolapse
D. Seizures

A

B

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27
Q 
Characteristic of an adult female Trichuris
A. Blunted posterior end
B. Paired posterior spicules
C. Copulatory bursa
D. Thick anterior end
A

A

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28
Q

Stool concentration techniques are better than the direct fecal smear for diagnosing soil-transmitted helminth infections because these
A. keep the eggs viable
B. are more sensitive
C. preserve the morphology of the eggs
D. require less steps to perform in the lab

A

No answer

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29
Q 
In the freshly voided stool of a person with Strongyloides infection, you will find
A. Unfertilized egg
B. Fertilized egg
C. Embryonated egg
D. Rhabditiform larvae
A

D

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30
Q

People infected with species of this egg usually present with:

A. Anemia
B. No symptoms
C. Malnutrition
D. Dysentery

A

A

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31
Q 
Describes a Trichuris egg
A. Thin shelled
B. Unembryonated when passed in stool
C. Has a thickened abopercular end
D. Has mammilations
A

C

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32
Q

Describes hookworms or hookworm infection
A. Rhabditiform larvae comprises the infectious phase
B. A stage of development in the lungs is needed
C. Necator has cutting plates
D. Malnutrition and anemia are rare consequences of hookworm infections in children

A

No answer

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33
Q 
Using stool concentration techniques is helpful in detecting ova of the following helminthes except:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichiuria
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Hookworms
A

C

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34
Q 
Medications for soil-transmitted helminthes is given every \_\_ month/s in the Philippine Integrated Helminth Control Program
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
A

C

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35
Q

A person with Strongyloides hyperinfection will have
A. A competent, hyperactive immune system
B. Filariform larvae penetrating the perianal skin
C. embryonated eggs in the stool
D. severe symptoms limited to the GIT

A

No answer

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36
Q 
The human flea 
A. Pulex irritans
B. Ctenocephalides felis
C. Ctenocephalides canis
D. Xenopsylla cheopis
A

D

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37
Q 
The following diseases are transmitted by Pediculus humanus humanus except
A. Trench fever
B. Relapsing fever
C. Murine typhus
D. Epidemic typhus
A

No answer

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38
Q 
Components of bee venom except
A. Mellitin
B. Sulfahydryl
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Histamine
A

B

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39
Q 
The intermediate host of Hymenolepis diminuta
A. Ctenocephalides canis
B. Ctenocephalides felis
C. Pulex irritans
D. Xenopsylla cheopis
A

D

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40
Q 
Biologic vector of Bartonella quintana
A. Crab louse
B. Body louse
C. Head louse
D. AOTA
A

No answer

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41
Q 
Refers to body infestation by flies
A. Dermatophytosis
B. Canthariasis
C. Myiasis
D. Ascariasis
A

C

42
Q 
Used to sexually differentiate mosquitoes
A. Sucker
B. Antenna
C. Compound eyes
D. Legs
A

No answer

43
Q 
The following are ectoparasites except
A. Anopheles
B. Cimex
C. Head louse nymph
D. Itch mite adult
A

D

44
Q 
All are biological vectors except
A. Female mosquito
B. Adult body louse
C. Rat flea larva
D. Kissing bug nymph
A

No answer

45
Q 
The lesions created by this insect are arranged in a linear pattern
A. Pulex
B. Culex
C. Cimex
D. Pediculus
A

C

46
Q 
The following features of the louse are adaptations for parasitism except
A. Small, wingless body
B. Piercing, sucking mouthpart
C. Short antennae
D. Slender legs with claws
A

C

47
Q 
The rat flea
A. Ctenocephalides canis
B. Ctenocephalides felis
C. Pulex irritans
D. Xenopsylla cheopis
A

D

48
Q 
One of the biologic vectors of Japanese encephalitis in Indonesia is:
A. Aedes albopictus
B. Anopheles poecilus
C. Culex quinquefasciatus
D. Aedes vexans
A

No answer

49
Q 
Bancroftian filirasis in the Philippines is transmitted by the following mosquitoes except
A. Mansonia
B. Aedes 
C. Anopheles
D. NOTA
A

No answer

50
Q 
Which of the following is not a night biter?
A. A. flavirostris
B. P. capitis
C. C. lectularius
D. T. infestans
A

No answer

51
Q 
First bacterium shown to cause human disease
A. Mycobacterium
B. Staphylococcus
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Rabies
A

No answer

52
Q

Which of the following applies to microorganisms?
A. Microorganisms participate in the carbon cycle and the nitrogen cycle
B. Microorganisms are closely related
C. All microorganisms are unicellular organisms
D. Microorganisms may arise from non-living things

A

No answer

53
Q

Which of the following statements about microbes is correct?
A. All microbes have a genetic material
B. All microbes are distributed throughout the three domains of life
C. Most microbes are harmless, while others cause disease
D. Microbes are parasites, except for eukaryotic mircobes

A

No answer

54
Q 
Noncellular entity
A. Algae
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Virus
A

D

55
Q 
What property of Archaea differentiates it from bacteria?
A. Lack of peptidoglycans
B. Live in soil
C. Have membrane-bound organelles
D. Lack a nucleus
A

No answer

56
Q 
A polymer of glycan and peptide in bacterial cell walls
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Diglucosamine
C. Glucosemanan
D. D-alanine
A

No answer

57
Q

Author of Micrographia

A. Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Hooke
C. Anton van Leuwenhoek (sp?)
D. Joseph Lister
E. Robert Koch
A

B

58
Q

Formulated the germ theory of disease

A. Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Hooke
C. Anton van Leuwenhoek (sp?)
D. Joseph Lister
E. Robert Koch
A

A

59
Q

Animal-cules

A. Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Hooke
C. Anton van Leuwenhoek (sp?)
D. Joseph Lister
E. Robert Koch
A

C

60
Q

Used carbolic acid for sterile surgery

A. Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Hooke
C. Anton van Leuwenhoek (sp?)
D. Joseph Lister
E. Robert Koch
A

D

61
Q 
You build a time machine to see what the earth looks like before life started. What would you take with you on your trip?
A. Carbon
B. Nutrients
C. Oxygen
D. Chloroplast
A

C

62
Q

What differentiates an organism as a prokaryote?
A. The cell components are found within the cytoplasm
B. They have a plasma membrane to protect themselves from their immediate surrounding environment
C. Have DNA and ribosomes in the cell
D. They do not have a membrane-bound nucleus or membrane-bound organelles

A

NA

63
Q 
Which of the following attributes most accurately describes plasma membranes?
A. Provides semipermeable membrane
B. Made exclusively from lipids
C. Are the same in all cells
D. Inhibit integral protein attachment
A

NA

64
Q

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes facilitated transport from simple diffusion. Facilitated transport ___________
A. requires the input of cellular energy to transport biomolecules
B. explains the movement of molecules or ions from high to low concentrations
C. uses membrane proteins and channels to transport molecules or ions from high to low concentration
D. describes the movement of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, and fatty acids

A

C

65
Q 
Characteristic of gram positive bacteria
A. Hydrophobic cell wall
B. Presence of outer membrane envelope
C. Thick peptidoglycan layer
D. Thin peptidoglycan layer
A

C

66
Q

An integral component of the gram negative cell wall is the periplasm. If there was a defect in this periplasm, which of the following functions would most likely be disrupted?
A. The ability of siderophores to participate in iron uptake
B. The synthesis of lipoproteins thus decreasing the amount of peptidoglycan present
C. The production of lipopolysaccharide thus making the bacteria non-pathogenic
D. The ability to bind to vitamins, iron, and enzymes needed for bacterial nutrition

A

NA

67
Q

The gram stain procedure is used to identify the morphology and arrangement of bacteria. Which is correct?
A. Gram positive bacteria in an old culture may absorb the counterstain
B. If alcohol is skipped, gram negative bacteria will appear pink
C. Carbolfuchsin is most commonly used in gram staining
D. Crystal violet is a stable mordant that binds to the peptidoglycan in the cell wall

A

A

68
Q

The direct sharing of plasmid from one bacterium to another

A. Transduction
B. Transfection
C. Conjugation
D. Transformation

A

C

69
Q

The process of acquiring genes from plasmids or naked DNA picked up from the environment

A. Transduction
B. Transfection
C. Conjugation
D. Transformation

A

D

70
Q

It is the process by which a bacteriophage relocates bacterial genetic material from one bacterium to another

A. Transduction
B. Transfection
C. Conjugation
D. Transformation

A

A

71
Q 
Many bacteria are able to survive with or without oxygen. What type of bacteria tolerate these conditions and are able to grow well in the presence of oxygen?
A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Microaerophile
D. Aerotolerant anaerobe
A

NA

72
Q

The normal reproductive growth of bacteria is through binary fission. Which of the following is correct?
A. Binary fission is the sexual reproduction cycle of many bacteria
B. During binary fission, the bacterium undergoes mitosis
C. Binary fission does not provide an opportunity for genetic recombination
D. In binary fission, the cell elongates while the linear DNA replicates

A

NA

73
Q 
Most bacterial capsules are made of polysaccharides. A bacterium containing polypeptide capsule
A. B. subtilis
B. B. anthracis
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Vibrio cholera
A

B

74
Q 
Preformed toxins are actively released by bacteria. What is the general type of toxins described?
A. Exotoxin
B. Endotoxin
C. Proteases
D. Emetic toxin
A

B

75
Q 
What is the negatively charged structure responsible for binding and regulating movement of cations into and out of the gram positive cell wall?
A. Lipoteichoic acid
B. Periplasm
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Porins
A

C

76
Q

True of fungi
A. A septate mycelium is one in which no fruiting bodies are formed
B. Arthrospores and blastospores are formed by fungi in the telomorph stage
C. Chitin is a component of the fungal cell wall
D. Yeast produce mainly by conidia

A

C

77
Q

Which of the following are true of fungi?
A. Septate fungi are seen in ascomycota, basidiomycota, and zygomycota
B. Mushrooms are found in ascomycota
C. Most fungi are saprophytes, feeding on dead or decaying organic matter
D. Fungi are prokaryotes consisting of intertwined filaments of cells

A

C

78
Q

True of fungi
A. Fungi are autotrophs
B. Dimorphic fungi can switch forms when induced by different water concentrations
C. Fungi are obligate anaerobes
D. Fungi can be grown in high carbohydrate media
E. Fungi grow best at 25C, close to room temperature

A

E

79
Q 
True of dermatophytosis
A. Resistant to antibiotics
B. Involves the hair, skin, and nails
C. Spreads to other organs
D. Accompanies predisposing conditions
A

NA

80
Q 
Tinea diseases are dermatophytoses caused by a group of fungi. Which of the following is not a dermatophyte?
A. Trichophyton
B. Microsporum
C. Epidermophyton
D. Emmonsiella
A

NA

81
Q 
Ringworm infection of the scalp, eyebrows, and eyelashes
A. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea cruris
C. Tinea pedis
D. Tinea versicolor
E. White piedra
A

A

82
Q 
Common fungal smear used because of ability to dissolve keratin
A. 10% KOH
B. Lactophenol blue
C. PAS
D. India ink
A

A

83
Q 
Which of the following is a mass of intertwined hypal elements?
A. Mycelium
B. Rhizoids
C. Conidia
D. Arthrospora
A

A

84
Q 
What is the culture media used in the primary isolation of dermatophytes?
A. SDA
B. Nutrient agar
C. BHI agar
D. MacConkey agar
A

NA

85
Q 
Environmental form of dimorphic fungi
A. Yeast
B. Mold
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

86
Q 
Major immune response developed by a healthy person infected with intracellular bacterial or fungal infection
A. Humoral response
B. Cell-mediated immune response
C. Classical complement cascade
D. Alternative complement cascade
A

NA

87
Q 
First to appear during infection
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgG
E. IgE
A

B

88
Q 
Regarded as antigen processing and presenting cells?
A. Macrophages (activated monocytes)
B. B cells
C. Dendritic cells
D. A and C
A

NA

89
Q

The primary immune response is the type of immune response elicited by the body at the first encounter with the antigen, infectious agent, or foreign body. Which of the following is/are true?
A. IgG is the major antibody that is produced
B. It is a function of the memory cells of both the B and T cells
C. Presence of a lag phase after the encounter of the antigen with the immunocompetent cells
D. B and C
E. NOTA

A

NA

90
Q

Innate and adaptive immunity are regarded as two separate mechanisms involving different effector cells and molecules, until recently, with the results of different studies that changed the separation of these two types of immunity. In this regard which of the following is true?
A. NK cells which are components of innate, inborn, non-specific immunity can exhibit memory
B. gamma-sigma T cells are not restricted by MHC molecules in their recognition of specific antigens and their consequent activation
C. NK cells and gamma-sigma T cells are now regarded as components of both innate non-specific immunity and adaptive specific immunity
D. AOTA
E. A and B only

A

NA

91
Q

T lymphocytes are immunocompetent cells that have subpopulations, the activation of which is restricted by the MHC molecules. Which of the following is/are true?
A. Th cells are CD8+ which recognize only processed antigen in association with MHC class II molecules
B. CD4+ T cells are able to recognize processed antigens in association with MHC class I molecules
C. Subtypes of Th cells include the Th1 and Th2 characterized by the paradigm that when Th 1 is activated, Th 2 is inhibited and vice versa
D. AOTA
E. A and B only

A

NA

92
Q

B lymphocytes, like T cells, are the major immunocompeteny cells involved in the adaptive specific immunity. Which is/are true of B cells?
A. Plasma cells are transformed B cells after activation with an antigen and produce the immunoglobulins which are major components of the humoral immune response
B. IgE is secreted in humoral immune response, which is mainly involved in anaphylaxis
C. B cells are able to internalize, process, and present antigens; activation of which can be influenced by Th cells
D. A and C
E. AOTA

A

NA

93
Q 
Overreaction or overstimulation of the immune system in mounting an immune response involves hypersensitivity reaction. Which is true of type I immune response?
A. Involves IgE
B. Involves degranulation of mast cells
C. Asthma is an example
D. AOTA
E. A and B only
A

NA

94
Q

For viruses in general, CMIR is the major immunity activated to eliminate the pathogen. Which of the following is/are the evasive mechanism/s used by viruses (ex. Ebola) to evade the immune system?
A. Masking of surface antigen
B. Sialic acid content recognized by immunocompetent cells as “self” cells have sialic component
C. Release of protease and other enzymes
D. Phase variation of antigen

A

D

95
Q 
Which of the following combinations is responsible for mucosal immunity?
A. alpha-beta T cell and IgA
B. IgG and alpha-beta T cell
C. IgA and IgG
D. gamma-delta T cell and IgE
E. gamma-delta T cell and IgA
A

E

96
Q 
A host cell component utilized by all viruses
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes
C. RNA polymerase
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
A

B

97
Q 
The structure that dictates the type of the cell, organ, or host to be infected by a virus
A. Viral attachment proteins
B. Peplomers
C. Host cell receptor
D. Capsomeres
A

C

98
Q 
Viruses are prone to mutation if they have this structure
A. Envelope
B. Peplomer
C. Reverse transcriptase
D. RNA genome
A

D

99
Q 
Infectious even if uncoated
A. dsDNA
B. ds RNA
C. ss (+) RNA
D. ss (-) RNA
A

C

100
Q 
All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except 
A. Papovaviridae
B. Parvoviridae
C. Poxviridae
D. Picornaviridae
A

C

LUIV Cheers (7 decks)

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