Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Glands have ________ and _______ layers

A

Stomal and epithelial

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2
Q

Define hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size

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3
Q

Define anaplastic

A

Poorly differentiated malignancy → does not resemble original cell type

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4
Q

Define hyperplasia

A

Increase in cell number

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5
Q

Cardiac hypertrophy can be seen physiologically in pregnancy due to……

A

Increase in blood volume

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6
Q

Define dysplasia

A

Pre-malignant change in which cellular DNA has begun to accumulate but has not developed the ability to invade

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7
Q

Define Metaplasia

A

A reversible change from one mature cell type to another mature cell type in response to a stimulus

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8
Q

Outline metaplasia in Barret’s oesophagus

A

Squamous epithelium to intestinal type columnar epithelium (mucin rich goblet cells) indicating intestinal metaplasia

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9
Q

Outline metaplasia that can occur in lungs of smokers, etc

A

Columnar epithelial cells to squamous epithelial cells

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10
Q

Greatest source of oestrogen comes from…

A

Adipose tissue

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11
Q

Lynch syndrome is also known as…

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma

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12
Q

Lynch syndrome is a….

A

Autosomal dominant mutation in DNA mismatch repair genes (micro satellite instability)

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13
Q

Lynch syndrome increases risk of which cancers?

A

Colorectal, Endometrial, Transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) (bladder and ureteric cancers)

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14
Q

________ is used to look for expression in tumour, MSI and mutation in Lynch syndrome

A

Immunohistochemistry

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15
Q

Which encoded proteins are related to Lynch syndrome?

A

MLH1, MLH3, MSH2, PMS1 and PMS2

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16
Q

Define Neoplasms

A

A new and abnormal growth of tissue in a part of the body

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17
Q

T or F: Leiomyomas are neoplastic

A

True

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18
Q

Leiomyomas arise from ___________ cells

A

Smooth muscle

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19
Q

As a connective tissue tumour, Leiomyosarcomas consist of _________

A

spindle cells

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20
Q

Leiomyomas tend to arise between ________ and ________ as they are ________ dependent

A

Menarche
Menopause
Oestrogen

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21
Q

T or F: Leiomyosarcoma (malignant) are really common

A

False

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22
Q

CGIN is a……

A

High grade glandular abnormality

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23
Q

CIN is…..

A

Squamous abnormality

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24
Q

Features of PAP smear consistent with HPV infection

A

Irregular nuclei with binucleate forms and a strange perinuclear halo

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25
Q

How to differentiate between CIN 1, 2 and 3

A

CIN 1 → genuine dysplasia and atypia in cells up to lower 1/3rd

CIN 2 → genuine dysplasia and atypia in cells up to 2/3rd

CIN 3 → genuine dysplasia and atypia in cells present throughout the full thickness

26
Q

Give examples of epithelial surface tumours

A

Serous tumour
Mutinous tumour
Endometrioid tumour
Cystadenocarcinoma

27
Q

Give examples of germ cell tumours

A

Teratoma
Dysgerminoma

28
Q

Give examples of Sex cord stromal cell tumours

A

Fibroma
Granulosa-theca cell tumours
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour

29
Q

Which cancers can metastasise to ovaries

A

Breast
Colon
Lung
Other sites

30
Q

________________ are the cell type most associated with a reaction to foreign non-organic material

A

Histiocytes (macrophages)

31
Q

What does this image show

A

Neutrophil

32
Q

What does this image show

A

Lymphocyte

33
Q

What does this image show

A

Basophil

34
Q

What does this image show

A

Macrophage

35
Q

Twin pregnancy
Molar pregnancy
Choriocarcinoma
Ovarian germ cell tumours
Placental abruption
Placenta praevia

Which of the following will not result in high serum HCG?

A

Placenta praevia

36
Q

For choriocarcinoma, what is seen on US?

A

Mass/lesion with necrosis and vascularity

37
Q

Complete moles most commonly arise from __________________ and less commonly from __________________

A

Fertilisation of an empty ovum by a single sperm that undergoes duplication of its chromosomes

Dispermy in which two sperms fertilise and empty ovum

38
Q

Partial moles arise from….

A

Two sperm fertilising a single ovum

39
Q

T or F: Complete moles can progress to become choriocarcinomas

A

True

40
Q

Most common cancers in kids are…

A

Blood, brain, bone

41
Q

If on pathology report cells contain mucin it is most likely a…

A

Adenocarcinoma as adecarcinoma are glandular and glands contain mucin

42
Q

Define…

Chondrosarcoma
Osteosarcoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Angiosarcoma
Leiomyosarcoma

A

Chondrosarcoma – malignancy of cartilage
Osteosarcoma – malignancy of bone
Rhabdomyosarcoma – malignancy of skeletal muscle
Angiosarcoma – malignancy of blood vessel
Leiomyosarcoma – malignancy of smooth muscle

43
Q

Signet ring sign is a feature that a cell….

A

Contains musin → so likely glandular

44
Q

If a neck mass moves on swallowing it is related to the…

A

Thyroid

45
Q

______________________ are usually lateral in the neck at the angle of the mandible and as a congenital lesion

A

Branchial cleft cysts

46
Q

______________ are mobile and present in midline, they also protrude on tongue protrusion

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

47
Q

___________________ is when fT4 is in normal range while TSH is raised and and in ___________________ fT4 is in normal range while TSH is low

A

Subclinical hypothyroidism
Subclinical hyperthyroidism

48
Q

Oncocytic change is….

A

Cellular enlargement characterized by an abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm

49
Q

T or F: Oncocytic change is normal in thyroiditis

A

True → sometimes referred to as Hurthle cells

50
Q

Classification of thyroid lumps via FNA

A

Thy 1 – inadequate

Thy 2 – Benign

Thy 3 – Atypia or follicular lesion

  • Thy 3A – atypia of unknown significance
  • Thy 3F – could be adenoma or carcinoma

Thy 4 – Atypia suspicious of malignancy

Thy 5 - Malignant (?type)

51
Q

What is a granuloma

A

An organised collection of activated macrophages and lymphocytes

52
Q

Formation of granuloma:

Non-specific inflammatory response triggered by _____________________ or by _______________________ resulting in activation of ____________. Failure of removal of the stimulus results in _______________________. The end results is an ______________________

A

Diverse antigenic agents
Inert foreign materials
T lymphocytes and macrophages
Persistent production of activated cytokines
Organised collection of persistently activated cells

53
Q

Weinberg’s Hallmarks of Cancer

A

Resisting apoptosis
Sustained proliferative signaling
Evading growth suppressors
Activating invasion and metastasis
Inducing angiogenesis

54
Q

Features of benign tumours

A

Macro (round)
Symmetrical, organised
Homogenous (cut surface is uniform)
Encapsulated (lesion is slow growing)
Normal N:C (nucleus: cytoplasm) ratio

55
Q

Features of malignant tumours

A

Look nasty/not natural
Irregular
Infiltrative
Destructive
Heterogenous
Pleomorphism
Hyperchromatia

56
Q

Define Pleomorphism

A

Cells grow in multiple shapes and sizes

57
Q

Define Hyperchromatia

A

Darkly stained nuclei, usually due to increased DNA content

58
Q

Why do malignant tumours cause weight loss?

A

They are very metabolic active, divide frequently thus requiring lots of energy

They also increase metabolism through TNF

59
Q

T or F: A strong immune response to a tumour indicates poor prognosis

A

False → indicates good prognosis

60
Q

T or F: Cancer patients often get unusual reactions to infections

A

True