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digestive system > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of disease of teeth and supporting structure is associated with gingival erythema, edema and bleeding?

A

Chronic gingivitis

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2
Q

……. Inflammation involving the squamous mucosa, or gingiva, and associated soft tissues that surround teeth

A

Gingivitis

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3
Q

………….. an inflammatory process that affects the supporting structures of the teeth→
alveolar bone, and
cementum
→ result in destruction of
alveolar bone → tooth loss

A

Periodontitis

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4
Q

List 3 oral inflammatory lesions?

A

Aphthous ulcers, herpes simplex virus infections, oral candidiasis

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5
Q

Which oral inflammatory lesions affect the superficial mucosa causing hyperemic base covered by a thin exudate and is familial and is more frequent in the first 2 decades of life

A

Aphthous ulcers (canker sores)

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6
Q

Which oral inflammatory lesion causes Most orofacial herpetic infections caused by→ herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1), And has large eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions + Adjacent cells commonly fuse to form large multinucleated polykaryons

A

Herpes simplex virus infection

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7
Q

What is the most common fungal infection of the oral cavity?

A

Oral candidiasis (thrush)

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8
Q

What are the major clinical forms of oral candidiasis ?

A

Pseudomembranous
Erythematous
Hyperplastic

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9
Q

The pseudomembranous form of oral candidiasis is called ?

A

Thrush

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10
Q

List the 5 diseases that are PROLIFERATIVE AND NEOPLASTIC LESIONS OF THE ORAL CAVITY:

A

Fibrous proliferative lesions (FIBROMAS),
pyogenic granuloma,
leukoplakia,
erythroplakia,
squamous cell carcinoma

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11
Q

Which lesion occur submucosal nodular fibrous tissue masses and most often on the buccal mucosa along the bite line

A

Fibrous proliferative lesion (fibroma)

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12
Q

Which lesion typically found on the gingiva of children,
young adults, and
pregnant women (pregnancy tumor)
And has an increased number of richly vascular and typically ulcerated→ a red to purple color structures
And is benign

A

Pyogenic granuloma

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13
Q

Which PREMALIGNANT (PRECANCEROUS)lesion is characterized as a a white patch or plaque that cannot be scraped off and
• cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease.
Is Without a known cause

A

Erythroplakia(higher risk of cancer) and leukoplakia

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14
Q

What is he most common oral cavity cancer especially in the cervical lymph nodes site of metastases?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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15
Q

What are the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Human papilloma virus HPV
Tobacco
Alcohol
Tp53 mutation
Overexpression of p16
(NOT APC mutation)

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16
Q

What are the list of salivary gland diseases?

A

Xerostomia
Sialadenitis
Mucocele neoplasms
Pleomorphic adenoma
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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17
Q

Which salivary gland disease results in dry mouth and decreases in salivary production,is associated with the autoimmune disorder Sjögren syndrome, in which it usually is accompanied by dry eyes

A

Xerostomia

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18
Q

What is the pathogenesis of xerostomia?

A

T lymphocytes attack secretory glands

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19
Q

……… =Inflammation of the salivary glands

A

Sialadenitis

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20
Q

What is the most common form of sialadenitis?

A

Mumps

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21
Q

Which duct obstruction of salivary glands by stones causes bacterial sialadenitis?

A

Sialolithiasis

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22
Q

What the most common inflammatory lesion of the salivary glands

A

Mucocele; results from blockage or rupture of a salivary gland duct →
leakage of saliva into the surrounding connective tissue

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23
Q

……….. are benign tumors that consist of a mixture of ductal (epithelial) and myoepithelial cells→ exhibit both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation.
Most common in parotid gland
Represents 50% of benign salivary gland tumors

A

Pleomorphic adenoma=mixed tumor

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24
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor of the salivary glands ; its morphology is composed of mucus secreting cells as well as mucus-filled vacuoles in the tumor?

A

MUCOepidermoid carcinoma

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25
Q

What are the 4 types of ODONTOGENIC CYSTS AND TUMORS?

A

Dentigerous cyst, odontogenic keratocysts, Periapical cyst , Ameloblastoma, odontoma

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26
Q

…….. originates around the crown of an unerupted tooth, and results in degeneration of the dental follicle, and is lined by a thin, stratified squamous epithelium

A

DenTigerous cyst

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27
Q

Where does the odontogenic keratocyst occur ?

A

Posterior mandible

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28
Q

Why is the differentiation of odontogenic keratocyst important?

A

Bcz it is Locally aggressive and has a high recurrence rate and must be removed completely

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29
Q

……. has an inflammatory etiology occur at the tooth apex as a result of long- standing pulpitis,
Can cause Necrosis of the pulpal tissue

A

Periapical cyst

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30
Q

What is the most common type of odontogenic tumor and mimics the enamel and dentin?

A

Odontoma

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31
Q

What is the name of the condition described as “the presence of intestinal
metaplasia within the esophageal mucosa in”?

A

Barrett esophagus

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32
Q

Which is the feature seen in autoimmune gastritis?

A

Increased acid production in stomach

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33
Q

what is vomiting?

A

forceful emptying of stomach and intestinal contents (chyme) through the mouth

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34
Q

what is nausea?

A

subjective experience associated with various conditions, including abnormal pain and labyrinthine stimulation (i.e., spinning movement).

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35
Q

What is vomiting (Emesis)

A

the forceful emptying of stomach and intestinal contents (chyme) through the mouth

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36
Q

What’s nausea?

A

subjective experience associated with various conditions, including abnormal pain and labyrinthine stimulation (i.e., spinning movement).

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37
Q

What’s retching or dry heaves

A

is the muscular event of vomiting without the expulsion of vomitus (gagging)

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38
Q

What’s dysphagia?

A

Difficulty/ pain during swallowing

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39
Q

If a patient is having difficulty in swallowing, which type of dysphagia is that?

A

Oropharyngeal dysphagia

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40
Q

If a patient is having the food stick to the esophagus after they swallow , which type of dysphagia is that?

A

Esophageal dysphagia

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41
Q

……. Is a rare form of dysphagia related to
loss of inhibitory neurons in the myenteric plexus with smooth muscle atrophy in the middle and lower portions of the esophagus

A

Achalasia (state of spasm)

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42
Q

Primary or idiopathic achalasia is characterized by ……….

A

failure of distal esophageal inhibitory neurons

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43
Q

Secondary achalasia is characterized by…….

A

Degenerative changes in neural innervation, either intrinsic to the esophagus
within the extraesophageal vagus nerve or the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus

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44
Q

……….. Trypanosoma cruzi infection causes destruction of the myenteric plexus, failure of LES relaxation, and esophageal dilatation.
Duodenal, colonic, and ureteric myenteric plexuses also can be affected

A

Chagas disease

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45
Q

What are the causes of Achalasia-like disease that makes Food accumulates above the obstruction
→ distends the esophagus
→causes dysphagia
→ as hydrostatic pressure increases, food is slowly forced past the obstruction into the stomach
• Cough and aspiration can occur; pneumonia

A

diabetic autonomic neuropathy, infiltrative disorders such as malignancy, amyloidosis, or sarcoidosis, and
lesions of dorsal motor nuclei ←polio or
surgical ablation

46
Q

What are the clinical features of achalasia (stenosis)(narrowing of the esophagus due to damage to nerves)

A

Bird’s beak
Dysphagia
Regurgitation
Sense of fullness
Heartburn
Weight loss
Lack of peristalsis; elevated lower esophageal sphincter LES pressure

47
Q

…….. noncanalized cord replaces a segment of esophagus,
most frequently at or near the tracheal bifurcation,
usually is associated with a fistula connecting the upper or lower esophageal pouches to a bronchus or the trachea
→can result in aspiration, suffocation,
pneumonia

A

Atresia

48
Q

……….. scarring due to ingestion of hypochloride and dissociation of connective tissue—> mediastinitis.
Leads to squamous cell carcinoma

A

Esophageal stenosis

49
Q

Atresia and esophageal stenosis is characterized as ………

A

Mechanical obstruction

50
Q

What’s an example of functional obstruction?

A

Diverticulum

51
Q

…….. loss of inhibitory neurons

A

Achalasia

52
Q

Which type of hernia is the most common?

A

Sliding hiatal hernia (type 1)

53
Q

What is sliding hiatal hernia type 1

A

the most common
*the proximal portion of the stomach moves into the thoracic cavity through the esophageal hiatus (=an opening in the diaphragm for the esophagus and vagus nerves)
Is associated with GERD

54
Q

Which type of hiatal herniation is associated with GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease)

A

Type 1 sliding hiatal hernia

55
Q

What is Paraesophageal hiatal hernia (type 2) ?

A

the herniation of the greater curvature of the stomach through a secondary
opening in the diaphragm alongside
the esophagus.(stomach is herniated through an opening other than that of esophageal opening)

56
Q

What is the most frequent site of ectopic gastric mucosa (acid released by gastric mucosa within the esophagus can result in)?

A

upper third of the esophagus

57
Q

Ectopia is the

A

Displacement of an organ

58
Q

………is the condition where Instead of returning directly to the heart, venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract is delivered to the liver via
the portal vein before reaching the inferior vena cava.

A

Esophageal varices

59
Q

Diseases that impede portal blood flow cause ………… →development of Esophageal varices, an important cause of massive and frequently life-threatening bleeding.

A

portal hypertension

60
Q

What are the risk factors of ESOPHAGEAL VARICES

A

Liver cirrhosis
Alcoholism
Increase portal pressure
HBV

61
Q

What are the clinical features of ESOPHAGEAL VARICES

A

Melena (due to rupturing of the vessels)
Hematemesis

62
Q

The most common esophageal lacerations are ………→ often induced by severe retching or vomiting

A

Mallory-Weiss tears

63
Q

What’s the difference between Mallory weiss syndrome and Boerhaave’s syndrome?

A

Mallory: the laceration is one the gastric side of the gastroesophageal junction, and hematemesis

Boerhaave: laceration of the lower thoracic esophagus, Hamman’s sign (crushing sound of heart due to pneumomediastinum , chest pain and shock, and inflammation of chest area

64
Q

What is the difference between GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX DISEASE (GERD)= REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS and nonerosive reflux disease (NERD)?

A

the reflux of acid and pepsin or bile salts from the stomach into the esophagus → causes esophagitis with mucosal injury in GERD, while in NERD there is no mucosal injury

65
Q

What are the complications of reflux esophagitis or GERD OR NERD

A

esophageal ulceration,
hematemesis, melena,
stricture development, and
Barrett esophagus, a precursor lesion to esophageal carcinoma.

66
Q

What is a precursor lesion to esophageal carcinoma?

A

Barrett esophagus

67
Q

……. arises in a background of Barrett esophagus and long-standing GERD

A

Adenocarcinoma

68
Q

The pathogenesis of esophageal adenocarcinoma includes……?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities and TP53 mutation are present in the early stages of esophageal adenocarcinoma

69
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with which infection?

A

Human papilloma virus infection

70
Q

What is the morphology of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Presence of keratin bodies

71
Q

Gastric polyps may be a result of ……?

A

epithelial or stromal cell hyperplasia, inflammation,
ectopia, or
neoplasia

72
Q

What are the types of gastric polyps?

A

Inflammatory and hyperplastic polyps
And
Fundic gland polyps

73
Q

Which gastric polyps can or cannot develop to become cancerous?

A

Fundic gland polyps can never progress to become malignant, while Inflammatory and Hyperplastic Polyps can become precancerous in situ lesion given their size more than 1.5cm

74
Q

Which type of gastric polyp is associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?

A

Fundic gland polyps

75
Q

The incidence of sporadic lesions of …………has increased markedly as a result of the widespread use of proton pump inhibitors→
likely results from increased gastrin secretion, in response to reduced acidity, and
glandular hyperplasia driven by gastrin

A

Fundic Gland Polyps

76
Q

All gastrointestinal adenomas exhibit …….

A

epithelial dysplasia

77
Q

The risk for development of adenocarcinoma in gastric adenomas is related to the size of the lesion and is particularly elevated with lesions greater than …. cm in diameter

A

2

78
Q

Gastric adenocarcinoma’ symptoms resemble those of ……….—> dyspepsia, dysphagia, and nausea

A

Chronic gastritis

79
Q

What is one of the risk factors for gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

Partial gastrectomies for PUD—> leads to atrophy of gastric epithelium —> gastric cancer

80
Q

What are the some factors associated with development of gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

Mutations
H. Pylori
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

81
Q

Which mutations causes gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

CDH1 mutation

the loss of E-cadherin function

TP53 mutation

P16 mutation

APC mutation

82
Q

What is the most common cause chronic gastritis?

A

H.pylori

83
Q

what is the pathogenesis of chronic gastritis?

A

associated with increased production of proinflammatory proteins→

interleukin-1β (IL-1β) and
tumor necrosis factor (TNF).

84
Q

…….. mutations are uncommon in EBV-positive gastric tumors

A

TP53

85
Q

Epstein barr virus is a disease of …….

A

Monocytes

86
Q

Which type of the lauren classification of gastric cancers that causes linitis plastica(leather bottle)?

A

Diffuse gastric cancers

87
Q

Dysplasia and adenoma are precursors of ……

A

Intestinal type gastric cancer

While the diffuse gastric cancers have no precursor lesions

88
Q

Epstein barr virus contins …….

A

Mucin vacuoles

89
Q

endocrine cell hyperplasia,
chronic atrophic gastritis, and
Zollinger Ellison syndrome

Are associated with which type of cancer?

A

Gastric neuroendocrine (carcinoid) tumors

90
Q

High-grade neuroendocrine tumors, termed neuroendocrine carcinoma are most common in …..

A

Jejunum

91
Q

…….. causes kinking of the bowel

A

Neuroendocrine carcinoma

92
Q

What are the molecules secreted from neuroendocrine carcinoma?

A

Chromogranin & synaptophysin +++
• CD56, NSE, Leu7, INSM1

93
Q

….. =duodenal gastrin-producing NET (neuroendocrine tumor)

A

Gastrinomas

94
Q

The most important prognostic factor for gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumors is …….

A

Location

95
Q

What is most common genetic change underlying the pathogenesis of gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GISTs)?

A

gain-of-function mutations of the gene encoding the tyrosine kinase KIT, the receptor for stem cell factor.

(&SDH &PDGFRA)

96
Q

Which is the only malignancy to be treated with antibiotics?

A

Lymphoma (MALToma)

97
Q

Adenomas most frequently occur in ……..?

A

duodenum and jejunum

98
Q

The incidence of malignancy in adenoma is greater in ……

A

Villous,large, and multiple type adenomas

99
Q

Which mutation causes Peutz–Jeghers syndrome

A

LKB1 gene mutation

100
Q

Ppl with Peutz–Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing which type of polyps ?

A

Hemartomatous polyps in small intestine

101
Q

What is the clinical features in a patient with Peutz–Jeghers syndrome?

A

Atypical pigmentation in lips oral mucosa, palms, soles, & digits

102
Q

People with Peutz–Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of what complication ?

A

increased risk of both GI and extra-intestinal malignancy, including adenocarcinoma of the stomach, small bowel, and colon.

103
Q

Adenocarcinoma is mostly present in the ……

A

Duodenum

104
Q

Neuroendocrine tumors are mainly found in ……

A

Ileum

105
Q

Neuroendocrine tumors infiltrate which layer of the intestinal mucosa?

A

mucosa is often intact over the tumor. Infiltration of the SUBMUCOSA is the rule, and extension into the muscularis propria is common

106
Q

Which tumor shows Roset-like structures?

A

Neuroendocrine tumors

107
Q

WNET (neuroendocrine) tumor may be associated with the …………. in tumors that have metastasized to the liver,

A

carcinoid syndrome

108
Q

In which syndrome can we see sclerosis on skin?

A

Carcinoid syndrome

109
Q

Carcinoid syndrome is caused by ……. secretion

A

serotonin

110
Q

Carcinoid syndrome is characterized by ……

A

Hypertension
Watery stools

111
Q

What are the difference between the symptoms of acute appendicitis and Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Meckel diverticulum: afebrile, person turns pale, causes right lower quadrant pain, causes blood loss, lasts for more than a month.

Acute appendicitis: fever, vomiting, abdominal pain that doesn’t last for more than a month, loss of appetite, diarrhea,

digestive system (4 decks)

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