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MB2: Renal > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

describe the endothelial appearance of the glomerular capillary

A

endothelial cells
basal lamina
podocytes and foot processes
mesangial cells on inside

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2
Q

what epithelia lines bowmans capsule

A

parietal epithelia

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3
Q

what antibody is present in goodpastures

A

IgG against alpha 3 subunit of collagen 4

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4
Q

what type of ANCA is GPA associated with

A

cANCA

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5
Q

what type of ANCA is MPA associated with

A

pANCA

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6
Q

classic presentation of nephrotic syndrome

A

hypoalbuminuria
oedema
proteinuria >3g daily
hyperlipidaemia

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7
Q

classic presentation nephritic syndrome

A

hypertension

haematuria

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8
Q

why are those with nephrotic syndrome at increased risk of thrombosis and immunosuppression

A

loss of cotting cascade and complement

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9
Q

what three methods can be used to classify GN

A

light microscopy
electron microscopy
immunofluorescence

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10
Q

what does crescentic GN indicate

A

rapidly progressive GN

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11
Q

what does the presence of granulomas relative to GN

A

GPA

sarcoid

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12
Q

a linear pattern IgG on immunofluorescence is indicative of?

A

goodpastures syndrome

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13
Q

minimal change GN - cause, who is it more common in, nephritic or nephrotic, treatment and prognosis

A 
idiopathic 
children 
nephrotic 
steroids 
good prognosis
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14
Q

pathological appearance of minimal change GN

A

not much to see

podocyte foot process effacement

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15
Q

cause of FSGN

A

obesity
sickle cell
HIV
PWID

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16
Q

who is FSGN more common in, pathology and nephrotic/nephritic

A

adults
nephritic
glomerular involvement in parts and scarring

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17
Q

causes of membranous GN

A

hepatitis, SLE, malaria, syphilis
gold, penicillamine, NSAIDs, captopril
cancer

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18
Q

what cancers can lead to membranous GN

A

lung
colon
melanoma

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19
Q

membraneous GN - nephrotic/nephritic, pathology appearance, prognosis

A

nephrotic
thick membranes with sub-epithelial immune deposits
variable

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20
Q

causes of IgA nephropathy
nephritic or nephrotic?
prognosis and pathological appearance?

A 
nephritic 
genetic or acquired 
post infeciton 
IgA in mesangium
prognosis depends
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21
Q

cause of type 1 membranoproliferative GN

A

idiopthic

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22
Q

cause of type 2 membranoproliferative GN

A

infection
malignancy
SLE

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23
Q

who does membranoproliferative GN affect, nephrotic/nephritic, pathological appearance?

A

children and adults
nephrotic and nephritic
hypercellular glomeruli with tram track membranes

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24
Q

how does diabetic GN appear pathologically

A

diffuse and nodular glomerulosclerosis

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25
Q

what are diabetic GN nodules referred to as?

A

kimmel steil wilson lesions

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26
Q

how common are acquired renal cysts

A

very

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27
Q

describe the local complications of ADPKD

A

haemorrhage, infarct, rupture

can lead to pain or haematuria

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28
Q

what are the systemic complications associated with ADPKD

A

liver cysts

cerebral aneurism

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29
Q

true/false - ARPKD is a childhood disease

A

true

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30
Q

pathological appearance of an oncocytoma. is it benign or malignant?

A

small, oval, well circumscribed
central scar
it is benign

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31
Q

appearance of a chromophobe tunour

A

similar to oncocytoma, but have raisin lie nuclei with halo

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32
Q

risk factors for clear cell cancer

A

obesity

genes

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33
Q

what do clear cell cancers sometimes extend down

A

the renal vein, to the IVC

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34
Q

what do most sporadic CCC have muitations in

A

von hippel lindau, Hypoxia inducable factor

35
Q

histological appearance of papillary cell cancer

A

finger like projections

36
Q

prognosis of collecting duct carcinoma

A

very very poor

37
Q

common renal tumour of paediatrics

A

wilms tumour

38
Q

what types of cancers are VHL syndrome associated with

A 
renal cell 
epididymal serous cancer 
tumours of endolymph sac 
pancreatic serous cystadenoma 
cerebellar haemangioblastoma
39
Q

what type of epithelia is the bladder made up of

A

transitional type

40
Q

what other parts of the urinary tract are made up of transitional epithelia

A

bladder, ureters, collecting system

41
Q

3 types of cystitis

A

parasitic
aseptic
cather reactivw

42
Q

features of aseptic cystitis

A

persistent dysuria

persistent -ve cultures and urinalysis

43
Q

what is the most likely parasite in parasitic cystitis

A

schistosomiasis, central africa

44
Q

what is the natural history of schistosomiasis infection

A

causes metaplasia due to persistent infection, leading to squamous cell cancer

45
Q

what is the natural history of catheter reactive cystitis

A

can lead to inflamamtion, metaplasia and SCC

46
Q

causes of urinary diverticulae

A

stones
tunours
infection

47
Q

what is hydronephrosis

A

dilation of the collecting system due to urinary obstruction leading to atrophy of renal parenchyma

48
Q

bilateral hydronephrosis is indicative of?

A

low down urinary blockage

49
Q

what is the most common of urinary obstruction in men and its pathophysiology

A

prostatism

hyperplasia of the bladder muscle due to enlarged prostate, leading to raised back pressure

50
Q

what are the risk factors for urothelial neoplasia

A

middle age and elderly age
beta-naphthalene
smoking - biggest risk

51
Q

how many transitional cell cancer appear in the bladder

A

flat CIS or finger like projection

52
Q

what are the risk factors for urinary SCC

A

any form of persistent inflammation leading to metaplsia

infection, catheters, sometimes aseptic

53
Q

how can you tell if a urinary adenocarcinoma is secondary to the bowel or primary from persistent inflammation

A

imaging alone

54
Q

what is urachal adenocarcinoma

A

adenocarcinoma in the urachus, patent part of the alantois from dome bladder to umbilicus

55
Q

why is the prostate smaller in younger age

A

it is under androgenic stimuli

56
Q

what sections of the prostate are affected by BPH

A

central and transitional

57
Q

where is the transition zone located

A

anterior to transitional zone but posteroinferior to fibromuscular stroma

58
Q

where is the peripheral zone located and what does it encircle

A

posteror and covers back of central zone and inferior prostatic urethra

59
Q

risk factors for prostate cancer

A

cadmium batteries

increasing age

60
Q

where is prostate cnacer normally found

A

peripheral zone

61
Q

what histological type is adenocarcinoma

A

adenocarcinoma

62
Q

function of PSA

A

liquifies semen to allow sperm to swim

63
Q

how sensitive and specific is PSA

A

not very at all, high grade cancers dont even produce it

64
Q

false positives in PSA

A 
prostatitis 
spironolactone 
cycling 
DRE 
big prostate
65
Q

what is the gleason scoring system

A

grading for prostate cancer

lowest is 6 and highest 10

66
Q

histology of urethra

A

squamous distally and transitional cell more prox

67
Q

what is BXO and how may it appear

A

balantitis xerotica obliterans
young present iwht phimosis/paraphimosis
lighen like band of inflammatory cells with hyaloid cartilage

68
Q

what type HPV causes genital warts

A

6/11

69
Q

what type HPV is a red flag

A

16/18

70
Q

who is vaccinated for HPV nowadays?

A

women and men

71
Q

what is PEiN and describe its differentiation

A

penile intraepithelial neoplasia
SCC with haematogenous spread
can be differentaited with no HPV
or defifferentiated with HPV

72
Q

what is a spermatocele

A

paratesticular cyst in vas deferens

full of sperm

73
Q

what is a hydrocele

A

accumulation of fluid in tunica vaginalis
unicystic, smooth, fluid filled
transluminates

74
Q

what is a varicocele

A

varicosity of venous plexus

bag of worms

75
Q

how long before testical is infarcted in tescicular torsion

A

6 hours

76
Q

who gets testicular torsion and how does it present

A

young/adolescents

sleep, present at any time with acute scrotum

77
Q

what is a bell clapper deformity and what does it predispose

A

insertion of tunica vaginalis is high so testis can rotate and sit laterally

78
Q

risk factors for seminoma and blood test

A

~40yrs
undescended testis
raised LDH

79
Q

true/false - contralateral testicle of undescended shares risk of seminoma

A

true

80
Q

types of non-seminoma

A

mature teratoma
yolk sac
embronal
trophoblast

81
Q

what marker is used in trophoblast

A

HCG

82
Q

what marker is used in yold sac cancer

A

AFP

83
Q

what marker can be used in choriocarcinoma

A

bHCG

MB2: Renal (11 decks)

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