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Revision 2nd semester > Pathologies > Flashcards

Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Explain why cystitis is more common in women.
  2. Name the main cause of cystitis.
  3. List THREE signs / symptoms of cystitis.
A
  1. short urethrae: short road for bacteria’s and close to anus
  2. Microbial infection (often bacterial) of bladder.
  3. Pain in lower back/abdomen, Dysuria & frequent urination, cloudy & smelly urine, malaise, nausea, fever.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
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2
Q
  1. Using definitions, compare ‘pyelonephritis and ‘cystitis’
A
  1. Pyelonephritis is Microbial Infection of renal pelvis & kidneys (inflammation of nephron) meanwhile cystitis is infection of the bladder.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Name TWO signs / symptoms more suggestive of pyelonephritis.
  2. Name TWO causes (not infection) of pyelonephritis.
A

1 Loin pain and tenderness (often unilateral)./ Dysuria and increased frequent urgency/ Fever

  1. Diabetes Mellitus / pregnancy / gout/ immunocompromised patients/ enlarged prostate/ kidneys stones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
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5
Perfectly
4
Q

List TWO complications of pyelonephritis.

A
  • Septicaemia and renal abscess.
  • Secondary hypertension.
  • Chronic pyelonephritis can lead to chronic kidney disease and renal failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Describe specifically the pathophysiology of glomerulonephritis.
A
  1. An immune mediated disease that causes glomerular inflammation:
How well did you know this?
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5
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6
Q

Describe how oedema develops in nephrotic syndrome.

A

If the glomerular is damaged there is a leaking of albumin into urine (plasma proteins) leads , so fluid moves out of capillaries into tissues = oedema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
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7
Q
  1. List TWO infectious causes of nephrotic syndrome.
  2. List ONE common medicine that can cause nephrotic syndrome
A
  1. Infections (HIV, malaria, hepatitis etc.) / Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.
  2. Drugs (NSAIDs).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy.

A
  • Pathogenesis: Diabetes mellitus elevates blood pressure = Glomerulosclerosis. The kidneys are often enlarged (different to other pathologies).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
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5
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9
Q

Diabetic Kidney: Signs and Symptoms

A

Initially none or /Nausea /Pallor
Fatigue
Vomiting
Oedema

How well did you know this?
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10
Q
  1. Name ONE mineral that is commonly implicated in renal calculi.
A
  1. Calcium oxalate / phosphate
How well did you know this?
1
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3
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5
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11
Q
  1. Describe the difference between ‘primary’ and ‘secondary’ amenorrhoea.
  2. List TWO causes of secondary amenorrhoea.
A
  1. Primary: expected onset (16, 17y) whereas secondary is when menstrual woman lack it for 3 months.
  2. Hypothyroidism, stress, PCOS, pituitary tumour, anorexia,, excessive exercices (endorphins inhibit GnRH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Describe the difference between ‘primary’ and ‘secondary’ dysmenorrhoea.
  2. Name TWO reproductive pathologies that contribute to secondary dysmenorrhoea.
A
  1. primary: release of too much prostaglandins whereas 2: specific pelvic or systemic pathos.like endometriosis, fibroids, pelvic inflam. disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
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13
Q
  1. Name the menstrual phase affected by premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
  2. List TWO causes of PMS.
  3. Name FIVE signs / symptoms of PMS
A
  1. post-ovulatory: second half of menstrual cycle
  2. lack of progesterone in the luteal phase or lack of serotonin but definitive cause is unknown.
  3. anxiety, bloating, fluid retention, aggression, ovarian pain, sweating, hot flushes, headaches, constipation etc…
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Using definitions compare ‘pelvic inflammatory disease’ with ‘endometriosis’

A

PID is inflammatory disorder of the upper female genital tract (uterus, fallopian tubes & ovaries). whereas endometriosis is endometrial tissue found outside of uterine cavity. this tissue deposit in another areas, ovaries, fallopian tubes, pelvic cavity, intestines…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. List ONE infectious cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
  2. List TWO characteristic signs/symptoms of PID.
  3. Name TWO complications of PID
A
  1. Gonorrhea / chlamydia
  2. low abdominal pain may increase with walking / deep dyspareunia: pain in intercourse/ purulent discharge.
  3. Ectopic pregnancy/ infertility/ peritonitis, abscesses & septicemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Describe the pathophysiology of endometriosis.
  2. List TWO locations commonly affected by endometriosis
A
  1. Endometriosis is endometrial tissue outside of uterine cavity. this tissue deposit in another areas
  2. ovaries, fallopian tubes, pelvic cavity, intestines…
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Name ONE hormone which is dominant in endometriosis.
  2. List TWO signs / symptoms of endometriosis (not dysmenorrhoea).
A
  1. oestrogen
  2. Menorrhagia, pelvic pain around menstruation, dyspareunia, diarrhea, infertiliy
How well did you know this?
1
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2
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4
5
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18
Q
  1. Using definitions compare ‘fibroids’ and ‘ovarian cysts’.
  2. State TWO causes of fibroids.
  3. List TWO characteristic signs / symptoms of fibroids.
A
  1. Fibroids are benign tumors of myometrium of the uterus whereas ovarian cysts are fluid filled sacs on ovaries.
  2. link to level of oestrogen & progesterone /obesity/ contraceptive pills
  3. menorrhagia, iron deficiency, frequent urination, constipation, bloating & heaviness in abdomen, infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Explain specifically why fatigue is a common symptom with fibroids.
  2. Name ONE investigative procedure for fibroids.
A
  1. because of iron deficiency anemia = fatigue
  2. ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
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5
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20
Q
  1. Compare polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and Polycystic ovaries
  2. Explain in detail the pathophysiology of PCOS.
  3. List 2 risk factors
  4. List FOUR symptoms of PCOS
A
  1. polycystic ov: is the presence of many cysts within the ovaries and PCOS is an endocrine metabolic condition.
  2. Endo. meta. condit. associated with high androgen level + Insulin resistance.
  3. Genetic / Obesity
  4. lack of ovulation / infertility/ amenorrhea & oligomenorrhea/ hirsutism/ acne &oily skin/ alopecia/ weight gain/ anxiety & depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Name ONE endocrine pathology which individuals with PCOS are at an increased risk of developing.
  2. State TWO locations in the body where an ectopic pregnancy may occur
A
  1. Endometrial cancer
  2. fallopian tubes, ovary, cervix, abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
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22
Q
  1. Name TWO observational signs of breast cancer.
  2. Name 2 ways of diagnosis
  3. List TWO risk factors for the development of breast cancer
  4. why they might have their axillary lymph nodes removed?
A
  1. overlying skin change as orange peel appearance, red, dentation, nipple inverted.
  2. Mammography / Thermography
  3. Family history, age, genetic mutations in BRCA1 or BRCA2. , poor diet and sedentary lifestyle, regular alcohol intake and smoking, oestrogen excess.
  4. because it’s the common route of metastasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
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3
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5
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23
Q
  1. Using definitions compare ‘prostatitis with ‘benign prostatic hyperplasia’.
  2. List TWO risk factors for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
A
  1. prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland whereas BPH is enlargement of prostate
  2. old men +60y , abdominal obesity, sedentary, genetics, pesticides, nutritional deficiencies as zinc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Explain the role of the enzyme 5-alpha reductase in BPH.
  2. List TWO signs / symptoms of BPH
A
  1. Testosterone is converted in DHT (androgen hormone) by the enzyme 5-alpha reductase and double its effects on proliferation of prostate cells.
  2. obstructed, poor urinary flow, blood in the urine and when ejaculate, nocturia, cystitis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Describe the significance of back pain in prostate cancer.
  2. List ONE sign / symptom (not back pain) more suggestive of prostate cancer.
  3. List TWO diagnostic procedures used to identify both_BPH and prostate cancer
A
  1. Metastases spread to lumbar spine
  2. Nocturia, difficulty to urinate / hematuria, blood in ejaculate (not in BPH)
  3. Blood test: elevated PSA, digital rectal exam, biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. name ONE cause of ovarian cysts
  2. diagnosis
  3. Name ONE complication with large cysts
A
  1. Failure to ovulate and fills with fluid
  2. Ultrasound / Laparoscopy
  3. large cysts can affect bladder function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Explain why cystitis is more common in women.
  2. Name the main cause of cystitis.
  3. List THREE signs / symptoms of cystitis.
A
  1. short urethrae: short road for bacteria’s and close to anus
  2. Microbial infection (often bacterial) of bladder.
  3. Pain in lower back/abdomen, Dysuria & frequent urination, cloudy & smelly urine, malaise, nausea, fever.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Using definitions, compare ‘pyelonephritis and ‘cystitis’
A
  1. Pyelonephritis is Microbial Infection of renal pelvis & kidneys (inflammation of nephron) meanwhile cystitis is infection of the bladder.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Name TWO signs / symptoms more suggestive of pyelonephritis.
  2. Name TWO causes (not infection) of pyelonephritis.
A

1 Loin pain and tenderness (often unilateral)./ Dysuria and increased frequent urgency/ Fever

  1. Diabetes Mellitus / pregnancy / gout/ immunocompromised patients/ enlarged prostate/ kidneys stones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List TWO complications of pyelonephritis.

A
  • Septicaemia and renal abscess.
  • Secondary hypertension.
  • Chronic pyelonephritis can lead to chronic kidney disease and renal failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Describe specifically the pathophysiology of glomerulonephritis.
A
  1. An immune mediated disease that causes glomerular inflammation:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe how oedema develops in nephrotic syndrome.

A

If the glomerular is damaged there is a leaking of albumin into urine (plasma proteins) leads , so fluid moves out of capillaries into tissues = oedema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. List TWO infectious causes of nephrotic syndrome.
  2. List ONE common medicine that can cause nephrotic syndrome
A
  1. Infections (HIV, malaria, hepatitis etc.) / Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.
  2. Drugs (NSAIDs).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy.

A
  • Pathogenesis: Diabetes mellitus elevates blood pressure = Glomerulosclerosis. The kidneys are often enlarged (different to other pathologies).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Diabetic Kidney: Signs and Symptoms

A

Initially none or /Nausea /Pallor
Fatigue
Vomiting
Oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Name ONE mineral that is commonly implicated in renal calculi.
A
  1. Calcium oxalate / phosphate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Describe the difference between ‘primary’ and ‘secondary’ amenorrhoea.
  2. List TWO causes of secondary amenorrhoea.
A
  1. Primary: expected onset (16, 17y) whereas secondary is when menstrual woman lack it for 3 months.
  2. Hypothyroidism, stress, PCOS, pituitary tumour, anorexia,, excessive exercices (endorphins inhibit GnRH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Describe the difference between ‘primary’ and ‘secondary’ dysmenorrhoea.
  2. Name TWO reproductive pathologies that contribute to secondary dysmenorrhoea.
A
  1. primary: release of too much prostaglandins whereas 2: specific pelvic or systemic pathos.like endometriosis, fibroids, pelvic inflam. disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Name the menstrual phase affected by premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
  2. List TWO causes of PMS.
  3. Name FIVE signs / symptoms of PMS
A
  1. post-ovulatory: second half of menstrual cycle
  2. lack of progesterone in the luteal phase or lack of serotonin but definitive cause is unknown.
  3. anxiety, bloating, fluid retention, aggression, ovarian pain, sweating, hot flushes, headaches, constipation etc…
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Using definitions compare ‘pelvic inflammatory disease’ with ‘endometriosis’

A

PID is inflammatory disorder of the upper female genital tract (uterus, fallopian tubes & ovaries). whereas endometriosis is endometrial tissue found outside of uterine cavity. this tissue deposit in another areas, ovaries, fallopian tubes, pelvic cavity, intestines…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. List ONE infectious cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
  2. List TWO characteristic signs/symptoms of PID.
  3. Name TWO complications of PID
A
  1. Gonorrhea / chlamydia
  2. low abdominal pain may increase with walking / deep dyspareunia: pain in intercourse/ purulent discharge.
  3. Ectopic pregnancy/ infertility/ peritonitis, abscesses & septicemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Describe the pathophysiology of endometriosis.
  2. List TWO locations commonly affected by endometriosis
A
  1. Endometriosis is endometrial tissue outside of uterine cavity. this tissue deposit in another areas
  2. ovaries, fallopian tubes, pelvic cavity, intestines…
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Name ONE hormone which is dominant in endometriosis.
  2. List TWO signs / symptoms of endometriosis (not dysmenorrhoea).
A
  1. oestrogen
  2. Menorrhagia, pelvic pain around menstruation, dyspareunia, diarrhea, infertiliy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Using definitions compare ‘fibroids’ and ‘ovarian cysts’.
  2. State TWO causes of fibroids.
  3. List TWO characteristic signs / symptoms of fibroids.
A
  1. Fibroids are benign tumors of myometrium of the uterus whereas ovarian cysts are fluid filled sacs on ovaries.
  2. link to level of oestrogen & progesterone /obesity/ contraceptive pills
  3. menorrhagia, iron deficiency, frequent urination, constipation, bloating & heaviness in abdomen, infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Explain specifically why fatigue is a common symptom with fibroids.
  2. Name ONE investigative procedure for fibroids.
A
  1. because of iron deficiency anemia = fatigue
  2. ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Compare polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and Polycystic ovaries
  2. Explain in detail the pathophysiology of PCOS.
  3. List 2 risk factors
  4. List FOUR symptoms of PCOS
A
  1. polycystic ov: is the presence of many cysts within the ovaries and PCOS is an endocrine metabolic condition.
  2. Endo. meta. condit. associated with high androgen level + Insulin resistance.
  3. Genetic / Obesity
  4. lack of ovulation / infertility/ amenorrhea & oligomenorrhea/ hirsutism/ acne &oily skin/ alopecia/ weight gain/ anxiety & depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. Name ONE endocrine pathology which individuals with PCOS are at an increased risk of developing.
  2. State TWO locations in the body where an ectopic pregnancy may occur
A
  1. Endometrial cancer
  2. fallopian tubes, ovary, cervix, abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Name TWO observational signs of breast cancer.
  2. Name 2 ways of diagnosis
  3. List TWO risk factors for the development of breast cancer
  4. why they might have their axillary lymph nodes removed?
A
  1. overlying skin change as orange peel appearance, red, dentation, nipple inverted.
  2. Mammography / Thermography
  3. Family history, age, genetic mutations in BRCA1 or BRCA2. , poor diet and sedentary lifestyle, regular alcohol intake and smoking, oestrogen excess.
  4. because it’s the common route of metastasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Using definitions compare ‘prostatitis with ‘benign prostatic hyperplasia’.
  2. List TWO risk factors for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
A
  1. prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland whereas BPH is enlargement of prostate
  2. old men +60y , abdominal obesity, sedentary, genetics, pesticides, nutritional deficiencies as zinc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Explain the role of the enzyme 5-alpha reductase in BPH.
  2. List TWO signs / symptoms of BPH
A
  1. Testosterone is converted in DHT (androgen hormone) by the enzyme 5-alpha reductase and double its effects on proliferation of prostate cells.
  2. obstructed, poor urinary flow, blood in the urine and when ejaculate, nocturia, cystitis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Describe the significance of back pain in prostate cancer.
  2. List ONE sign / symptom (not back pain) more suggestive of prostate cancer.
  3. List TWO diagnostic procedures used to identify both_BPH and prostate cancer
A
  1. Metastases spread to lumbar spine
  2. Nocturia, difficulty to urinate / hematuria, blood in ejaculate (not in BPH)
  3. Blood test: elevated PSA, digital rectal exam, biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. name ONE cause of ovarian cysts
  2. diagnosis
  3. Name ONE complication with large cysts
A
  1. Failure to ovulate and fills with fluid
  2. Ultrasound / Laparoscopy
  3. large cysts can affect bladder function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of the following hypersensitivity reactions:

  • Type I:
  • Type II:
  • Type III
  • Type IV
A
  • Type I: allergy IgE antibodies bind to mast cells = degranulation: release of histamine & others inflammatory mediators. Immediate onset
  • Type II: IgG antibodies produced= activate complement system. Rapid onset
  • Type III: IgG, IgA, IgM mediated: antigen-antibody complexes deposit in part of the body. Onset 4-8h
  • Type IV: cytotoxic T-cells attacking skin tissues 48-72h
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54
Q

Explain the key difference between a ‘food intolerance’ and a ‘food allergy’

A

True food allergy is an IgE mediated immune response whereas intolerance are symptoms triggered by some foods, lacking enzymes, probiotics, bile, HCI… but not a defined immune response (lactose intolerance)

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55
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of the following:

  • Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)
  • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
  • Ankylosing spondylitis (AS)
A
  • SLE: A chronic inflammatory, autoimmune, multi- system disorder in which autoantibodies are formed against all different tissues in the body. Autoimmune attack on DNA.
  • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA): systemic inflammation of many tissues (synovium)
  • Ankylosing spondylitis (AS):systemic autoimmune disease with chronic inflammation of spine & sacroiliac joints
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56
Q

State TWO characteristic signs / symptoms of SLE

A
  • Fatigue, malaise.
  • Butterfly rash, photosensitivity, vasculitis, Raynaud’s syndrome.
  • Joint pains — usually peripheral joints (symmetrical or asymmetrical). The pain is often disproportionate to the swelling. Hands, knees and elbows commonly affected.
  • Pleurisy (sharp chest pain, shortness of breath, etc.), pericarditis, hypertension.
  • Nephritis (nephrotic syndrome).
  • Lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, anaemia, leukopenia (recurrent infections).
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57
Q

Name ONE unique blood test used to identify S Lupus Erythematosus

A

Blood tests: Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs), anaemia,

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58
Q

List ONE gene associated with:

a. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
b. Ankylosing spondylitis (AS)

A

a. RA: HLA-DR4/DR1
b. AS: HLA-B27

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59
Q

Name THREE signs / symptoms of RA

A
  • Symmetrical / bilateral arthritis of small joints (hands and feet mostly).
  • Progressive morning stiffness (>1 hour).
  • Deformity of joints, e.g. swan neck, ulnar deviation.
  • General malaise and fatigue.
  • Subcutaneous nodules (around fingers and elbows).
  • C1 / 2 subluxation and compression of the spinal cord leading to paralysis / neurological complications.
  • Kidney problems.
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60
Q

a. List TWO bacterial causes/triggers of Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Age onset & sex

A

a. intestinal infections such as salmonella /shigella
b. 15-30 y male

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61
Q

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis pathophysiology

A

Inflammation of the thyroid gland & is gradually destroyed by a variety of cells and antibodies — mediated immune processes.
• Auto-antibodies develop that reaction with proteins called thyroglobulin and thyroid cells preventing the synthesis of T3 and T4.

62
Q

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis: Signs and Symptoms

A
  • Tiredness, malaise, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, depression.
  • Slow cognition, poor memory, low libido, deep voice, menstrual changes, muscle cramps / aches, joint pains.
  • Signs: Goitre. Dry, brittle skin. Slow tendon reflexes, bradycardia, loss of lateral third of eyebrows, puffiness around the eyes (myxoedema). High TSH, low thyroid hormones.
63
Q

Graves’ Disease (Thyrotoxicosis)

A

An autoimmune condition whereby IgG antibodies bind to TSH receptors and stimulate production of thyroid hormones.

64
Q

Graves’ Disease (Thyrotoxicosis): Signs and Symptoms

A
  • Nervousness, irritability, hyperactivity, unexplained weight loss, insomnia, muscle weakness, diarrhoea, fatigue, heat sensitivity, increased sweating, palpitations.
  • Signs: Goitre, exophthalmos, tachycardia, tremor, brisk tendon reflexes, lid lag.
65
Q

List TWO triggers of SLE

A

• oral contraceptive pill, HRT, stress, UV light, pesticides.

66
Q

Age onset Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

30-50y

67
Q

Miss X displays the following signs and symptoms. Which pathology do you suspect?

‘Pustules with round oozing patches and golden yellow crusts that grow larger daily. Mostly affects hands and face or in skin folds’

A

Impetigo

68
Q

Impetigo: Transmission

A

•Very contagious, spread by direct or indirect contact; e.g. towels.

69
Q

List TWO causes / triggers of genital candidiasis

A
  1. Immune compromise
  2. antibiotic treatment
  3. diabetes mellitus
  4. pregnancy
  5. immune system disorders
70
Q

Describe the rash associated with Lyme disease

A

A circular pink or red rash at the site of tick attachment that radiates from the bite, usually over 5 cm diameter.

71
Q

Name the bacterial cause of ‘Lyme’

A

Borrelia

72
Q

Describe the appearance of the tonsils in diphtheria

A

• Grey membrane (necrosis) grows across the tonsils / pharynx or nose

73
Q

Name ONE cranial nerve where the herpes simplex virus (Type I) remains dormant

A

Trigeminal nerve.

74
Q

Using definitions, compare ‘whooping cough’ and ‘tuberculosis’

A

A bacterial infection with characteristic coughing attacks where there is a desperate attempt to breathe in, creating ‘whooping’.

75
Q

Explain why the Respiratory system (lungs) are a primary target for tuberculosis

A

because TB bacteria loves oxygen so go there

76
Q

Describe any TWO signs and / or symptoms associated with viral hepatitis in the following stages:

  1. Pre-icteric stage
  2. Icteric stage
A
  1. Pre-icteric stage: Malaise and diarrhoea, nausea.
  2. Icteric stage: Jaundice, pale stools, dark urine (hepatic stasis), itchiness in the skin, enlarged liver, impaired blood clotting.
77
Q

List ONE serious complication of viral hepatitis

A

•Chronic liver disease: Cirrhosis, liver cancer (85% of hep. C becomes chronic).

78
Q

Name which area of the brain is affected by the ‘poliovirus’

A

Horn cells of CNS (motor) and has no cure.

79
Q

Describe in detail the pathophysiology of Human Immunodeficiency Viral (HIV) infection.

A
  • Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV): attack immune system causing immune deficiency. the virus target CD4 cells.
  • It’s a retrovirus : has a double-strand RNA virus.
  • Converts RNA to DNA inside the host cell. Viral DNA forces the host cell to produce viral RNA & proteins which decrease T-cell count.
80
Q

Name the T-cell affected by HIV

A

CD4 receptors

81
Q

HIV: Name 4 Signs and Symptoms

A
  • Fatigue.
  • Anaemia.
  • Anorexia, diarrhoea, cachexia (weight loss, muscle wasting).
  • Neurological disease with no other cause.
  • Peripheral neuropathy.
  • Neutropenia and thrombocytopenia.
  • Dementia (HIV dementia).
  • Cognitive / motor dysfunction.
82
Q

Define dysentery

A

Infection of the intestines that causes diarrhoea containing blood and / or mucus.

83
Q

Describe in detail how malarial infection develops in the human body

A
  1. Plasmodium parasites (‘sporozoites’) go directly to the liver rapidly (before 30mn so it doesn’t give time to your blood cells to arrive) where they proliferate and mature — and cause hepatic disease. They will cause rupturing in parts of the liver where they release protozoan parasites into the blood and end up with their final target: Erythrocyte and there provoke infection. Infected erythrocyte cells burst = excess hemolysis and spread infection.
    (three stages in malaria life cycle: Mosquito / human liver / erythrocyte stage).
    Up to nine months
84
Q

Describe TWO signs and / or symptoms in a male affected by chlamydia

A
  1. milky-white or yellow discharge from penis,
  2. epididymitis
  3. urethritis (dysuria) pain in urine discharge
85
Q

List ONE complication of chlamydia

A
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • infertility.
86
Q

Describe THREE keys signs and / or symptoms of gonorrhoea in a female.

A
  • yellow vaginal discharge,
  • dysuria,
  • irregular vaginal bleeding
  • lower abdominal pain, pain during sex.
87
Q

Name the specific virus that causes genital warts

A

HPV: Human Papilloma virus

88
Q

Describe the appearance of the tongue in scarlet fever.

A

First two days: white tongue with red papillae. After this, more raw / red.

89
Q

Describe ONE key difference between ‘HIV’ and ‘AIDS’ (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome).

A

HIV Called AIDS (later stage) when <200 CD4

90
Q

Name the infective organism causing cold sores

A

Herpes Simplex virus type 1

91
Q

Name ONE sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterium

A
  • Chlamydia
  • Gonorrhoea
  • syphilis
92
Q

List THREE characteristics signs and / or symptoms (not weight loss) of lung cancer

A
  • Difficulty to breath (Dyspnoea) and chest pain.
  • Dry and persistent cough.
  • Cough with blood : Haemoptysis (bloody / raspberry sputum).
  • Wasting of muscles in hand (if apical tumour).
  • ‘Clubbing’ of nails.
93
Q

Name THREE risk factors for the development of colorectal cancer

A
  • high in meat
  • Low in fibre
  • Lack of vitamin D.
  • Polyps, family history.
94
Q

List THREE characteristic signs and / or symptoms of colorectal cancer

A
  • Rectal bleeding, blood / mucus in stool.
  • Obstruction causing colicky abdominal pain
  • Anaemia -> fatigue, pallor, etc.
  • Consistent change in bowel habits (diarrhoea / constipation).
95
Q

Describe TWO differences between a ‘benign breast mass’ and a ‘malignant breast mass’

A

Benign: breast pain / tender masses / nodules / mobile, smooths, regular borders.

Malignant: Painless, unilateral fixed lump

96
Q

List TWO nipple / breast changes observed in breast cancer

A
  • Asymmetry of breasts inverted
  • Discharging nipple.
97
Q

Describe the role of ‘oestrogen’ in breast cancer.

Name 2 others hormones

A

80% of all breast cancer are oestrogen dependant/dominant. because oestrogen build and growth. More oestrogen = +growth

Also that can drive growth is progesterone : 65% of cases and Epidermal growth factor 20%

98
Q

List FOUR risk factors for ovarian cancer

A 
• **Family history.** 
• **BRCA 1 and 2.** 
**• Late menopause, early menarche.** 
**• Infertility / never given birth.** 
**• HRT.** 
**• Poor lifestyle: Exercise, smokers, obesity.** 
**• Diet rich in animal fats.** 
**• Talcum powder used between legs.**
99
Q

List TWO characteristic signs and/or symptoms of ovarian cancer

A
  • Vague abdominal discomfort and bloating.
  • Abdominal mass with pelvic pain.
  • 75% present with advanced disease Later: Change in bowel habits.
100
Q

Name TWO risk factors for cervical cancer and age

A
  • Persistent HPV infection (16 + 18 cause 70%).
  • Sexual behaviour (multiple partners, younger age).
  • Smoking, COCP.
  • 25-35 y
101
Q

Cervical Cancer: Name 2 Signs and Symptoms

A
  • Abnormal vaginal bleeding (after sexual intercourse, between menstrual periods).
  • Vaginal discharge.
  • White / red patches on cervix.
102
Q

List TWO characteristic signs and / or symptoms of liver cancer and age

A
  1. Advanced stages: Jaundice, ascites, hepatomegaly.
  2. Pruritus (itchy skin), bleeding oesophageal varices (secondary to portal hypertension), weight loss.
  3. Vomiting, loss of appetite, feeling very full after eating, feeling sick, pain or swelling in the abdomen, fatigue and weakness.
  4. 60 y - men
103
Q

Name ONE diagnostic tumour marker for gastric cancer

A

•Tumour markers: CEA and CA 19-9.

104
Q

List TWO causes of pancreatic cancer

A
  • age, smoking, family history
  • Chronic pancreatitis, diabetes, H. pylori
105
Q
  1. Describe the pain associated with pancreatic cancer
  2. Name 3 signs & symptoms of pancreatic cancer
A
  1. Epigastric pain radiating to the back.
  2. Jaundice, weight loss, nausea after eating, back pain
106
Q

Explain the relevance of ‘back pain’ in prostate cancer

A

if the cancer metastasize it goes to the lumbar spine causing back pain

107
Q

List FOUR risk factors (not age) which increases the risk of prostate cancer.

A
  • Diet: High red meat intake (especially processed, non-grass fed), high diary intake (with raised IGF), acidic.
  • Ethnicity: Men of black ethnicity are at the highest risk of developing prostate cancer.
  • Family history: The risk of developing prostate cancer will increase depending upon the number of relatives affected.
  • Genetics: Associated with genes such as BRCA1/2.
  • Obesity: Anabolic steroid use.
108
Q

Mr X displays the followings signs and / or symptoms, what pathology could this patient be experiencing?

‘Painless haematuria, increases urine frequency, urgency, dysuria, bone metastases’

A

Bladder cancer

109
Q

What are the risk factors for bladder cancer and what is the most common presenting symptom?

A
  • Smoking
  • Recurrent urinary tract infections
  • Symptom: blood in urine (heamaturia)
110
Q

List TWO risk factors which increase the risk of skin cancer

A
  1. Strong connection to UV light exposure
  2. Chemicals in sunscreens.
111
Q
  1. Explain what is meant by ‘osteosarcoma’
  2. Who is affected by primary osteosarcoma?
A
  1. An ‘osteosarcoma’ is a Bone cancer /malignant bone tumour.
  2. Teenagers, young adults
112
Q

Using definitions compare ‘lymphoma’ with ‘leukaemia’

A

Lymphoma is lymphatic cancer(lymphatic system whereas Leukemia malignancy come from bone bone marrow.

113
Q

List TWO risks factors of lymphoma and the virus associated

A
  1. Virus: The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) found in 50% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
  2. Other risk factors include HIV and general immunosuppression.
  3. Exposure to pesticides and herbicides, chemotherapy and radiotherapy.
114
Q

With regards to acute and chronic leukaemia, complete the following table

A
115
Q

Explain how leukaemia affects blood cells (Think RBC, WBC and thrombocytes).

A
  • Leukemia suppressed the red blood cells (RBC) production = anemia
  • Increased of abnormal WBC that don’t function properly
  • Decrease thrombocytes: thrombocytopenia
116
Q

List FOUR characteristic signs and / or symptoms of leukaemia

A
  1. Malaise
  2. Anaemia (fatigue, pallor etc.)
  3. Frequent infections
  4. Easy bleeding / bruising.
  5. Fever, weight loss.
  6. Splenomegaly (abdominal swelling / discomfort).
  7. Lymph node enlargement.
117
Q

List TWO overlying skin changes observed in breast cancer

A
  • Dimpling
  • ‘orange peel’ appearance.
  • Axillary lymph node enlargement
118
Q

Describe what is meant by ‘triple negative’ breast cancer

A

If a tumour contains none of the three receptor types (oestrogen, proesterone, epidermal growht factor, the breast cancer is ‘triple negative’. This accounts for 15% of cases.

119
Q

Name TWO genetic mutations which may increase the risk of breast cancer.

A

BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of breast (and ovarian) cancer.

120
Q

Explain why aluminium and parabens may increase the risk of breast cancer

A

Alu: oestrogen-like hormonal effects.

Parabens: mimic oestrogen

121
Q

Name the ‘lymphocyte’ commonly involved with lymphoma

A

B Lymphocytes

122
Q

Name 3 main types of skin cancer

A
  1. Basal cell carcinoma
  2. Squamous
  3. Melanoma
123
Q

what is leukemia?

A

Bone marrow cancer

124
Q

What group is affected by testicular cancer

A

15 to 35 years

125
Q

Using definitions compare the following:

  • Otitis externa
  • Otitis media
  • Otitis interna
A
  • Otitis externa: Inflammation of the outer ear: 90% associated with a bacterial infection and the remaining fungal or allergic.
  • Otitis media: Inflammation of the middle ear, more in children as eustachian tube is more horizontal. & shorter. also due to allergy to wheat, diary.
  • Otitis interna: inflammation membranous labyrinth
126
Q

Explain how a ‘grommet’ can relieve secretory otitis media

A

Grommet is tiny pipe pierced in tympanic membrane that drain fluid out of the middle ear

127
Q

Describe TWO characteristic signs and / or symptoms of otitis interna

A
  • Sudden and severe vertigo (not triggered by movement, unlike benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).
  • Sudden unilateral hearing loss (not in BPPV).
  • Nausea and vomiting, tinnitus.
128
Q

Using definitions, compare ‘Meniere’s disease’ and ‘tinnitus’

A

Meniere’: distention of the membranous labyrinth. This membrane became stretched and inflamed

Tinnitus: The perception of sound originating from within the head rather than outside.

129
Q

List ONE autoimmune cause of Meniere’s disease

A

autoimmune links: RA, SLE.

130
Q

List triad or symptoms of Meniere’s disease

A
  • Triad symptoms: Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss.
  • Nausea and vomiting. Ear pressure.
  • Characterized by fluctuating patterns of symptoms (acute attacks typically last two–three hours every one–two months).
131
Q

Describe the key difference between ‘conductive’ and ‘sensory’ hearing impairment

A
  • Conductive: canal obstructions, ossicle abnormalities, ruptured tympanic membrane
  • Sensory: poor hair cell function or damage to the nerves (congenital, infection, noise trauma…)
132
Q

List TWO viral causes of hearing impairment

A

Measles, mumps, meningitis, syphilis, chlamydia, rubella

133
Q

Using definitions compare ‘blepharitis’ with a ‘stye’

A

Inflammation of the eyelid margin. /stye: Bacterial infection: Inflammation of sebaceous glands of eyelid.

134
Q

List ONE endocrine pathology that increases the risk of styes

A

• Immune compromised , Diabetes mellitus

135
Q

what is Conjuctivitis?

A

A highly-contagious inflammation of the conjunctiva.

136
Q

Corneal Ulcer: Causes

A
  • Bacterial (e.g. gonorrhoea), viral (e.g. herpes simplex), fungal infection.
  • Trauma (e.g. contact lens), spread from blepharitis.
137
Q

Define Strabismus (squint)

A

Mis-alignment of the eyes, which means the retinal image is not in corresponding areas of both eyes.
• ‘Esotropia’ = inward squint
• ‘Exotropia’ = outward squint.

138
Q

Describe the difference between a healthy lens and a lens affected by cataracts

A
  • A healthy lens is: transparent due to regular arrangement of lens fibres.
  • Unhealthy lens: fibres disorganised within cytoplasm.: cloudy colour
139
Q

List TWO causes (not age) of Age Macular Degen,

A
  • Advancing age
  • Smoking
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Family history are also thought to play a role.
140
Q

Describe how vision is affected in AMD

A
  • Reduced visual acuity, particular difficulty with near vision.
  • Gradual (and progressive) loss of central vision.
141
Q

List TWO diagnostic methods used to diagnose AMD

A
  • Use of an ‘Amsler grid’
  • Diagnosis can also be made using ophthalmoscopy.
142
Q

Explain why floaters develop in diabetic retinopathy

A

Diabetic retinopathy: show small quantities of bleeding in retina

143
Q
  1. Identify the following pathology: ‘Floaters in vision, flashing lights, curtains descending over vision’.
  2. Explain how the pathology upward develops
A
  1. Retinal detachment. Ocular emergency — usually requires surgery.
  2. Separation of the neurosensory layer of the retina from the pigmented epithelium = accumulation of sub-retinal fluid in the potential space. this detachment of the retina sorted with gravity: up to down.
    Can result in blindness or visual impairment.
144
Q

List ONE lifestyle factor that may cause glaucoma

A

• Smoking will moderately increase pressure.

145
Q

Glaucoma: Complications

A

• Damage to the optic nerve and retina leads to permanent blindness.

146
Q

List TWO signs/symptoms of late chronic glaucoma

A
  1. Loss of peripheral vision
  2. Blurring of objects directly in front of the person.
  3. Loss of night vision.
147
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of diabetic retinopathy.

A

Progressive, potentially sight-threatening disease of the retinal microvasculature.
• Diabetic retinophropathy occurs as a result of chronic hyperglycaemia.
• The vessel walls become physically weak and leaky, leading to micro-aneurysms,
oedema and haemorrhaging.
Neovascularisation: new vessel formation

148
Q

Name TWO pathologies that increase the risk of otitis externa

A
  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. HIV
149
Q

Explain how the tympanic membrane appears in otitis media

A

Fluid puts pressure on tympanic membrane that is bulging

150
Q

What is it Vertigo

A

It’s the illusion of movement

151
Q

Define age-related macular degeneration (AMD).

A

AMD describes the ageing changes that occur in the central areas of the retina (macula).

Revision 2nd semester (8 decks)

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